The cell having both nucleus and a cell wall shows that it is a plant cell.
• Like animals and humans, plants also comprises several cells. The cells of plants are eukaryotic, which comprise a true nucleus along with many unique compositions known as organelles, which perform essential functions.
• Some of the main organelles of a plant cell are cell wall, nucleus, cell membrane, plastids, chloroplasts, central vacuole, mitochondria and ribosomes.
• The cell wall is a rigid layer formed of glycoproteins, cellulose, pectin, hemicellulose, and lignin. It is situated external to the cell membrane. The main role of cell wall is to provide structural support and protection to the cell.
• Nucleus is a membrane-bound composition, which is found in all the eukaryotic cells. Its main function is to store hereditary information and DNA needed for metabolism, division, and growth of cells.
• Cell wall is unique and found only in plant cells.
Thus, it can be said that the cell having cell wall and nucleus is a plant cell.
To know more about:
https://brainly.com/question/5280147
Omnivores: _________a. subsist on dead matter and waste products of other organisms. b. may exist at any trophic level. c. feed primarily on primary producers. d. are never found in the first trophic level. e. always exist at the third trophic level.
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Omnivores is one of the classification of animals based on their feeding pattern characterized by their ability to feed on both other animals (flesh) and plant materials. They can behave like carnivores and also like herbivores in terms of what they feed on. Due to this property they possess, they can be found in any trophic level except the first trophic level.
Omnivores can never be found in the first trophic level because they are also consumers, and that role of beginning energy flow in a food chain by obtaining energy from sunlight belongs to autotrophs called PRIMARY PRODUCERS. Omnivores can now because of their ability to feed on plants and animals, exist from the second trophic level upwards.
Omnivores can exist at any trophic level and consume both plants and animals. Option b is correct.
Explanation:Omnivores are heterotrophs that consume both plants and animals. They include pigs, brown bears, gulls, crows, and humans. Some omnivores eat more plants than animals, while others eat more animals than plants. They can exist at any trophic level and are not restricted to the third level. Therefore, the correct answer is b. may exist at any trophic level.
Omnivores are indeed versatile in their diet and can exist at various trophic levels within an ecosystem. Unlike strict herbivores that primarily consume plants or strict carnivores that primarily consume other animals, omnivores have a mixed diet, including both plant and animal matter. This adaptability allows them to occupy different niches and play diverse roles in food webs.
Omnivores can be found at various trophic levels, from primary consumers that feed on plants to secondary or tertiary consumers that may also consume other animals. This adaptability and flexibility in diet contribute to the ecological success of omnivores, as they can exploit a wider range of available food resources in their environment. Examples of omnivores include bears, humans, and certain bird species.
Learn more about Omnivores here:https://brainly.com/question/28038819
#SPJ3
Researchers endeavoring to conduct an on-line study should consider that there are some potential risks of harm to subjects unique to internet-based research. One of these risks is:1. Recruiting, consenting and debriefing subjects takes place on-line, and may require little to no interaction with the subjects.2. People assume pseudonymous on-line identities, such as an avatar in an MMORPG.3. Online studies do not require the documentation of informed consent.4. Individuals may post private identifiable information about themselves on-line without intending it to be public and available to researchers.5. Individuals may post private identifiable information about themselves on-line without intending it to be public and available to researchers.
Answer:
Answer is 5. Individuals may post private identifiable information about themselves on-line without intending it to be public and available to researchers.
Explanation:
It should be noted that as the internet have many advantages, so also it has disadvantages.
There are so many people known as hackers , who know how to find their ways in accessing information that are not meant for them. This they do in a crooked way.
In this sense, people should avoid posting information that are sensitive online, especially when they are undergoing online lectures or internet based research.
They should adopt other means, if it is compulsory or necessary to pass sensitive information to their online tutor.
Finally, people should understand that anything posted online directly or indirectly is public, that is , seen by many people.
OPTION 4.
Researchers must consider the risk of subjects inadvertently posting private information when conducting online studies, and must uphold ethical standards including informed consent.
Explanation:Researchers in online studies face unique risks of harm to subjects, such as the potential for participants to post private identifiable information online without intending it to become public and available to researchers. Online privacy is of particular concern, as subjects may not be fully aware of who has access to their information. It is imperative that researchers adhere to ethical standards, such as obtaining informed consent, minimizing risks, and ensuring the safety of participants. These protocols are essential to protect the subjects' privacy and ensure the integrity of the research.
Learn more about Online Research Ethics here:https://brainly.com/question/32887976
#SPJ6
Of the dozens of neurotransmitters that have been discovered, how many appear to be especially important in mental disorders?
Of the dozens of neurotransmitters that have been discovered 4 appear to be especially important in mental disorders.
Explanation:
The signal from one neuron is passed to another neuron with the help of a neuron transmitter. The signal that is produced by one neuron must be responded by another neuron. The receptor of neuron are bounded by the neuron transmitters.
Pre synaptic neurons are those that helps in releasing the neuron transmitters. Postsynaptic neurons are those that are helpful in receiving these neuron transmitter signals. The signals that are also released by neurons in the direct that are in reverse to the above mentioned steps. In metal disorders 4 neuron transmitters are considered to be very important.
Proteins are made by:_____________ organelles RNA Ribosomes in plants only Ribosomes in plants and animals in the nucleus of plant and animal cells
Answer: Ribosomes in plants and animals
Answer:
Proteins are made by: Ribosomes in plants and animals
Explanation:
Have a Great day!!
In what position should the ankles, knees, and hips be during the takeoff position of the squat jump?
Which of the following contributed to the current high prevalence of drug-resistant infectious diseases such at tuberculosis?
Options:
* Inappropriate supervision of treatment
* Delay in treatment
* Mutation of bacteria
* Virulence variation
* All of the listed choices are correct
Answer : All of the listed choices are correct
Explanation:
The case of Phineas Gage suggests that the _____ lobes regulate our personality. These lobes are largely responsible for much of what makes us uniquely human.
Answer:
Frontal Lobe
Explanation:
The structure of the brain is divided into four lobes namely: frontal lobe, occipital, temporal and parietal lobes.
The lobe in the front or frontal lobe is situated in the front portion of the cranium and is highly vulnerable to the injury. The front lobe is associated with the emotional control and personality traits like it controls the motor functions, social and sexual behaviour, language and memory.
Since the frontal lobe controls the social and sexual behaviour, therefore, the frontal lobe is correct.
Thus, Frontal Lobe is the correct answer.
Answer:
the frontal lobe
Explanation:
I took the test and that was the answer
A student discovers a mat of green organisms living along the edge of a stream and suspects it is a moss. To confirm that this organism is a moss and not a green alga, he should look for _____.
Answer:
He should look out for tiny leaf-like structures which mosses possess but algae does not .
Explanation:
In general, moss looks fibrous, feathered or latticed when viewed up close. Carpets of moss are springy to the touch. When germinating, moss puts up thin stems sometimes with leaves on top and reproductive spores. Algae have no threadlike structures or leaves. Instead, algae spread as a clump of living cells. Because algae usually grow in wet environments, they look like a slimy, wet mass, often green in color. Both moss and algae may appear green or brown depending on species and the dryness of the conditions.
The dominant gene for round red blood cells is S and the recessive gene for sickle-shaped red blood cells is s. Based on their genotypes, which set of parents has the most likely chance of producing a child with sickle-cell disease?
a. SS mother and Ss father
b. Ss mother and SS father
c. Ss mother and Ss father
d. SS mother and SS father
Answer:
b
Explanation:because the recessive closet to the to the gene that causes is that
"In experiments using T2 viruses to discern the genetic material, certain elements were radioactively labeled. Which radioactive material in T2 viruses was found in bacteria?
Answer:
Phosphorus-32
Explanation:
Alfred D. Hershey and Martha Chase radiolabelled phosphorus as 32P and sulfur as 35S. This was done to observe if the radio labeled sulfur-containing protein coat or the radio-labeled P containing DNA enters the host cell. They showed that when the bacterial virus T2 infects Escherichia coli cells, the radioactive phosphorus-containing DNA of the viral particle enters the host cells. The host cells do not show the radio-labeled sulfur-containing protein of the viral coat. This proved that DNA, not the proteins is the genetic material.
Every sensory neuron is a (an) ______ to the central nervous system, and every motor neuron is a(an) ______ from the central nervous system.
Answer:
Every sensory neuron is a (an) stimuli to the central nervous system, and every motor neuron is a(an) transmitter from the central nervous system.
A cation that is more abundant as a solute in the cytosol of a neuron than it is in the interstitial fluid outside the neuron is A) HCO3-. B) Cl-. C) Ca++. D) Na+. E) K+.
Potassium ions (K+) have a greater concentration inside a neuron's cytosol than in the interstitial fluid outside of the neuron. The resting potential of the neuron is maintained through a greater concentration of Na+ ions outside the cell, with the sodium-potassium pump regulating ion levels by pumping two K+ ions into the neuron for every three Na+ ions pumped out.
Explanation:The correct answer to this question is E) K+. Potassium ions (K+) are more abundant in the cytosol of a neuron as compared to the interstitial fluid outside the neuron. To maintain the resting potential of the neuron, there is a higher concentration of K+ inside the neuron and a higher concentration of Na+ ions outside the neuron. This is maintained by the sodium-potassium pump, which pumps two K+ ions into the cell for every three Na+ ions it pumps out.
Learn more about Cation Concentration in Neurons here:https://brainly.com/question/31669220
#SPJ6
The cation that is more abundant in the cytosol of a neuron than in the interstitial fluid outside the neuron is K+ (potassium ion).
Explanation:The cation that is more abundant as a solute in the cytosol of a neuron than it is in the interstitial fluid outside the neuron is K+ (potassium ion).
At resting potential, sodium ions (Na+) are more highly concentrated outside the cell in the extracellular fluid, while potassium ions (K+) are more highly concentrated near the membrane in the cytoplasm or intracellular fluid. This is maintained by sodium-potassium pumps in the cell membranes, which actively transport three sodium ions out of the cell for every two potassium ions in, creating a net negative charge inside the cell.
Therefore, the correct answer is E) K+.
Learn more about Cations in Neurons here:https://brainly.com/question/29514725
#SPJ6
If an ethical hacker breaks the limit placed upon a test, there may be sufficient cause for a client to take legal action against the ethical hacker.A. true
B. false
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
Ethics is the moral psychology or philosophy that are used to determine the write or wrong things. The ethics is used in all the subjects and in all the services.
The ethical hacker may be defined as the individual that has hacked the information or break the rules that are against the ethics or moral value. The legal actions must be taken against the ethical hacker so that the ethics cannot be violated next time.
Thus, the correct answer is true.
True or false: During meiosis, two rounds of DNA synthesis are required to form four gametes from one parent cell.
Answer:
False
Explanation:
During meiosis two round of cell division occurs after the replication which allow the formation of four haploid cells. Meiosis takes place in gametic cells.
During the first round of meiotic cell division, the homologous chromosome gets separated into two daughter cell and during the second round of meiotic cell division, each sister chromatids gets separated into two new daughter cells.
So during meiosis two round of cell division takes place not two round of replication takes place. Therefore the statement is false.
The claim that two rounds of DNA synthesis are required during meiosis is false; only one round of DNA replication occurs before meiosis I, followed by a second division in meiosis II, resulting in four haploid gametes from one parent cell.
Explanation:The statement that two rounds of DNA synthesis are required during meiosis to form four gametes from one parent cell is false. In meiosis, there is only one round of DNA replication before the first division, known as meiosis I. This is followed by a second round of division, meiosis II, which does not involve further DNA synthesis. The process of meiosis starts with a diploid cell, which after DNA replication, divides twice to produce four haploid gametes, each genetically unique.
Human sperms are indeed haploid, meaning they have half the number of chromosomes of a diploid body cell. Sister chromatids do not separate during meiosis I; instead, they separate during meiosis II. In meiosis I, it is the homologous chromosomes that separate. After a single cell completes meiosis, four cells are produced.
100 POINTS!!! Help!!!
A series of coral reefs is located near a coastline. In 3–5 sentences, construct an argument about how people can help prevent erosion to the coastline.
Answer:
We can prevent erosion by not disturbing the coral reefs and help them build more near the coastline. The structure of the coral reefs helps to prevent the loss of life and it also prevents erosion. The coral reefs act as a barrier against the water flows such as waves or floods. In this way they prevent erosion by serving as natural barriers. Hence, erosion can be prevented if more coral reefs are allowed to grow near the coastline.
To prevent erosion to the coastline near coral reefs, people can avoid using harmful chemicals, implement sewage treatment systems, and create buffer zones of plants or sand dunes.
Explanation:In order to help prevent erosion to the coastline near the series of coral reefs, people can take several actions. First, they can avoid using harmful chemicals and pesticides in their gardens or farms that could contaminate the water and harm marine life. Second, implementing effective sewage treatment systems can prevent the discharge of untreated wastewater into the oceans. Third, creating buffer zones of plants or sand dunes can reduce the impact of waves and protect the coastline from erosion.
An athletic woman has just discovered she is 6 to 8 weeks pregnant. From the list of her usual sports and activities, which activity should be discussed in further detail since it is contraindicated during pregnancy?
Answer:
Activity and sports during pregnancy should be limited, should avoid exercises with high risk involved
Explanation:
These below mentioned activities are not suggested during 6th to 8th weeks pregnant period, they are as follows
Holding the breath while exercising may affect both the child as well as the mother, since both the fetus as well as the mother need constant supply of oxygen.Avoid twisty motions.Maintain the sense of balance and not risking any sort of trauma to the abdomen.Avoid the exercise when feel fatigued.Exercise to the back side of the body is not suggested during the second trimester.Final answer:
An athletic woman who is 6 to 8 weeks pregnant should be cautious about engaging in high-impact or contact sports due to the risk to herself and the developing fetus. It's crucial to avoid harmful substances and consult a healthcare provider for advice on safe physical activities during pregnancy.
Explanation:
An athletic woman who has just discovered she is 6 to 8 weeks pregnant should be particularly cautious about the sports and activities she engages in during pregnancy. Among her usual activities, those with a high risk of impact falls, or abdominal trauma should be discussed in detail for potential contraindications. Activities like contact sports, high-impact aerobics, and extreme sports are generally considered risky. A pregnant woman must avoid toxins and engage in healthy behaviors that encourage normal fetal growth and development. Substances such as alcohol, illegal drugs, and certain medications can severely harm the embryo or fetus, especially during the first eight weeks after fertilization when the major organs are forming.
In conclusion, understanding the implications of specific exercises and sports during pregnancy can help ensure both the mother's and the unborn child's safety and well-being. Consulting a healthcare provider for personalized advice is always recommended for pregnant women wanting to continue their athletic pursuits.
According to Leech, the English of direct address advertising tends to be very homogeneous, so that all direct address voiceovers share many linguistic features ling.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A - True
Explanation:
According to Leech, it remains a generally accepted fact that the English of direct address advertising tends to be very homogeneous, so that all direct address voiceovers share many linguistic features ling.
So the answer is True.
In many cells, the adhesion to the extracellular matrix through integrins causes the activation of kinases in the cytoplasm. This suggests that:_______________.
Answer: There is presence of tumor.
Explanation: The adhesion of cells to extracellular matrix (EMC) through integrins ( cell-EMC binding molecules, which are collagens, laminins and fibronectin) causes the activation of kinases in the cytoplasm.
However, kinanes helps in controlling the epithelial cell differentiation and upholding the epithelial tissues. This is done by the addition of phosphate groups to a substrate protein which is termed Protein phosporylation. Then, the kinases direct the affairs of the cell and it's activities. For example, it determines the cell division, anabolic and catabolic activities of the cell, movement of ions between the cell and it's environment (signal transduction), protein functions and etc.
Conclusively, since the activities of the cell like cell division and protein functions is dictated by the kinase, reduction in cell division that gave rise to rapid growth is put on hold. Hence, the tumor is been suppressed.
Note: the binding of cell-EMC is regulated by Transforming Growth Factor (TGF) β.
A nurse consulting with a nutrition specialist knows it's important to consider a special diet for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which diet is appropriate for this client?
Answer:
High-protein
Explanation:
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is a disease in which there is obstruction of the lungs which makes it difficult for the person to breathe and there is an improper flow of the air in the respiratory tract. The disease management involves a proper diet which should have a high amount of proteins in it. A high protein diet is recommended for the patients as this leads to the strengthening of the muscles involved in the respiration and thus, avoids wasting and slows down the progressive worsening of the disease. Further, the high protein diet also helps to strengthen immunity and prevents infections of the respiratory tract. The proteins also provide more energy as sufferers of the disease also have difficulty performing activities such as walking, running, etc due to shortness of breath.A scientist, who wants to study the effects of nitrogen on wheat plant growth, sets up an experiment with 4 groups of wheat plants: group A gets 20 pounds per acre, group B gets 40 pounds per acre, group C gets 60 pounds per acre, and group D gets 0 pounds per acre. What is the dependent variable? Select one: C A. the weight of the plants at the end of the experiment B. the amount of sunlight the plants were exposed to C. the temperature the plants were grown in D. the amount of nitrogen given to the plants x ©
Answer:
The weight of the plants at the end of the experiment.
Explanation:
Since the experiment was set up to study the growth of the wheat plants, weight is a sign of growth. So at the end of the experiment, the weight of the plant will be compared to the amount of nitrogen added.
If a graph is to be plotted, the amount of nitrogen (independent variable) will be on the x-axis and the weight of the plants (dependent variable) will be on the y-axis.
The amount of sunlight and temperature are not included because the question does not say that they are parameters in the experiment.
What type of bonds are formed between nitrogenous bases of DNA?*
A. hydrogen bonds
B. glycolic bonds
C. james bonds
Answer: A. Hydrogen Bonds
In many hairy vertebrates, such as apes, dogs, and rats, the involuntary erection of hair acts as an efficient means of thermoregulation. The erect hairs trap an insulating layer of air against the skin, keeping the animal warm. Humans also display hair erection when cold, though humans are not hairy enough for this reflex to have a significant effect on body temperature. Which statement is true regarding this reflex?
1) It reflects the common ancestry of humans with hairy vertebrates.
2) It suggests humans are less evolved than other hairy vertebrates, because they are not adapted to maintain body temperature.
3) The loss of hairy bodies is an evolutionary disadvantage to humans.
4) The reflex is actually a voluntary response humans manifest during infancy.
Answer:
It reflects the common ancestry of humans with hairy vertebrates.
Explanation:
Evolution is the change in the species with the passage of time. Some species might get extinct and some species might develop the advance character during the evolutionary process.
The evolutionary history of the organisms can be classified on the basis of the paleontological or molecular evidence. The two groups of the organisms can share a common ancestor if they have some similar features with each other. In the given question, it can be concluded that hairy vertebrates and human might have the common ancestor.
Thus, the correct answer is option (a).
The palpable hip bone projections in the front of the body felt when you put your hands on your hips are the posterior inferior iliac spines.True / False.
Answer:
false
Explanation:
The bone of the pelvic girdle which has four bony projections is termed as ilium.The four bony projections present on the ilium are called as iliac spines.The iliac spines acts as points where the muscles and ligaments can attach. The four projections are :Anterior superior iliac spineAnterior inferior iliac spinePosterior superior iliac spinePosterior inferior iliac spineOut of these four spines it is the anterior superior iliac spines that are palpable and are felt while putting hands on the hips.
Answer:
False
Explanation:
The anterior superior lilac spine can be palpable with hands on the hips
The planet Mercury is closer to the sun than the planet Venus. However, temperatures on Venus are hotter than temperatures on Mercury. Why would this be the case?A) Mercury has a thicker atmosphere than Venus that blocks heat from the sun.B) Mercury spins more quickly than Venus, so its surface cannot heat up as quickly.C) Venus has a thicker atmosphere than Mercury that traps heat from the sun.D) Venus is cooled by high concentrations of water vapor in its atmosphere.
Answer:
The answer is B to my own knowledge
NEED HELP ASAP - 30 Points!
A geyser erupts when pressure is released from a hot spring.
True or False?
A geyser erupts when pressure is released from a hot spring -True
Mark as BrainliestAnswer: this is true
Explanation: When the surface water reaches boiling point, it errupts and cool down when boiling point becomes low.
Anaphylactic shock is the most severe form of systemic allergic reaction. Immunologically medicated substances are released into the blood, causing vasodilation and an increase in capillary permeability. What physiologic response often follows the vascular response in anaphylaxis?
a. Uterine smooth muscle reactionb. Laryngeal edemac. Broncodilationd. Gastrointestinal relaxation
Answer:
b. Laryngeal edema
Explanation
Laryngeal edema is a possible physiological response that will follow Anaphylactic shock. The Edema results to the decreased size of the laryngeal lumen.
It presents as respiratory difficulty or post extubation stridor which is presence of inspiratory noise as a result of increased effort in breathing due to narrowing of the airway. Other symptoms include fainting and low blood pressure.
Suppose there is a mutation in a lamininbinding integrin gene that causes a loss of function in thecytoplasmic domains of the integrin. Which of the following would you expect to observe as a result ofthis mutation?A.Tissues would be weakened because the integrin could no longer associate with microfilamentsin adherens junctions.B.The integrin would be unable to signal the cytoplasm when it had bound to the laminin.C.Cell adhesion to laminin would decrease, but lamininmediated gene expression would remainthe same.D.The integrin would function normally because the cytoplasmic domain is not responsible forbinding to laminin.
Answer: The integrin would be unable to signal the cytoplasm when it had bound to laminin. (Option B)
Explanation: Mutation (i.e change/alteration in the genetic sequence) in a laminin binding integrin gene causes a loss of laminin based functions in the cytoplasm.
The integrin will only bind to laminin in the cytoplasm, because there is alteration in the DNA sequence which codes for initiation of action in the cytoplasm.
According to Mathis Wackernagel, ecological overshoot is caused by an overuse of resources. Which of the following practices could contribute to ecological overshoot?1. Switching to renewable energy sources with lower CO2 emissions2. Recycling materials after they are used3. Catching fish more rapidly than the population can sustain4. Replanting trees as timber is harvested
Answer:
Option (3)
Explanation:
Ecological overshoot usually refers to the condition when the demand of the population within an ecosystem is higher than the capacity of the ecosystem to recycle and regenerate the available resources that have been extracted and obtained. This creates an imbalance in the ecosystem, as a result of which the overshoot occurs in the ecosystem.
From the given options, the catching of more number of fishes than the population requires, causes a dis-balance in the ecosystem, affecting the aquatic system where more fishes are being obtained. This results in ecological overshooting.
Thus, the correct answer is option (3).
Most sponges are _____________, meaning both sexes occur in the same individual but do not usually self-fertilize because individual sponges produce eggs and sperm at different times.
Answer:
Hermaphrodites or asexual
Explanation:
Autonomic dysreflexia is characterized by a. hypotension and shock. b. hypertension and bradycardia. c. pallor and vasoconstriction above the level of injury. d. extreme pain below the level of injury.
Answer:
B) hypertension and bradycardia.
Explanation:
Autonomic dysreflexia is a syndrome which is characterised by the sudden rise in the blood pressure of the human. The disease is common in the people with a higher level of spinal cord injuries above the T6 level.
The condition occurs when some external stimuli like pain or irritant activate the involuntary response in the body which cause the blood pressure to rise (hypertension). This leads to the slowdown of the heartbeat (bradycardia) to restore the blood pressure but the body cannot restore the blood pressure due to the damage in the spinal cord.
Thus, Option-B is the correct answer.