Answer:
Before birth, when you have identified the presence of a perinatal risk factor that increases the likelihood of requiring neonatal resuscitation.
Explanation:
The parturition may be defined as the acts of the giving birth to the child. The fully developed fetus is taken out from the mother's womb and the parturition is controlled by the hormone as well.
After the birth of the child, proper health care and medical prescription of the infant is done by the health care provider. In case of any emergency or the medical situation before the birth the child must require the neonatal resuscitation.
Thus, the correct answer is option (A).
In emergency neonatal care, it's best to call for additional help before birth when you've identified perinatal risk factors that increase the likelihood of resuscitation. Waiting until after birth may cause critical delays in the baby's care.
Explanation:In emergency newborn care and resuscitation, timing and identifying likely problems are essential. Therefore, the best time to call for additional help is before birth, when you have identified a perinatal risk factor that increases the likelihood of requiring neonatal resuscitation (Option A). Recognizing signs of potential complications, such as maternal infection, preterm labor, or fetal distress, allows you to activate additional support channels in advance. Holding off till after birth could lead to critical delays especially as newborns can deteriorate rapidly. Your additional help in the form of a team can then be ready to assist with the proper tools for resuscitation procedures like positive-pressure ventilation or intubation if needed immediately after birth.
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The home health nurse evaluates a client's use of a nasal decongestant spray. Which statement by the client to the nurse indicates correct understanding of the procedure?
A. "I lie down with my head tilted backward before I use the spray."
B. "I close one nostril while I breathe in and squeeze the spray into the other."
C. "I keep the tip of the spray container no more than 1/2 inch in front of my nostril."
D. "I blow my nose firmly to clear it before and after I administer the medication."
Answer: B). "I close one nostril while I breathe in and squeeze the spray into the other."
Explanation:
The following steps are required to safely and correctly administer a nasal decongestant spray;
1). Wash hands throughly with soap and water.
2). Blow out your nose gently before administering the medication.
3). Keep your head upright whilst breathing in quickly, gently close one nostril whilst squeezing the spray into the other.
4).Repeat the steps (2-3) for the other nostrils.
5). Try not to blow out your nose or sneeze just after the administration of the medication.
6). Wash hands thoroughly with soap and water after using the spray.
You are caring for a 72-year-old client who has been admitted to your unit for a fluid volume imbalance. You know which of the following is the most common fluid imbalance in older adults?
A) Hypovolemia.B) Dehydration.C) Hypervolemia.D) Fluid volume excess.
Answer:
B.) Dehydration
Explanation:
What government agencies provide the representatives to chair the ICD-10-CM Coordination and Maintenance Committee, and what is the committee’s responsibility?
The correct answer is; There is one representative from the National Center for Health Statistics and Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services. The responsibility for the committee is to oversee the HIPPA codes for all medical diagnoses and all of the acute inpatient procedures.
Further Explanation:
In 2015, the ICD-10-CM Coordination and Maintenance Committee replaced the ICD-9-CM. This committee is comprised of of the National Center for Health Statistics and the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services. This is a federal interdepartmental committee.
The committee takes the suggestions from the private and public sectors for any and all modifications. Proposals must be sent and any modifications that are suggested are needed before any scheduled meetings.
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"Which standard related to the HIPAA Security Physical safeguards requires the CE to implement policies and procedures for the movement of hardware and electronic media that contain ePHI into and out of the facility and within a facility?
The HIPAA Security Physical safeguard standard for the movement of hardware and electronic media with ePHI is the Device and Media Controls standard.
Explanation:The standard related to the HIPAA Security Physical safeguards that requires a Covered Entity (CE) to implement policies and procedures for the movement of hardware and electronic media that contain Electronic Protected Health Information (ePHI) into and out of the facility, and within a facility, is known as the Device and Media Controls standard. This standard is part of the physical safeguards required by HIPAA to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of ePHI. It is crucial for healthcare providers and other entities handling patient information to have comprehensive policies in place addressing issues like the disposal of media, data backup, and accountability, thus preventing unauthorized access to sensitive patient data during these processes.
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A physiological __________ is a difference in chemical concentration
Answer:
Gradient.
Explanation:
Psychology may be defined as the field of biology that mainly deals with the study of the mind, behavior and social aspect of the individual. The one who is expertise in the psychology is known as psychologist.
The psychological gradient shows the unequal or difference in the physical pressure or chemical difference between the two points. This might also the difference in the mental activity and its response in the different actions like reading, writing and at its conclusion.
Thus, the answer is gradient.
A client has been identified as having an excess of macrophage inhibitory factor, causing the client to have inhibited movement and activity of macrophages. Which process should the health care team expect to remain unaffected?
Answer:
Specificity and memory of the immune response
Explanation:
The nurse is teaching a group of school age children about physical development. Which statement made by one of the children indicates the correct understanding of the teaching?
A. My body weight will be almost triple in the next few years.B. I will grow an average of 2 inches per year from this point on.C. There are not that many physical differences among school-age children.D. I will have a gradual increase in fat, which may contribute to a heavier appearance.
Answer:
I will grow an average of 2 inches per year from this point on.
Explanation:
The physical development is important to give information about the physical health and the importance of exercise among the children. This includes the overall growth and development of the student children.
The growth of the height and weight is quite slow in the middle childhood. The children shows the growth of two inches between the 6 to 12 year of the age. The weight of the child will increase up to double during the middle childhood. The end of middle childhood is marked by the increase in height and weight of the girl.
Thus, the correct answer is option (2).
Which is an example of an organization that accredits hospitals and other health care institutions in the United States? 1 American Hospital Association 2 American Medical Association 3 American College of Radiology 4 The Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations
Answer:
"The Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations"
Explanation:
The joint commission on accreditation of healthcare organization, being a non government organization running, it does not work for any profit. It was established in the 1951 in order to determine the health care institutions that want their accreditation. They also make health plans and checks the proper health care networks. This organization is lead by the 29 members of the commission. In that board members there are physicians, administrators, nurses, employers, a labor representatives, health plan leaders, quality experts, ethicists and consumer advocate and educators.
Answer:
American Hospital Association
Explanation:
edge 2022
Please help! You are to create a story for a child of 5-6 years old. You will explain the brain and its functions to them. You need to use the following terms and explain their functions in simple terms. Use the format of a story to keep the child interested, and be sure to use illustrations. Add characters (Dora, Superman, etc.) to make the information fun.
Answer:
Hey kids, have you ever seen on TV characters such as Batman, and how they can always beat the bad guy? Well, other than pure luck, all their actions, such as the throwing of the batarang is all coming from the brain. The brain is what controls our thoughts, so when you feel excited over the new episode of Spongebob coming up, the feelings are being processed in your brain. The brain can do a lot more than just feelings, but it's the reason why you're moving. Our brain controls our bodies so we can move freely, like when we play sports, or like how Superman can fly in to save troubled souls in the burning buildings. This is called the nervous system, and if the nervous system is gone, you'd be as dead as the feeling when you finish your favorite television show. Other than movement or feelings, it's main purpose is to send and receive information, like Iron Man's computer program. Basically, the nervous system is as big as a superhero as Hulk. Obviously for these to work though, we have to power it somehow, so remember always be moving and thinking, and your nervous system will fuel you up for battle. In no time, you'll be swinging like Spidey!
The brain is likened to a magical kingdom, with its various parts performing unique functions, explained through the characters Dora and Superman. The Forebrain controls senses and thought, the Midbrain handles multiple tasks like movement and vision, and the Hindbrain takes care of basic life functions.
Explanation:Once upon a time, in a world where characters like Dora the Explorer and Superman lived, there was a magical kingdom hidden away in everyone's head. This kingdom was called the Brain.
This magical kingdom had three main parts; the Forebrain, Midbrain, and Hindbrain, like the different neighborhoods in a village. The Forebrain, where Dora lived, was like a command centre. It controlled thought, language, and our five senses. Whenever you smell a flower or taste your favourite ice cream, that's the Forebrain at work!
Next is the Midbrain, where Superman resides. Superman, just like our Midbrain, is super good at multitasking. It enables us to move, regulates our body temperature, and allows us to see and hear, like when we watch Superman in action on T
In the quiet part of the kingdom is the Hindbrain, which is the backbone of our existence, just like how every story needs a good ending. It takes care of the basics, like controlling our heart rate, breathing, and sleeping. So, when Dora and Superman need to rest after a day full of adventures, the Hindbrain is there to help.
So, each day when you play, study, eat or sleep, remember that the magical kingdom inside your head is working day and night like Dora and Superman to make sure you can do all the wonderful things you do!
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A client is diagnosed with dumping syndrome after bariatric surgery. Which findings on the nursing assessment correlate with this diagnosis?
Answer:
In the diagnosis of dumping syndrome it could be find tachycardia, feeling hot, sweat, sickness, diarrhea and different symptoms associated with hyperglycemia.
Explanation:
The dumping syndrome is a situation in which food, specially sugar, goes too quickly from the stomach to the duodenum. It’s also called rapid gastric emptying. It can be one of the complications associated to a gastric or esophageal surgery. It can be early dumping which happens 10 to 30 minutes after a meal, or a later dumping which occurs 2 to 3 hours after a meal.
An 81 Y/O female was admitted to the oncology unit with metastatic cancer for pain control. On day 4 of hospitalization, she suffered circulatory complications and she was transferred to the step-down unit. The pressure injury survey was conducted on day 5 of hospitalization and her family verbally consented to have her included in the pressure injury survey. The survey team found a large Stage 1 area of non-blanchable redness over her right ischial tuberosity.
A review of her hospital admission assessment record revealed her skin was warm, dry, and intact. The skin assessment documented on arrival to the step-down unit noted a small Stage 1 pressure injury at this site. For the pressure injury survey, this would be reported as:
a. Community-Acquired Pressure Injury
b. Hospital-Acquired Pressure Injury Only
c. Hospital-Acquired and Unit Acquired Pressure Injury
Answer:
b. Hospital-Acquired Pressure Injury Only
Explanation:
It is understood that the injury originated during hospitalization, because no injury was reported at the time of admission.
If you were evaluated at the time of transfer to the reduction unit, you already had the injury at the time of Stage 1.
Final answer:
The pressure injury should be reported as a Hospital-Acquired Pressure Injury Only, as it was not documented upon admission and was first noted in the hospital's care. Thus, option B is correct.
Explanation:
The correct answer is b. Hospital-Acquired Pressure Injury Only. This determination is based on the information that the patient's skin was intact and without pressure injuries upon admission as documented in the hospital admission assessment record. The development of pressure injury occurred during the patient's hospital stay, first noted as a small Stage 1 injury upon arrival to the step-down unit and later identified as a larger Stage 1 area during the pressure injury survey conducted on day 5 of hospitalization. Thus, the pressure injury is classified as hospital-acquired because it was not present during the initial skin assessment at admission and observed after admittance to the hospital.
Ruby is angry at her little sister for wearing Ruby's favorite shirt without permission and then spilling paint on it. Ruby walks over to her sister and yells at her. Ruby's actions are an example of ________.
Answer:
The correct answer is - aggression.
Explanation:
Aggression is the behavior to intend to harm an individual emotional, verbally, or emotionally. On the Basis of the different type of the intention and harm these are categorize in different types.
Emotional or impulsive aggression is the type of aggression is takes place an individual shows aggression for less intent or small quantity of forethought. Thus, the correct answer is - aggression.
Mr. Randolph is experiencing muscle weakness, loss of coordination and speech, and visual disturbances that result from the slowdown or interruption of neural transmission. The cause of these symptoms probably involves the degeneration of his myelin sheath. Mr. Randolph likely has:_______________.
Answer:
Mr. Randolph likely has multiple sclerosis.
Explanation:
In multiple sclerosis (MS, there is nerve damage which leads to the disruption of communication between the brain and the body.
During preoperative teaching for a client who will undergo subtotal thyroidectomy, the nurse should include which statement?
1. "The head of your bed must remain flat for 24 hours after surgery."
2. "You should avoid deep breathing and coughing after surgery."
3. "You won't be able to swallow for the first day or two."
4. "You must avoid hyperextending your neck after surgery."
Answer:
a) "You must avoid hyperextending your neck after surgery."
Explanation:
After this type of surgery, it’s important to rest.
If a person expands their neck, the wound might take more time to heal or maybe cause additional problems, like infection, heavy bleeding or something else.
It might take some time, but at least, a person will feel safe and it will take less time to heal before they can get back to their regular activities.
While assessing the muscle tone of a client, the client demonstrates a full range of muscle motion against gravity with some resistance. What score on the Lovett scale can be given to the client?
1. Fair (F).2. Good (G).3. Trace (T).4. Normal (N).
Answer:
Good.
Explanation:
Lovett score might used for the categorization the different range of the motions of the individual. The resistance is used as an important factor while determining the Lovett score. The different score that are included are good, normal, trace and fair.
The Lovett score of the fair is given when the client shows the full range of motion and no resistance is offered. The Lovett score with the good score is given when the client shows the full motion range. The client must show some resistance against the gravity.
Thus, the correct answer is option (2).
Answer:
The correct answer is - option 2.
Explanation:
Lovett score is the scoring method on the basis of the resistance and range of the muscle against the gravity. According to the score method there are four different categories namely, Good, fair, trace and normal.
According to this good is category that is include full motion of against the gravity with some resistance. In the provided question it is the similar to the good category of the Lovett score.
Thus, the correct answer is - option 2.
Which government policy addresses penalizing hospitals for readmissions of clients with certain diagnoses within 30 days after discharge?
Answer:
The Affordable Care Act.
Explanation:
The Affordable Care Act, also known as Obamacare, established the Hospital Readmission Reduction Program, which states that a hospital will be penalized if their number of patients with pneumonia, heart failure, or myocardial infection that are readmitted within 30 days after discharge is higher than expected.
Your 3rd grade lunch buddy is willing to take a container of apple sauce from your lunch box in exchange for something in his or her lunch box. Your options are: Food item Value to you in number of applesauce containers 1 orange 1 applesauce container 1 Jello cube (lime flavored) 1.5 applesauce containers 1 cookie 2 applesauce containers. Which should you choose to maximize your utility? a. the orange b. the Jello cube c. the cookie d. None of the above; you will be happiest eating your applesauce.
Answer:
The correct answer would be - option C.
Explanation:
As it is clearly stated that value of the food items in comparison to the apple sauce container as follow :
1 orange = 1 applesauce container
1 Jello cube (lime flavored) = 1.5 applesauce containers
1 cookie = 2 applesauce containers
In the question i is asked that which option you should choose to maximize utility, on the basis of food value one can easily say that 1 cookie has more food value and it will definitely increase the utility more than any other so answer should be cookie.
Thus, the correct answer is - option C.
To maximize your utility, you should choose the cookie, as it is worth 2 applesauce containers, making it the most valuable option to you.
The question is: Which should you choose to maximize your utility? Your options are:
1 orange = 1 applesauce container1 Jello cube (lime flavored) = 1.5 applesauce containers1 cookie = 2 applesauce containersTo maximize your utility, you should choose the item that you value the most in terms of number of applesauce containers.
Here’s the value to you for each option:
Since the cookie is worth the most to you (2 applesauce containers), you should choose the cookie to maximize your utility.
Which of the following are factors that are associated with worse health outcomes in the U.S.? Unemployment, poverty, and environmental pollution
Answer:
Unemployment, poverty
Explanation:
Poverty- income inequality , nonclinical factors (education, employment, race, ethnicity, and geography) and health care payment and delivery system reforms are some of the factors that are associated with health outcomes in the U.S.
A client with HIV has been admitted to a health care facility. Which nursing diagnosis should be the priority, keeping in mind the client's condition?
A) Risk for Imbalanced Nutrition
B) Risk for Infection
C) Risk for Ineffective Coping
D) Risk for Activity Intolerance
Answer:
B: risk for infection
Explanation: A HIV patient is susceptible to infections due to a weakened immune system. The virus attacks the white blood cells of the body that fight foreign bodies in the body, thereby making the immune system weak to fighting infection.
When caring for a patient with HIV, the nurse must provide care using all standard precautions not to expose the patient to more infection.
The cardiologist examines a client's echocardiogram and determines that the client has aortic stenosis. The cardiologist explains that a frequent cause of this valve disease is__________.
Answer: Congenital heart defect
Explanation:
Aortic valve sterosis happens when the aortic valve of the heart narrows. Blood flow is reduced or blocked as a result of this narrowing. When the aortic valve is narrowed, the left ventricle thickens because it has to work harder to pump the needed blood into the aorta and the rest of the body, which overtime weakens the left ventricle.
One of the causes of the aortic valve narrowing is a Biscupid Aortic Valve which is a congenital heart defect. It is an genetic form of heart disease whereby two of the leaftets of the heart's aortic valve fuse during development in the womb, which ends up as a Biscupid valve (two-leaftet valve) instead of the normal Triscupid valve (three-leaftet valve).
In the first trimester, sharp pains in the lower abdomen are common. They are not repetitive but often are associated with position changes or fetal movements. What are these indicative of?
Answer:
Growing pains.
Explanation:
The gestation period may be defined as the time required for the fetal development in the mother's womb. The gestation period is of nine months in case of humans.
The pregnancy period involves the different trimester period of fetal development. The first trimester represent the last day of the menstrual period and remains till 12 weeks. The fetal movement can be felt in this period. This mainly indicates the growing pains in female.
Thus, the correct answer is growing pains.
The sharp pains in the lower abdomen during the first trimester of pregnancy are normal and indicate the body adapting to pregnancy.
Explanation:The sharp pains in the lower abdomen experienced in the first trimester of pregnancy can typically be attributed to the growing uterus and stretching of the ligaments. These pains are not repetitive but can occur with changes in position or fetal movements. They are generally considered normal and are indicative of the body adapting to the changes of pregnancy.
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___________ happens when people cross that line and drink or use drugs at a level that causes problems in one or more areas of their lives.
Answer: Abuse
Explanation: Abuse occurs when an individual takes to improper or unhealthy usage of certain substances whose intake ought to be controlled. In most cases, abuse could take the form of drugs, drinks, or even power. Most individuals who abuse drugs, drinks intend to derive temporary strength in other to perform a particular task, They may attempt to tweak their emotional and psychological status in other to get over a particular situation or enable them perform a cruel act without feeling sorry. However, Abuse poses a serious health risk to involved individuals both physically and mentally.
A client is undergoing a diagnostic workup to rule out multiple myeloma. Which diagnostic findings would confirm the diagnosis of multiple myeloma?
Answer:
Plasma cells greater than 10% on bone marrow biopsy
Explanation:
Multiple myeloma is a bone marrow cancer that, for now, has no cure, but a treatment that allows long periods of remission.
Multiple myeloma is a cancer that appears in plasma cells, a type of white blood cell that occurs in the bone marrow. The bone marrow is the spongy material found in the center of the largest bones in the body, and it is also where all blood cells are produced.
One of the tests to diagnose multiple myeloma is Bone Marrow Biopsy
It consists of placing a needle inside the bone to take a small sample of bone marrow, usually in the hip bone. The sample obtained is usually called bone marrow aspirate.
This test includes the plasma cell count and is performed both at the beginning and at the end of the treatment. If the plasma cells is greater than 10 % confirm the diagnosis of multiple myeloma.
The first step in responding to an emergency is recognizing when one exists. Three examples of emergency situations are as follows:a. Lack of consciousnessb. Chest Painc. Chemical BurnsTrue / False.
Answer: True
Explanation: An emergency is a situation that can cause health impairment or lost of life, if not attended to immediately. It requires fast attention so as to suppress the situation from getting worse.
Lack of consciousness, chest pain and chemical burn are among the important symptoms that's need immediate medical attention when recognized.
The best approach when these situation occurs is to remain calm, ensure you are in a safe place, keep the victim in a ventilated place and call the designated authority to inform them of the emergency.
In a noisy room a sleeping newborn initially startles and exhibits rapid movements; however, the baby soon goes back to sleep. What is the most appropriate nursing action in response to this behavior?
1. Documenting an intact reflex.2. Assessing the infant's vital signs.3. Testing the infant's ability to hear.4. Stimulating the infant's respirations.
Answer:
Documenting an intact reflex.
Explanation:
Reflex action may be defined as the sudden change in the action against the stimulation. This might cause the muscle contraction and the movement of the particular body parts.
The first response describe in the question is the startle reflex that might result in the decrease in the stimulus due to its repetition. Initially, the response is rapid but later decreases. This is known as habituation and quite important to understand the behavior of the infant.
Thus, the correct answer is option (1).
Answer:
The correct answer would be option A.
Explanation:
The primary response in this case by nurse should be observing the reflection of the startle reflexes that is is the brainstem reflectory reaction, that shows the rapid and random moments, when there is repetitive stimulus present.
So, the correct response would be documenting the intact reflexes. Habituation is known as the lowering in response, it is not necessary as it is noisy room and infants response is on the noise.
Thus, the correct answer is - option A.
Describe several important generalizations about homeostatic control systems, including the difference between steady state and equilibrium.
Answer:
The homeostatic control system is associated with preserving stable environmental conditions internally and thus performs regulatory response functions. The important generalizations of this homeostatic control system are
1) Stabilize the internal environment by balancing inputs and outputs.
2) If the internal environment feedback is negative, a change in variable is being regulated.
3) The homeostatic control system has no control on external environment and continuous change in the external environment changes the features of internal environment also.
4) Any regulated variable have a narrow range of normal values so that the internal environment can be strictly kept constant provided the external environment is not rapidly changing.
5) The homeostatic control system cannot maintain the entire internal environment by keeping a narrow normal range of variables.
Explanation:
1) The internal environment variables can be made stable by balancing the variations in the magnitudes of input and outputs.
2) The variable responses are changed by moving the variables in the opposite direction to balance the negative feedback. Therefore the variables are moved back to the initial point or set point.
3) Any changes produced in the external environment produces a direct effect on internal environment variables. Thus internal variables cannot be kept constant but the impact of external environment on these variables can be minimized.
4) It is observed that set points of some variables are reset by the homeostatic control systems i.e. they can be raised or lowered within physiological ranges.
5) It is recommended to keep a hierarchy of variables in terms of importance so that the important variables within the internal environment are altered to maintain all other variables in normal ranges.
Nutrient density refers to ___. 1. calories in relation to weight 2. nutrients in relation to serving 3. size nutrients in relation to portion size 4. nutrients in relation to calories
Answer: 4). Nutrients in relation to calories.
Explanation:
Nutrient density refers to foods that provides more nutrients relative to its energy content (calorie).
Two types of food could contain the same nutrients but different calories, the one with lesser calories is said to be more nutrient dense than the other.
For example; A glass of tomato juice and a glass of Orange juice, both contain almost the same number of nutrients but Orange juice contains more calories. Therefore the glass of tomato juice is more nutrient dense.
Nutrient density refers to the nutrients in relation to calories. It measures the amount of essential nutrients a food provides per calorie.
Nutrient density refers to the nutrients in relation to calories. It measures the amount of essential nutrients a food provides per calorie. Foods that have a high nutrient density provide more essential nutrients in relation to their calorie content.
For example, fruits and vegetables are considered to have a high nutrient density because they contain a variety of vitamins, minerals, and fiber while being low in calories.
On the other hand, foods high in added sugars or unhealthy fats have a low nutrient density because they provide a lot of calories but few essential nutrients.
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Which of the following scenarios describes the sensing component of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator: a. Alf prides himself on being fair and not letting emotions get in his way when making decisions. b. Amelia is less interested in facts than in the patterns and relationships among them. c. Lenny prides himself on his adaptability. He hates making final decisions and, as a result, often misses his deadlines. d. Olga often criticizes others for being 'too logical.' She believes that logic is a lie people tell themselves to justify making cold, cruel, or outright immoral decisions. When asked to make hard choices, Olga bases her decisions on what is best for the people she cares about. e. Liang is uncomfortable making an important decision unless he feels that he has all of the facts. f. Hosanna is decisive. In a group, she's usually the first person to take stock of the essential information and forumulate a plan.
Answer:
The correct answer is: E) Liang is uncomfortable making an important decision unless he feels that he has all of the facts.
Explanation:
Sensors pay attention to their senses, to their physical reality. They focus on the present and like to see the practical side of things. Sensors value experience, notice facts and remember details. For a person with a sensing component, to make a decision it is fundamental to have all the facts and the details, taking into consideration every past experience.
If 3 grams of active ingredient are needed to make 1 pint of a suspension, how much active ingredient is needed to make 1 gallon of the suspension?
Answer:
25mL of active ingredient is needed to make 1 gallon of the suspension
Explanation:
3 grams of active ingredient are needed to make 1 pint (16 ounces = 16×28.35 grams = 453.6 grams) of the suspension
Volume active ingredient needed to make 1 gallon (3.7854L = 3.7854×1000mL = 3785.4mL) = 3785.4mL × 3g/453.6g = 25mL
Answer: 18 Grams
Explanation:
A woman has informed the nurse that she plans to have a freebirth. Which statement indicates that the woman understands what freebirth entails?
Answer:
plan on giving birth at home without anyone around except husband and children
Explanation:
when a woman inform to his nurse about free birth that she is planning for free birth
free birth is referred to the unassisted childbirth mean intentionally give birth without the help of nurse or assistance of medical birth attendant
so she here she plan give birth at home with the presence of family members like her husband and her children