Answer:
c.it will stay the same
Explanation:
Without any other information available, and assuming that opposite returns means that when one investment gain X USD, the second invest loss -X USD, over the time the total value both investments remain the same. The value of investments, in this case, is the total portfolio value. Nevertheless, if opposite returns means that the gains are collected even though both returns are created because of divergent causes, then the correct answer would A (it will go up) and not C.
KylaKyla is buying clothesclothes. She can choose between blue jeansblue jeans, khaki pantskhaki pants, and black jeansblack jeans. She doesn't like black jeansblack jeans, and after some thought, she chooses blue jeansblue jeans. What is the opportunity cost of this choice?
A. The black jeansblack jeans.
B. The khaki pantskhaki pants.
C. The blue jeansblue jeans, the khaki pantskhaki pants, and the black jeansblack jeans.
D. The khaki pantskhaki pants and the black jeansblack jeans.
Answer:
B. The khaki pants
Explanation:
Opportunity cost is the benefits forfeited as a result of choosing one item or activity over the other. It the value of the next best alternative of choice made.
Opportunity costs arise because people have to make choices every day. Choosing an item over others implies sacrificing the benefits of the others. The value or cost of the sacrificed item represents the opportunity cost.
Khaki pants are the opportunity cost. Kyla is comfortable with either blue jeans or khaki pants. He does not like black jeans. His alternatives are khaki pants or Blue jeans. Choosing blue jeans implies forfeiting khaki pants. The khaki pants are the best alternative that was missed.
The opportunity cost of Kyla's decision to buy blue jeans is the khaki pants, which represents the next best alternative she did not choose.
Explanation:The opportunity cost represents the next best alternative that is forgone when a choice is made. In Kyla's case, she had three options - blue jeans, khaki pants, and black jeans - but decided against buying the black jeans.
Therefore, when she chose the blue jeans, her opportunity cost were the khaki pants, which is the other option she could have selected. This is because the opportunity cost is not about all other options, but the next best viable alternative. Considering that she didn't want the black jeans at all, the khaki pants represent her missed opportunity, hence becoming the opportunity cost.
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A sales associate has a house listed at $200,000. It's overpriced and he feels it has only a 70% chance of selling in the original listing term. He also has a $300,000 house that has an 80% chance of sale. A quality review of his listings shows he realistically has?
Answer:
The quality values of the sales associate's listings are:
House A: $200,000 x 70% = $140,000
House B: $300,000 x 80% = $240,000
To determine the quality value of the listings, you have to multiply the listed amounts by the chances of sale.
An insured became disabled in February of 2014. She had bought a disability income policy in October of 2012. Her disability was due to a condition that existed prior to October 2012 but was not excluded from her policy. The insurer will:
Answer:
Pay her claims in full
Explanation:
A disability occurs when a person can't perform the tasks he or she once perform, resulting from either an injury or sickness.
Since it was not excluded from her disability insurance policy agreement she deserves to be awarded any claims made.
Remember often times after an insurance policy is bought the insured pays premiums periodically.
As long as the premiums are paid and other terms of the insurance agreement are kept, the contract stands.
Karen chooses to go to university fulltime rather than to work. Karen:_______ A. is not part of the labor force. B. is part of the labor force and what economists call a discouraged worker. C. is part of the labor force, but not actively seeking work. D. is considered employed.
Answer:
The answer would be A
Explanation:
It is not part of the labor force because it is not working in any way since it is studying full time, if she worked part time if it would be within the percentage of people who work.
Karen chooses to go to university full-time rather than work. Karen is part of the labor force, but not actively seeking work. The correct option is C.
Karen does not actively seek a job because she is a full-time student. The labor force, by economists' accepted definition, is made up of people who are either employed or actively looking for work. Karen is still regarded as a member of the labor force but is not actively seeking employment because she has decided to concentrate on her schooling.
Thus, the most appropriate selection is option C.
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Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Projects with "normal" cash flows must have two changes in the sign of the cash flows, e.g., from negative to positive to negative. If there are more than two sign changes, then the cash flow stream is "nonnormal." b. The "multiple IRR problem" can arise if a project's cash flows are "normal." c. Projects with "normal" cash flows can have two or more real IRRs.
Answer:
a. Projects with "normal" cash flows can have only one real IRR.
Explanation:
The options in this question are incomplete. The complete question can be found here - https://quizlet.com/111317444/intro-to-finance-ch-11-flash-cards/
Here is the complete question:
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. Projects with "normal" cash flows can have only one real IRR.
b. Projects with "normal" cash flows can have two or more real IRRs.
c. Projects with "normal" cash flows must have two changes in the sign of the cash flows, e.g., from negative to positive to negative. If there are more than two sign changes, then the cash flow stream is "nonnormal."
d. The "multiple IRR problem" can arise if a project's cash flows are "normal."
e. Projects with "nonnormal" cash flows are almost never encountered in the real world.
A normal or conventional cash flow is when there's a negative cash flow followed by postive cash flows. Example : Cash flows in year 0,1,2 are $-50, $100, $70 respectively.
A non-normal or non conventional cash flow is when there's a negative cash flow, followed by a positive cash flow then a negative cash flow. Example: Cash flows in year 0,1,2 are $-50, $100, $-70 respectively.
IRR is the discount rate that equates the after tax cash flows from an investment to the amount invested.
Multiple IRR is when a cash flow has more than one IRR.
Multiple IRR only occurs with non normal cash flows.
Normal cash flows cannot have more than one IRR.
I hope my answer helps you.
______ is the extent to which a company's supply chain is focusing on minimizing procurement, production, and transportation costs. Select one:
a. Supply chain visibility
b. Supply chain efficiency
c. Supply chain analytics
d. Supply chain effectiveness
e. Supply network collaboration
Answer:
B. Supply chain efficiency
Explanation:
Efficiency consists in maximizing productivity while minimizing costs. Supply-chain efficiency, therefore, involves reducing costs and improving output in the production process, with the aim of increasing profit.
A lender who refuses to make loans on property in certain neighborhoods is demonstrating the discriminatory practice of:_________a. blockbustingb. redliningc. servicingd. steering
Answer:
redlining
Explanation:
Redlining refers to an unethical technique that puts facilities (financial and other as such) out of control from race, ethnicity or gender for residents of some specific areas.
Instead of personal credentials and ability to repay, redlining can be viewed in the systemic refusal of loans, mortgages, insurances and other location-based financial services. In particular, members of minority areas worry the most about the strategy of redlining.
Thus, from the above we can conclude that the correct option is B .
The discriminatory practice of a lender refusing to make loans based on property location is known as redlining.
Explanation:A lender who refuses to make loans on property in certain neighborhoods is demonstrating the discriminatory practice of redlining. Redlining is the intentional and discriminatory withholding of services, such as loans, to residents of certain areas based on racial or ethnic makeup. Banks and other financial institutions practiced redlining by refusing to issue mortgages or loans to people from racial or ethnic minorities living in neighborhoods that were deemed "hazardous" to investment, while providing such services to White people with similar economic status. This practice has been illegal and contributes to the institutional discrimination that perpetuates educational and financial disparities across different communities.
Country A would have an absolute advantage compared to Country B in the production of corn if
A) corn can be produced at lower cost in terms of other goods than it could be in Country B.
B) Country A uses fewer resources to produce corn than Country B does.
C) the demand for corn is higher in Country A than in Country B.
D) corn sells for a higher price in Country A than in Country B.
Answer:
B) Country A uses fewer resources to produce corn than Country B does.
Explanation:
An absolute advantage is a situation where a country or a company can produce some goods and services using fewer inputs compared to competitors. The company can produce more quantity of using the same amount of inputs than others. A country with an absolute advantage will manufacture a product at a lower cost than other countries or companies.
Absolute advantage enables companies and countries to gain from trade. Through specialization, a company will focus on what it can produce at a lower cost than others, and sell it. Country A has an absolute advantage if it can produce corn at a lower cost than country B.
The European Union accused South Korea of selling ships at a loss in an attempt to push its European rivals out of the market. In other words, South Korea was accused of:a. dumpingb. illegal importingc. countertradingd. fiscal improprietye. using an illegal cartel
Answer:
Dumping
Explanation:
Dumping is the practice of when a country sells a product in the foreign market at a lower price then as it was sold in their domestic market. This term applies to export/import. As we can see in the example, South Korea is selling their ships at a lower price in the European Union than it was sold in its own country. The purpose of dumping is to gain market share at a rapid pace and drive out its competition. It is widely seen as unethical, and can invoke certain penalties in some countries.
What fee is charged by a lender for holding credit available for a borrower, often associated with a construction loan?
1) Take Out Commitment Fee
2) Loan Origination Fee
3) Discount Point
4) Buydown
Answer:
The correct answer is the option 2: Loan Origination Fee.
Explanation:
To begin with, a Loan Origination Fee is the name given in the U.S to an upfront fee, that is being charged by a lender who will process a new loan application and the main purpose of the fee is to compensate the time that is being used for putting the loan in place. Moreover, this type of fees are quoted as a percentage of the total loan. Furthermore, this type of loan is usually associated with a construction loan due to the fact that it will be good for the borrower only is the person plans to sell or refinance within a few years.
How does the U.S. Census Bureau define a family?
two or more people related by birth, marriage, or adoption who live in the same housing unit
Answer:
A family is a group of two people or more (one of whom is the householder) related by birth, marriage, or adoption and residing together; all such people (including related subfamily members) are considered as members of one family.
Explanation:
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(/Hope this answers is helpful
Which of the following organizations emerged from the Bretton Woods agreement of 1944, where a group of international leaders decided that the primary responsibility for the regulation of monetary relationships among national economies should rest in an extra-national body
Answer:
International Monetary Fund, IMF and the World Bank
Explanation:
The Bretton Woods Agreement was negotiated in July, 1944 which established a new global monetary system. It made US dollar the global currency and replaced gold standard.
This agreement created The World Bank and International Monetary Fund (IMF) which would monitor the new monetary system.
The Bretton Wood system was dissolved in 1970's but IMF and The World Bank still exist and are strong pillars of global monetary system.
Government can reallocate resources of an economy through taxes, ________ payments, and by providing direct services..
A. illegal
B. transfer
C. under-the-table
D. over-the-top
Answer:
B. transfer
Explanation:
Transfer payment is when income is received and neither goods or services are exchanged.
Transfer payment is a form of reallocation of resources.
I hope my answer helps you
Rogue Spices Inc. has a Canadian receivables contract for $200,000 due in 270 days. The firm has been approached by a factoring firm that offers to purchase the receivables at a 12% per annum discount plus a 1% charge for a nonrecourse clause. What is the annualized percentage all-in-cost of this factoring alternative?
Answer:
14.82%
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Receivable contracts = $200,000
Due in days, t = 270
or
= 270 ÷ 365 = 0.74 years
Discount, r = 12% = 0.12
charge for a nonrecourse clause = 1% = 0.01
Now,
Annualized percentage all-in-cost of this factoring alternative
=[tex][\frac{\text{Receivable contracts}}{(\text{Receivable contracts}\times(1 - rt)-(\text{nonrecourse clause})}-1]^{\frac{4}{3}}[/tex]
= [tex][\frac{\$200,000}{(\$200,000\times(1 - 0.12\times0.74)-(\200,000\times0.01)}-1]^{\frac{4}{3}}[/tex]
= 0.1482
or
= 0.1482 × 100%
Annualized percentage all-in-cost of this factoring alternative = 14.82%
Technically a property can be listed at any price, however deliberately misleading a client as to the market value of the property to guarantee a listing is an ethical violation. This practice is commonly referred to as
Answer:
"Buying" a listing
Explanation:
In real estate, the term "buying a listing" is generally used when an agent or person confidently tells you that a property you own can be sold for an outrageous amount (usually above what its worth), in order to get your listing.
It is important for a property management agreement to include provisions defining the responsibilities of________.
Answer:
The manager and the owner.
Explanation:
Property management agreement is a contract between the owner and the manager. And this agreement defines the duties and responsibilities that both the property owner and the property manager will maintain.
"Enriching Women's Lives" is a three-word mantra that is used by Mary Kay. This is an example of which of the following characteristics of good mission statements? Group of answer choices
1. It defines the major competitive spheres in which the company will operate.
2. It is focused on a limited number of goals.
3. It takes a long-term view.
4. It stresses the company's major policies and values.
5. It is short, memorable, and meaningful.
Answer:
Correct answer is is 5
Explanation:
It is short, memorable, and meaningful.
Mark is a manager for Cable Connection. He spends most of his time scheduling the specific service calls that each employee performs during the day, verifying job completion, and evaluating employee performance on each call. These responsibilities suggest that Mark is a supervisory manager
A. True
B. False
Answer: True
Explanation:
A supervisory manager is employed to monitor and evaluate the performance of employees.
A supervisory manager must be very skillful in managing people and time.
A few examples of the job functions of a supervisory manger are listed below :
• Helping the employee understand their roles and the nature of the task to be accomplished
•Ensure that workers are properly equipped for their job.
•Coordinate the entire team and help them get along
•Organize work and schedule time.
•Update the management with accurate report, etc.
In comparing the current ratios of two companies, why is it invalid to assume that the company with the higher current ratio is the better company?
Answer: I found the options:
A. The current ratio includes assets other than cash.
B. A high current ratio may indicate inadequate inventory on hand.
C. The two companies may define working capital in differentterms.
D. A high current ratio may indicate inefficient use of various assetsand liabilities.
Explanation: The correct answer is "D. A high current ratio may indicate inefficient use of various assets and liabilities."
Is invalid to assume that the company with the higher current ratio is te better company because a high current ratio may indicate inefficient use of various assets and liabilities, That is why it would be convenient to observe other ratios that can help us compare more fully the 2 companies.
Final answer:
Assuming that a company with a higher current ratio is better is invalid because current ratios do not tell the whole financial story. Context, industry standards, and financial trends must be taken into account for accurate financial statement analysis. Other financial ratios and benchmarks should also be considered when assessing a company's financial health.
Explanation:
In comparing the current ratios of two companies, it is invalid to assume that the company with the higher current ratio is the better company because the current ratio does not represent the full financial story of a company. Financial statement analysis is more complex and ratios must be interpreted in context, taking into account trends, industry standards, and unique company circumstances. A higher current ratio might indicate good short-term financial position, but it doesn't necessarily reflect profitability, efficiency, or the appropriateness of asset management.
Additionally, different industries have different operational models and capital needs, which can affect how the current ratio should be interpreted. It's also important to consider factors such as the quality of receivables, inventory levels, and the company's debt structure. In some cases, a high current ratio can suggest that a company is holding too much inventory or not efficiently using its working capital.
When analyzing a company's financial health, other ratios and measures, such as the quick ratio, debt-to-equity ratio, and return on assets, should be considered alongside the current ratio. Moreover, it is essential to look at historical data and industry benchmarks to gain a proper understanding of financial standing.
On January 2, 2019, Kornis Corporation acquired equipment for $1,000,000. The estimated life of the equipment is 5 years or 100,000 hours. The estimated residual value is $20,000.
What is the balance in Accumulated Depreciation on December 31, 2019, if Kornis Corporation uses the double−declining−balance method of depreciation?
Answer:
$392,000
Explanation:
Double-declining-balance method is (2/useful life) x cost -accumulated depreciation)
cost = purchase price - residual value
2/5 x( 1000000-20000)
= $392,000
Carl Cornfield makes a payment on his tractor. What two lines of the balance sheet will this payment change?
Answer:
Property plant and equipment in non current asset section of Carl Cornfield's balance sheet will be increased.
Cash at bank in current asset section of Carl Cornfield's balance sheet will be decreased.
Explanation:
When the entity makes payment for any vehicle, the following two sections of the balance sheet are changed:
Property plant and equipment in non current asset section is increased.
Cash at bank in current asset section is decreased.
So the following two lines of Carl Cornfield balance sheet will be changed.
Property plant and equipment in non current asset section of Carl Cornfield's balance sheet will be increased.
Cash at bank in current asset section of Carl Cornfield's balance sheet will be decreased.
If the insured qualifies for long-term care benefits based on being chronically ill as defined in the Long-Term Care rider, how will this impact the ultimate death benefit payable to the beneficiary?
Answer: The person will either LOSE the ultimate death benefits or the death benefits will be REDUCED.
Explanation:Long-Term care Rider is a life insurance policy where the policy holder seeks accelerated payment of his death benefits due to a chronic sickness or a terminal health issue. This insurance product ensures the terminally ill gets his or her death benefits paid during his lifetime for him to take of his health condition. The beneficiary will lose all or some of his or her death benefits.
When an insured individual receives long-term care benefits due to chronic illness, these benefits are deducted from the total death benefit, thereby reducing the amount paid to beneficiaries upon the insured's death.
If an insured individual qualifies for long-term care benefits due to being chronically ill as stipulated in the Long-Term Care rider, the death benefit payable to the beneficiary can be impacted. Typically, when these benefits are paid out for long-term care, they are usually deducted from the total death benefit amount of the policy. Consequently, the ultimate death benefit that will be paid out to the beneficiaries upon the death of the insured will be reduced by the amount of long-term care benefits that were already paid during the insured's lifetime. This is because the policy is essentially advancing part of the death benefit to meet the insured's care needs while they are still alive.
When one party to a transaction has incentives to engage in activities detrimental to the other party, there exists a problem of:________A) Moral hazard.B) Split incentives.C) Ex ante shirking.D) Pre-contractual opportunism.
Answer: Moral hazard
Explanation: As per economic principles, if an individual increases the exposure to risk when covered by insurance, moral hazard happens, particularly when an individual takes further risks just because someone carries the burden of all those consequences.
There can be a moral hazard at which one party's policies may modify to the disadvantage of someone else after a business transaction has occurred. Moral hazard may arise through a type of asymmetric information in which the threat-taking group to trade is more aware of its motives than the person bearing the risk's implications.
Thus, from the above we can conclude that the correct option is A .
A market-based instrument is a calculation of the net benefit or total positive impact of an environmental policy.
Answer:
False.
Explanation:
A market-based instrument is not a calculation of the benefit of an environmental policy but rather, it is a policy instrument used to control (reduce or eliminate) the negative effects of environmental pollution market, by giving polluters market or price or other economic incentives to ensure environmental safety.
Cheers.
Manuel is a manager for a manufacturing company in which managers are expected to fully document all decisions and in which it is important to provide detailed data to support any recommendations. Also, out-of-the-box thinking is dissuaded. Which characteristic of organizational culture describes this aspect of Manuel's job?
Answer: Low risk taking culture
Explanation:
Organisational culture includes the behaviour, beliefs, value and principles in which an organisation operates on. It's entails the way business are done, decisions are made etc.
Low risk taking is an organisation culture aimed at minimising risks. Recommendations and Decisions are based on facts and genuine data not on abstract and unreal thoughts with decisions fully documented.
Richard and Alice are divorced and under the terms of their written divorce agreement signed on December 30, 2011, Richard was required to pay Alice $1,500 per month of which $600 was designated as child support. He made 12 such payments in 2018. Additionally, Richard voluntarily paid Alice $1,200 per month for 12 months of 2018, no portion of which was designated as child support. Assuming that Alice has no other income, her tax return for 2018 should show gross income of:_________.
Answer:
$10,800
Explanation:
Alice's gross income must include the money she received from Richard as part of their divorce settlement, excluding the amount set for child support:
Alice's gross income = 12 x ($1,500 - $600) = 12 x $900 = $10,800
The extra money that Richard gave Alice that was not part of the divorce settlement is not included in her gross income, since it is included in Richard's gross income.
Bagwell's net income for the year ended December 31, Year 2 was $175,000. Information from Bagwell's comparative balance sheets is given below. Compute the cash paid for dividends during Year 2.
Solution:
The cash dividend is cash or assets generally paid into the current income of the company to the shareholders. All dividends are to be declared by the executive board and whether the payment for the dividend should remain identical.
Ending Retained Earnings= Beginning Retained Earnings + Net Income - Dividends
( Beginning and Ending Retained Earnings are given in question )
$688,000 = $582,000 + $175,000 - Dividends
$688,000 = $757,000 - Dividends
Dividends = $757,000 - $688,000
Dividends = $69,000
Empirical results estimated from historical data indicate that betas _________.A. are always close to zeroB. are constant over timeC. of all securities are always between zero and 1D. seem to regress toward 1 over time
Answer: D. Seem to regress toward 1 over time.
Explanation:
Empirical results are proven facts with scientific evidence. Betas tend to change over an estimated period. They regress toward 1 over time. Therefore, other options are wrong.
Maria purchased 100 shares of JAX stock for $30 per share and sold this same stock one year later for $29 per share. She paid commissions of $50 when she purchased the stock and $45 when she sold the stock. Dividends of $2 per share were paid during the year. The capital loss on this stock transaction was______
a.$100.
b.$145.
c.$150.
d.$195.
Answer:
Option (d) $195
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Number of shares purchased = 100
Price per share = $30
Selling price per share = $29
Commission paid at the time of purchase = $50
Commission paid at the time of sale = $45
Dividend paid = $2 per share
Now,
Total cost of purchasing the shares
= Price of shares + Commission
= ( 100 × $30 ) + $50
= $3000 + $50
= $3050
Revenue from sales
= Selling price of shares - Commission
= ( 100 × $29 ) - $45
= $2900 - $45
= $2855
Therefore,
Capital loss = Total cost of purchasing the shares - Revenue from sales
= $3050 - $2855
= $195
Hence,
Option (d) $195
The motive of an intimate homicide is almost always anger/revenge or profit. True or False?
Answer: True
Explanation: An intimate homicide is a fatally violent attacked caused by someone who is in a deeply personal relationship with the victim. It is important to note that this can be a current relationship or a past one. The main motives of this type of murder are usually because of anger for whatever they feel the victim has done or made them feel, as revenge on the victim because they believe the victim has wronged them, or for some form of profitable gains such as claiming the victim's life insurance.