Answer:
D) Four statements are true.
Explanation:
True statements are:
1. It is well documented by a series of transitional fossils.
2. It explains why modern whales have vestigial pelvic girdles.
3.It involved changes in the sequence or expression of Hox genes.
4. It is an example of macroevolution.
Which is the priority assessment for the client with Guillain-Barré syndrome with rapidly ascending paralysis?
Complete Question :
Which is the priority assessment for the client with Guillain-Barré syndrome with rapidly ascending paralysis?
1 Monitoring urinary output
2 Assessing nutritional status
3 Monitoring respiratory status
4 Assessing communication needs
Answer: the priority assessment for the client with Guillain-Barré syndrome with rapidly ascending paralysis is Monitoring respiratory status.
Explanation.Guillain-Barré syndrome is a rare disorder in which the body's immune system attacks the nerves. needsThe most serious complication of Guillain-Barré syndrome is respiratory failure caused by respiratory muscle paralysis.
Which of the following statements is FALSE of basic emotions? They are innate. They are universal. They are greatly influenced by experience. They can be determined from facial expressions.
The statement that can be considered as false as regards basic emotions is B: They are universal.
Basic emotions can be regarded as a special class of emotions that encompass all other emotions. According to theorist, It is a type of emotion with some attributes such been innate, they can be influenced by experience and can be determined from facial expressions.There basic emotions that exist are:
happinesssadness fearangerTherefore, option C is correct.
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Which of the following is an example of an epigenetic change in eukaryotes? A) a loss of an AT base pair from a gene B) the addition of methyl groups to cytosines in the promoter region of a gene C) the substitution of an AT base pair by a GC base pair in a gene as a result of a mistake during DNA replicationD) a deletion that simultaneously removes two genes from the genome E) None of these examples represents epigenetic changes.
Answer:
The answer is B
Explanation:
The addition of methyl groups to cytosines in the promoter region of a gene.
Epigenetic modifications entails DNA methylation and histone modification
Sympathetic division stimulation causes ________.
a. decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
b. increased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure
c. decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure
d. increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
Answer:
D. increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
Explanation:
Activation of the sympathetic division under any emergency or stress conditions results in a series of physiological responses collectively referred to as flight or fight response.
The sympathetic nervous system causes an increase in heart rate and blood pressure. Increased pumping of blood through the heart ensures enough supply of oxygen to muscles required to produce the desired responses.
It also causes constriction of blood vessels that supply gastrointestinal tract and reduced muscular activities of smooth muscles of GI trait. The result is reduced blood flow through these tissues, reduced peristalsis and slowing of digestive activities, which are not required during exercise. The sympathetic nervous system also triggers the release of glucose by the liver increases blood glucose level.
Sympathetic division stimulation causes d) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure.
Explanation:Sympathetic division stimulation causes d) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure.
The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for the body's response to stress or danger. When this division is stimulated, it triggers a release of epinephrine, which leads to an increase in blood glucose levels. It also inhibits the activity of the digestive system, resulting in decreased GI peristalsis. Lastly, sympathetic stimulation increases heart rate and blood pressure to prepare the body for fight or flight.Learn more about Effects of sympathetic division stimulation here:https://brainly.com/question/31522035
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According to the evolutionary perspective, which of the following statements accurately reflects the role of gender differences?
a) Gender differences have little bearing on the survival of the species.
b) Males with more nurturing characteristics attract females with competitive traits.
c) Females with nurturing characteristics are valued for their tendency to help children survive.
d) Forceful and competitive females attract males who can provide them with sturdy offspring.
Answer:
C- Females with nurturing characteristics are valued for their tendency to help children survive
Explanation:
The role of the female gender according to the evolutionary perspective was simply that of procreation and nurturer. They were required for their ability to birth offsprings that would grow into adults and thus, females recognized as possessing nurturing characteristics tended to attract more males as mates as it was believed they'll procreate children and help them survive well into adulthood
2. In the SN1 mechanism, the second step is attack of the nucleophile, so increasing the nucleophile concentration should speed up this step. Why, then, do we say that the rate of an SN1 reaction does not depend on the concentration of the nucleophile?
Answer:
The rate of reaction depends on the rate determining step of a nonelementary reaction
Explanation:
A non elementary reaction is a reaction that proceeds in a sequence of steps. One of the steps is usually the slowest step in the reaction sequence. This slowest step is called the rate determining step. In an SN1 reaction, the rate determining step is the formation of the carbocation, the concentration of the carbocation affects the rate of reaction because it is involved in the rate determining step. The attack of the nucleophile is a fast step and does not affect the rate of reaction.
Answer:because the rate determining step is not the second step where nucleophilic concentration is important but rather the first step is the rate determining step in SN1 reaction
Explanation: the rate determining step is the slowest step in a reaction chain and SN1 reaction mechanism is first characterized by formation of a carboncation which is an endothermic reaction hence the is the slowest step in the chain reaction
For the following characteristic, indicate M for monocot and E for eudicot. Vascular bundles neatly and uniformly arranged around the stem
Answer:
M: Eudicot
Explanation:
In the dicot stem, the vascular bundles are arranged in a ring, with pith concentrated at the core of the stem, rather than being scattered throughout the plant interior. In each vascular bundle, the xylem and phloem are separated by a substance called vascular cambium
The main difference between stems of both the plants is due to the arrangement of the vascular bundle. In monocots stem, the vascular bundles are scattered across the stem without any definite arrangement. On the other hand, in dicots stem, the vascular bundles are arranged in the form of one or two broken rings, following that they have a definite shape.
The correct label for vascular bundles neatly arranged around the stem is E for eudicot. In eudicots, vascular tissue forms a ring in the stem, unlike in monocots where it is scattered.
Explanation:For the characteristic of vascular bundles being neatly and uniformly arranged around the stem, the correct labeling is E for eudicot. In eudicots, also known as true dicots, the vascular tissue, which includes both xylem and phloem, forms a ring in the stem.
This is in contrast to monocots, where vascular tissue is scattered in the stem without a uniform arrangement. An example of this arrangement is the clover stem, a eudicot, that shows vascular bundles organized in a ring with a large central pith.
Why do scientists studying evolutionary medicine in humans examine distantly-related species (e.g., yeast, nematode worms, frogs, plants, mice)? a) Clusters of orthologs common to humans and other species can be associated with the same functions b) They can be informative about how cells sense their environments c) Other organisms reproduce more quickly than humans, d) Shutting down genes is possible in more distantly related species but it is not ethically allowed in humans e) all of the above f) a, b, and c
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-F
Explanation:
The modern medical, molecular and genetic studies are performed on the model organism like C. elegans, mice and many others.
The reason for the studies is that the life span of these organisms is of short duration as compared to humans. These organisms are also made of cells which are sensitive to their environment as humans.
The studies have shown that this organism shows an orthology relationship in their genes due to the origin of the genes from the same ancestral genes.
Thus, option-F is the correct answer.
A portion of a polypeptide produced by a mammalian cell was found to have the following sequence of amino acids:...Lys-Ser-Pro-Ser-Leu-Asn-Ala... - In a normal cell...Lys-Val-His-His-Leu-Met-Ala...- In a mutant cella.) What was the nucleotide sequence of the mRNA segment that encoded this portion of the original polypeptide?b.) What was the nucleotide sequence of the mRNA encoding this portion of the mutant polypeptide?c.) Can you determine which nucleotide was deleted and which was inserted?
a) Nucleotide sequence of the mRNA segment that encoded the original polypeptide: AAA UCU CCU UCU UUA AAU GCU
b) Nucleotide sequence of the mRNA segment that encoded the mutant polypeptide: AAA GUU CAU CAU UUA AUG GCU
c) The nucleotide that was deleted was C, and the nucleotide that was inserted was G.
a.
The given sequence of amino acids for the original polypeptide is:
Lys-Ser-Pro-Ser-Leu-Asn-Ala
Using the genetic code table, we can determine the corresponding codons for each amino acid:
Lys (AAA or AAG)
Ser (UCU, UCC, UCA, UCG, AGU, or AGC)
Pro (CCU, CCC, CCA, or CCG)
Ser (UCU, UCC, UCA, UCG, AGU, or AGC)
Leu (UUA, UUG, CUU, CUC, CUA, or CUG)
Asn (AAU or AAC)
Ala (GCU, GCC, GCA, or GCG)
b) Nucleotide sequence of the mRNA segment that encoded the mutant polypeptide:
The given sequence of amino acids for the mutant polypeptide is:
Lys-Val-His-His-Leu-Met-Ala
Using the genetic code table, we can determine the corresponding codons for each amino acid:
Lys (AAA or AAG)
Val (GUU, GUC, GUA, or GUG)
His (CAU or CAC)
His (CAU or CAC)
Leu (UUA, UUG, CUU, CUC, CUA, or CUG)
Met (AUG)
Ala (GCU, GCC, GCA, or GCG)
c) Comparing the mRNA sequences for the original and mutant polypeptides, we can see that the following changes occurred:
Original: AAA UCU CCU UCU UUA AAU GCU
Mutant: AAA GUU CAU CAU UUA AUG GCU
The differences are:
The codon UCU (Ser) was replaced by GUU (Val)
The codon CCU (Pro) was replaced by CAU (His)
The codon UCU (Ser) was replaced by CAU (His)
The codon AAU (Asn) was replaced by AUG (Met)
The ""preservationist ethic"" is associated with ______________ .
Answer: maintenance the health of the natural world. Through allocation,exploitation and protection
Explanation:
This involves the health state of the living organisms of the word :the vegaation, the aquatic organisms and ithe biodervasity.
The preservationist ethic is associated with conservation movement.
The preservationist ethic is a philosophy that advocates for the protection and conservation of natural resources, ecosystems, and wildlife. It is closely associated with the conservation movement, which emerged in the late 19th and early 20th centuries. The conservation movement was a response to the rapid industrialization and exploitation of natural resources that was occurring at the time.
Key figures in the movement, such as John Muir and Theodore Roosevelt, championed the idea that certain areas of natural beauty and ecological significance should be preserved for future generations. This ethic led to the establishment of national parks, wildlife refuges, and other protected areas, as well as laws and policies aimed at sustainable use of natural resources. The conservation movement has evolved over time and continues to influence environmental policy and conservation efforts around the world.
2. Suppose that you and 19 of your classmates (giving a final population of 10 males and 10 females) are on a cruise, and your ship sinks near a deserted island. You and all of your friends make it to shore and start a new population isolated from the rest of the world. Two of your friends carry the recessive allele (i.e., are heterozygous) for phenylketonuria. If the frequency of this allele does not change as the population on your island increases, what will be the incidence of phenylketonuria on your island?
Answer:
0.25%
Explanation:
20 people start the new population. So there are 20 genes or 40 alleles for the recessive disorder phenylketonuria. 2 out of 40 alleles are recessive for the condition hence frequency of the allele = 2/40 = 0.05
Frequency of the allele does not change when the population increases so it is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. According to it, if q is the frequency of recessive allele, q² = frequency of the recessive condition
Here, q = 0.05 So,
q² = (0.05)² = 0.0025
In percentage, it is 100 * 0.0025 = 0.25%
Hence, incidence of phenylketonuria in the new population is 0.25%
Hence, 0.25% of the population will be born with Phenylketonuria.
Hardy-Weinberg principle:The principle states that the allelic frequency remains constant through generations and the gene pool remains constant. This phenomenon is called genetic equilibrium.
The population of 20 people comprises 40 alleles. Out of these 40 alleles, 2 are for phenylketonuria.
Assigning this allele to [tex]q[/tex],
We get,
[tex]q=\frac{2}{40}\\ q=5\%[/tex]
Now as per the Hardy-Weinberg principle, if the frequency of the recessive allele in a population is [tex]q[/tex] then the incidence/frequency of recessive allele individuals will be,
[tex]q^2=q\times q\\=0.05\times 0.05\\q^2=0.0025\\=0.25\%[/tex]
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The total economic value of an ecosystem: is the monetary value of all of the services an ecosystem provides.
a. includes all of the ecosystem services, future uses, and non-use values (such as cultural, intrinsic, and aesthetic values) of an ecosystem.
b. is composed of the direct values an ecosystem provides upon which a price can be placed, such as crops and medicinal plants.
c. is composed of the direct economic value and the potential pharmaceutical value of an ecosystem.
d. is composed of the utilized services and goods an ecosystem provides, such as water storage and filtration, even if they are not directly paid for.
e. is the monetary value of all of the services an ecosystem provides.
Answer: option A - includes all of the ecosystem services, future uses, and non-use values (such as cultural, intrinsic, and aesthetic values) of an ecosystem.
Explanation:
Ecosystem is the interrelationship of organisms (plants, animals, microbes) with each other and their environment.
The TOTAL economic value of an ecosystem includes:
the presently utilized resources,
the resources to be derived in the future,
the non-use or intangible aspects (like tourism, beautification, etc)
The total economic value of an ecosystem comprises all of the ecosystem's services, future uses, and non-use values, which can be cultural, intrinsic, or aesthetic. This includes both direct and indirect values which the ecosystem provides and could have potential monetary value placed on.
Explanation:The total economic value of an ecosystem is indeed a comprehensive concept that spans across various areas. It includes all the ecosystem's services, future potentials, and even the non-use values. The latter can be cultural, intrinsic, or aesthetic. In essence, it encapsulates both direct and indirect values that the ecosystem offers.
Direct values refer to those upon which a price tag can be attached, such as farming crops or gathering medicinal plants. An ecosystem's potential pharmaceutical value is also an example of a direct economic value. On the other hand, indirect values are those benefits we derive from the ecosystem naturally, for example, water storage and filtration. While these services are crucial, they are not directly paid for.
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The Correlated trait exercise shows that :
A) when two characters are correlated, selection always favors larger values of both or smaller values of both
B) When two characters are correlated, one of them can evolve toward higher values even if smaller values are better for survival
C) when two characters are correlated, selection is always strong on both or weak on both
D) when two characters are correlated, the optimal values and selection strengths rise and fall together
Answer:The correlated trait exercise shows that when two characters are correlated, the optimal values and selection strengths rise and fall together.
Explanation: Correlation refers to statistical (linear) relationship between two random variables. When traits are correlated, change in one is associated with change in the other.
Correlation coefficient (c.c.) measures strength of association between two variables in the same individual or experiment. It can range from -1 to +1. C.c. can be positive, negative or weak.
1. A positive c.c. means that an increase in one variable is associated with an increase in the other variable.
2. A negative c.c. means that an increase in one variable is associated with a decrease in the other.
3. A c.c. near zero indicates a weak relationship between the variables.
Correlation can be represented by scatter plot as shown in the attached image.
Option B: When two traits are correlated, one can evolve toward higher values even if smaller values are better for survival.
Option B states that when two characters are correlated, one of them can evolve toward higher values even if smaller values are better for survival. This implies that selection pressures can favor changes in one trait even if those changes are not directly beneficial for survival. This phenomenon, known as evolutionary constraint or evolutionary trade-off, occurs when traits are genetically linked or when the same genetic mechanisms control multiple traits. As a result, evolutionary changes in one trait may be constrained by the genetic correlation with another trait, leading to seemingly suboptimal evolutionary outcomes. Therefore, Option B provides a nuanced understanding of how correlated traits can evolve.
Which of the following is NOT one of the uses of fungi?Select one:a. As a source of antibiotics.b. To make drinks, like beer.c. To produce fabrics like cotton and linen.d. To make food, like bread.e. As a direct food source: mushrooms, for example.
Answer:
Fungi are not used to produce fabrics like cotton and linen.
Explanation:
Fungi are extremily important for the ecosystem because they are one of the principal organic matter decomposers. But they are also very important for human uses, such as:
Yeast is important in the fermentation process involved in the production of beer, wine, and bread. Fermentation occurs in the absence of oxygen and allows the first step of cellular respiration, glycolysis, to continue. Some fungi are used to produce sauces as an important proteinic source Some other fungi are ingested directly as food, such as the pine tree fungi or the champignon mushroom. In medicine, fungi are important to produce antibiotics such as peniciline.Answer:
To produce fabrics like cotton and linen
Some species of algae can potentially be farmed and used as biofuel. This would create a renewable, sustainable source of biofuel to use in place of fossil fuels. This is an example of
Answer: Renewable source of energy
Explanation:
The algae can be used to produce biofuel. This is a alternative source of energy can be used in place of conventional sources of energy like fossil fuels. This emphasis towards the use of renewable source of energy as plant or algae can be grown again due to their seeds, spores or through any other vegetative precursors. This is the basis of sustainable use of non-renewable resources by the use of renewable resources.
Answer:
Biotechnology
Explanation:
In 1906 Harden and Young, in a series of classic studies on the fermentation of glucose to ethanol and CO2 by extracts of brewer's yeast, made the following observations.(A) Inorganic phosphate was essential to fermentation; when the supply of phosphate was exhausted, fermentation ceased before all the glucose was used.(B) During fermentation under these conditions, ethanol, CO2, and a sugar phosphate accumulated.(C) When arsenate was substituted for phosphate, no sugar phosphate acumulated, but the fermentation proceeded until all the glucose was converted to ethanol and CO2.Answer the following questions.1. Which enzyme of glycolysis requires inorganic phosphate and therefore stops when no phosphate is available?(a) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase(b) phosphoglycerate mutase(c) phosphofructokinase-1(d) phosphoglycerate kinase
Answer:
(a) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase.
Explanation:
Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase is the enzyme which requires inorganic phosphate (Pi) essentially for it's functioning. It catalyzes the conversion of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate into 1,3-bisphosphoglyceric acid (1,3 BPG) during glycolysis.
All other enzymes of glycolysis use ATP for phosphorylation of their substrate but this is the only enzyme which rather uses an inorganic phosphate to phosphorylate it's substrate.
If George is spanked immediately after his baby sister cries, he is likely to become fearful every time she cries. If Ken is spanked immediately before his baby sister cries, he is not likely to become fearful when she cries. What do the different reactions of George and Ken suggest about the role of cognitive processes in associative learning?
Answer:
Associative learning may be defined as a type of learning in which the new response gets easily associated with the stimulus. Except habituation learning all simple learning procedure are included in this learning.
In the associative learning, reactions of an individual are based on there spank. George learns to cry on being spanked this is because this stimulus of sister cries gives response. Crying do not show any effect on ken because he does not know about his sister crying.
Pre-Lab Questions What are two ways that some prokaryotes are able to survive in extreme environments? Describe three ways that microorganisms in soil contribute to the ecosystem as a whole. Give two examples of genera that produce endospores, and explain why they are important in human health. What are coliforms? Why are they important in assuring water quality? Why is E. coli the indicator bacterium for fecal contamination?
What are two ways that some prokaryotes are able to survive in extreme environments?
Answer:
1. Presence of thick cell wall in prokaryotes help them to survive in hypo-osmotic and hyper-osmotic conditions.
2. Production of endospores by bacteria. Bacteria use these structures to produce off sprigs because these structures are heat and drought resistant. They germinate when the conditions became favorable for growth.
Describe three ways that microorganisms in soil contribute to the ecosystem as a whole.
Answer:
1. As decomposer return the nitrogen contents back to ecosystem.
2. Bacteria detoxify may harmful substances present in water bodies therefore some species of bacteria are used for bio-remediation of ecosystem.
3. Bacterial byproducts help plant to grow faster because these byproducts act as stimuli for plant growth.
Give two examples of genera that produce endospores, and explain why they are important in human health.
Answer:
Endospore Producing Genus:
Bacteria belongs to genus Bacillus and Clostridium produce endospores.
Importance for humans.:
1. Bacillus species are used to produce antibiotics, metabolites, enzymes which help in curing human diseases.
2. While species of Clostridium cause food poisoning in human.
What are coliforms? Why are they important in assuring water quality?
Answer:
Coliforms are gram negative bacteria have road like shape found in spoiled water.
Importance:
These bacteria are important indicator of polluted water therefore in water quality testing their presence tells us about the water quality that how much is this water polluted.
Why is E. coli the indicator bacterium for fecal contamination?
Answer:
E. Coli found in the intestine of humans. As E. Coli itself does not cause mild infections therefore its presence indicates the presence if other deadly pathogens which may cause dangerous diseases to human.
Final answer:
Prokaryotes survive in extreme environments via adaptations like protective cell walls and the ability to form endospores. Genera like Bacillus and Clostridium are crucial in understanding human health due to their durability and disease potential. E. coli serves as an indicator of fecal contamination in water quality monitoring.
Explanation:
Two ways that some prokaryotes are able to survive in extreme environments include having a protective cell wall that allows them to endure both hyper- and hypo-osmotic conditions, and the ability of some soil bacteria to form endospores, which resist heat and drought. Microorganisms in soil contribute to the ecosystem by assisting in soil formation and stabilization, fixing nitrogen into usable forms for eukaryotes, and participating in bioremediation to remove pollutants from the environment.
Examples of genera that produce endospores include Bacillus and Clostridium, which are important in human health due to their resistance to adverse conditions and their potential to cause diseases. Coliforms are a group of gram-negative, rod-shaped bacteria that are typically used as an indicator of water quality. E. coli is the most commonly used indicator bacterium for fecal contamination because it is predominantly found in the intestines of warm-blooded animals, making it a reliable sign of fecal pollution in water sources.
On a field expedition to Yellowstone National Park, you collected water samples from some of the hot springs in the hope of discovering new species of thermophilic bacterium. One such bacterium grew in the laboratory and after sequencing the entire genome of this new bacterium by the whole-genome shotgun approach, you use a computer program to search for start/stop signals for translation and homology searches based on similarity to cDNAs in the database. You predict approximately 20,000 genes. Is this an accurate representation of the total number of genes in the organism? Why or why not?
Answer:
No, it is not correct.
Explanation:
No, this is not an adequate representation for the total number of genes in the studied organism. The reason is because we are looking for start/stop signals to make comparisons with a database, and only genes that encode proteins carry start/stop signals; therefore, the 20,000 genes that were predicted correspond only to genes that encode proteins, leaving aside others that do not, so the estimate obtained is not correct.
True/False
Island biology is excellent for studying the origin of species, because of their isolation, island species tend to resemble each other more than the parent populations.
true because Island biology is excellent for studying the origin of species, because of their isolation, island species tend to resemble each other more than the parent populations.
There are a number of unique features to eukaryotic pre-mRNA splicing. Select all that apply.A. Introns are thought to encode specific subunits of proteins.B. Introns likely slow down gene expression.C. Introns need to be removed precisely to prevent mutations.D. There are often multiple introns in a gene.
Answer:
Option (A), (C) and (D).
Explanation:
Introns are the non coding nucleotide sequence of the gene. They may present within the gene or may lie outside the exons. Introns are responsible for the gene evolution.
Introns can also responsible for encoding the proteins subunit. Introns needs to be removed from the exons by the process known as splicing. Different splicing are alternate splice, group I and II intron. Different multiple introns can be present in the gene.
Thus, the correct option is (A), (C) and (D).
Final answer:
Introns likely slow down gene expression, need to be removed precisely to prevent mutations, and there are often multiple introns in a gene.
Explanation:
B. Introns likely slow down gene expression.
C. Introns need to be removed precisely to prevent mutations.
D. There are often multiple introns in a gene.
These are the unique features of eukaryotic pre-mRNA splicing. Introns slow down gene expression because they need to be removed precisely to prevent mutations. Genes can have multiple introns, which need to be spliced out before the mRNA can be translated into protein.
In today’s pattern of extinction, the generation of new species is unlikely because _____.
A.most plant species are being destroyed
B.entire ecosystems are being destroyed
C.alien species occupy important niches
D.key animal species are being destroyed
Answer:
B.entire ecosystems are being destroyed
Explanation:
for the generation of new species, the present species should have to survive for the period of thousand years in order to produce and develop much better features to make them much better to survive and adapt themselves according to the time.
but in today word, the world living conditions are changing and threatening due to destruction of ecosystem by many activities performed by humans. These destruction will cause endangerment of the generation of the new species.
What happens during the initiation step of DNA transcription? A ribosome attaches to the initiation codon of a completed mRNA strand. RNA polymerase moves along the template strand of the DNA creating an mRNA strand. A portion of the DNA unwinds and RNA polymerase attaches to the DNA within the transcription bubble. The mRNA detaches from the RNA polymerase as the RNA polymerase leaves the DNA strand.
Answer:
A portion of the DNA unwinds and RNA polymerase attaches to the DNA within the transcription bubble.
Explanation:
Transcription is the process in which DNA template is used to synthesize mRNA.
There are three steps of transcription:
InitiationIt is the process in which a portion of DNA unwinds and RNA polymerase binds to the promotor region on the DNA.
ElongationIt is the process in which RNA polymerase moves along the DNA template and synthesizes mRNA. During this process, unwinding of double stranded DNA takes place.
TerminationAs the RNA polymerase moves along the DNA template, it finally reaches a termination signal and then stops synthesizing. It is followed by the detachment of the newly formed mRNA and RNA polymerase from the DNA.
QUESTION:
A ribosome attaches to the initiation codon of a completed mRNA strand.This is the incorrect answer choice as this process does not happen in the process of transcription. This event happens in the process of translation in which mRNA is used to synthesize proteins or amino acids. mRNA attaches to ribosome during this process.
RNA polymerase moves along the template strand of the DNA creating an mRNA strand.This is the incorrect answer choice as this event takes place in the process of elongation.
A portion of the DNA unwinds and RNA polymerase attaches to the DNA within the transcription bubble.This is the correct answer choice as this event takes place in the process of initiation of transcription
The mRNA detaches from the RNA polymerase as the RNA polymerase leaves the DNA strand.This is the incorrect answer choice. This event takes place in the event of termination of transcription.
Two processes which chemically alter parent material are Select one:
a. oxidation and hydrolysis.
b. decomposition and oxidation.
c. hydrolysis and liming.
d. freezing and thawing.
Answer:A oxidation and hydrolysis
Explanation:
These two reactions involved the formation of two new product materials different from the r original parent materials
There was a s different tructural arrangement in bond formatio in new product s
Electron composition also varies
If you shine a light into one eye both pupils will constrict. The best explanation for this is a. sensory input from the retinas of both eyes converges at the optic chiasm and information from each eye is delivered to both the left and right sides of the brain b. a small portion of light always enters the other eye c. information from one eye is directly and immediately transferred to the other eye to maintain alignment of the eyes d. this in fact does not occur and information from both eyes is always separated
Answer: the best option is A (sensory input from the retinas of both eyes converges at the optic chiasm and information from each eye is delivered to both the left and right sides of the brain)
Explanation:
At the optic chiasm, nerve fibers from half of each retina cross over to the opposite side of the brain. The fibers from the other half of the retina travel to the same side of the brain. Because of this junction, each half of the brain receives visual signals from the visual fields of both eyes. this allows the effect of consensual response in which there is change in pupil size in the eye opposite to the eye to which the light is directed. I hope this helps thanks.
Final answer:
Correct option is a. Both pupils constrict in response to light due to the bilateral nature of the pupillary light reflex, where information from both retinas converges at the optic chiasm and is processed by both brain hemispheres, causing a consensual reaction.
Explanation:
When light is shined into one eye, both pupils constrict due to the pupillary light reflex, which involves both an afferent and efferent pathway. Sensory input from the retina of each eye converges at the optic chiasm, whereby information from the right visual field goes to the left hemisphere of the brain, and information from the left visual field goes to the right hemisphere. This crossing over or decussation allows for information from both fields of view to be processed in both hemispheres of the brain. Therefore, the correct option explaining why shining light in one eye results in the constriction of both pupils is: sensory input from the retinas of both eyes converges at the optic chiasm and information from each eye is delivered to both the left and right sides of the brain. This bilateral projection of information allows the brain to coordinate a consensual pupillary response, meaning that shining light in one eye also triggers the constriction of the other pupil, thus preserving the alignment and proper function of both eyes.
If the light reflex testing reveals an asymmetrical response, it may signify damage to the optic or oculomotor nerve pathways, indicating a need for further medical evaluation.
a moving cell with a high mitochondria content is likely A. an animal cell getting ready to photosynthesize B. a plant cell without a cell wall C. A heterotrophic cell D. A Golgi apparatus without a nucleus
Answer: option C - A heterotrophic cell
Explanation:
An organism is said to be an heterotroph if it is unable to produce its own food, making it rely on green plants or other autotrophs for nutrients. So, heterotrophic organisms are usually the classed as consumers (primary, secondary etc).
Due to the need of energy consumption and absorption, heterotrophic organisms (with heterotrophic cells) usually have high mitochondrial content (to help in energy metabolism) and moves about (mobile) in search of nutrients (prey)
The letter associated with each subshell tells us what, specifically? Choose the one best answer.
A. the principal quantum number of the orbital.
B. the principal shell of the orbital.
C. the maximum number of electrons.
D. the three dimensional shape of the orbital.
E. none of the above
Explanation:
Principle quantum number
In electronic configuration of an atom the Orbits or Shells are denoted using n.
K=1, L=2, M=3, N=4 ................ and so on. This number n is of significance which denotes the energy level where the electrons are found.
Orbital Angular Momentum Quantum Number (l)
The orbital angular momentum no. [tex]l[/tex] denotes the subshell of the electron. It tells the shape of the subshells as well.
s subshell corresponds to l=0, p subshell corresponds to l=1, d subshell corresponds to l=2, f subshell corresponds to l=3, and so on.
Magnetic Quantum Number (m)
Magnetic quantum no. denotes the no. of orbitals present in the subshell.
Each orbital can hold a maximum of 2 electrons both having opposite spin.
The no. of orbitals is taken from the angular momentum quantum number having given as [tex](2l+1)[/tex]
Now the magnetic quantum no. ranges from [tex]-l\ to\ +l[/tex] which includes zero in the middle.
There are n² number of orbitals found in an energy level.
Spin Magnetic Quantum Number (S)
Spin quantum no. can have values either [tex]-\frac{1}{2}\ or\ +\frac{1}{2}[/tex]
orbitals cannot contain two electrons of the same spin.
Electron with positive sign is known as alpha electron and the negative one is called beta electron.
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TOPIC: electronic configuration
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Final answer:
The letter associated with each subshell specifies the three-dimensional shape of the orbital. The correct option is D.
Explanation:
The letter associated with each subshell indicates the three-dimensional shape of the orbital. For instance, the letter 's' refers to a spherical orbital shape, 'p' refers to a bell-shaped orbital, 'd' and 'f' are for more complex shapes with five and seven orbitals respectively. The principal quantum number (n) designates the size and energy level of an orbital, while the angular momentum quantum number (l) corresponds to the subshell and describes the shape of the orbitals within that subshell. The correct answer to the question is therefore option D. The three-dimensional shape of the orbital is the key characteristic represented by the subshell's letter designation.
Explain how the retreat of North American glaciers 16,000 years ago influence the distribution of trees.
Answer:
North American glacier:About some 15,000 years ago earth faced a catastrophic event of ice age termed as Last Glacial Maximum(LGM), which covered most of the globe. As the northern region of the American continent, along with that most of the region in the European lands. Which made it very hard for the living beings to survive.
Explanation:
Effects on Plants-The process of producing more food was been halted by the severe conditions globally and there were more unfavorable conditions for the plants, as the level and height of ice over the surface was in the range of Km's. As the trees and plants did not had any water available due to low temperature in the region.As most of the Amazon was in scattered form and the rain forests were greatly effected by the ice age, as it covered the surface of the land in the north American region.Due, to too much ice and lack of fertile soil available there were less crop and less trees developed, which caused more severe conditions.What happens when sperm capacitate?
Answer:
Capacitation of sperm or spermatozoon is a process of functional maturation. The changes occur in the cell membrane of the sperm cells.
The removal of the layer of glycoprotein takes place in the capacitation process of sperm that result in making receptors available.
The other change that takes place is the alteration of the acrosomal cap that helps in acrosome reaction possible. These changes help in the sperms to penetrate and fertilize the egg in the female reproductive tract.
Of the following phyla, which are non-seed producing and non-vascular?
Answer:
Anthocerophyta, Bryophyta, Hepatophyta.
Explanation:
Non vascular plants are defined as the plants which contains phloem, and xylem without the vascular system. They are containing simpler tissues which are specialized for internal transport of water.
They include bryophyta, hornworts (anthocerophyta), liverworts (hepatophyta) mosses, and some algae. Non vascular plants reproduce with the help of spores, and do not produce fruit, and flowers.