Answer:
we will know that the allelic frequencies are for R 0.95 and r 0.05
Explanation:
We know that the population is in Hardy-Winberg equilibrium, we deduce the following formula:
p + q = 1
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
data
R: red flower allele
r: allele blor blanca
p would be equal to the allelic frequency R
q will be equal to the frequency allelic r
2p = RR
2q = rr
2pq = Rr
If there are 25 white flowers in 1000 plants, their frequency will be:
2pq frequency of the Rr genotype
white flower = 25/10000 = 0.0025 = rr = 2q = 0.0025
we deduce that q is equal to 0.05
we replace the data with the previous formula
p + q = 1
p = 1-0.05
we get as a result
p = 0.95
if p = 0.95 and q = 0.05
we will know that the allelic frequencies are for R 0.95 and r 0.05
Answer:
p = 0.95, q = 0.05
Explanation:
dominant allele CR encodes red flowers = p
the recessive allele CW encodes white flowers = q
Plants with a heterozygous CRCW genotype have pink flowers = 2pq
There are 10,000 snapdragon plants on Membata Island. 9025 plants have red flowers, 950 plants have pink flowers, and 25 plants have white flowers.
To find p = (9025 + 950/2) / 10000 = (9025 + 475) / 10000
p = 0.95
TO find q, use this formular: p+q = 1 since p = 0.95
q = 1-0.95 = 0.05
Explain how waves, tides, and sea level influence the physical structure of the shore
Answer:
The shoreline is affected by waves (produced by wind at sea) and tides (produced by the gravitational effect of the moon and sun). Waves are caused by wind. Wave height in the open ocean is determined by three factors. The greater the wind speed the larger the waves.Explanation:
Final answer:
Waves and tides influence the physical structure of the shore by causing erosion and deposition, resulting in distinctive coastal features. Understanding how waves, tides, and currents interact is essential in managing coastal erosion and protecting shorelines.
Explanation:
Waves play a crucial role in shaping shorelines through erosion by transporting sand on and off beaches, along beaches, and carving structures along the shore. Features formed by wave deposition include beaches, sandbars, and spits. Shorelines can be protected from wave erosion through measures like building seawalls, planting vegetation, and nourishing beaches with sand.
Tides contribute to coastal erosion and deposition as they cause the shoreline to migrate landward and seaward due to the rhythmic rise and fall of sea level. Tidal mudflat depositional environments are influenced by strong tidal currents and have specific characteristics like submerged areas during high tide and smaller particles.
The combined effect of waves, currents, and tides leads to gradational processes in the coastal zone, with abrasion being a significant factor caused by sediment carried by water scraping against shore materials, especially under the impact of breakers.
Describe the career of an agricultural extension agent, with a brief summary of the responsibilities, education/training, and benefits.
Answer:
agricultural extension agent are train expert that acts as a middle man between the farmers and research institute or organisation. they are saddled with the responsibilities of bringing new innovations, technologies, knowledge e.t.c concerning agriculture to farmers and they in turn takes farmers concerns, complains and outcry to research institute.
they help to teach farmers on how too use modern farm tools and technologies. the extension agent use different methods to arouse or captivate the farmers and they are agent of change in that they help people form their own organizations in order to be able to tackle their problems.
they pass through different training and workshops and belong to a professional body before they can be certified an agricultural extension agent.Agricultural extension trainning/programmes cover a broad area including improved crop varieties, better livestock control, improved water management, and the control of weeds, pests or plant diseases. they are well paid and derive maximum satisfaction when helping farmers and proffering solutions to their problems.
Explanation:
Which of the following statements best describes the significance of the ocean to humans?
Answer:C
Explanation:
Answer:
The ocean is a source of oxygen, water, food, minerals, and other resources.
Explanation:
Humans depend on the materials that the ocean provides. Most importantly, the ocean's microscopic algae create the majority of the world's oxygen. Without this oxygen, most forms of life on Earth would die.
The ocean also provides humans with resources such as water, food, minerals, and resources such as oil.
Which the following has the lowest ionization energy?
○ Br
○ Cl
○ F
○ I
Answer:A
Explanation:The answer is Br
Mites often attach themselves to flies, wasps, or beetles for free transportation. The flies, wasps, and beetles are not impacted. What type of relationship is this?
Answer:
It is Mutualism
What is your hypothesis regarding difference in urine "chloride" concentration between subjects who drank water and subjects who drank a sports drink? Briefly state the physiologic basis for your prediction. Did your results support your prediction? If not, provide a possible explanation.
Answer:
Chloride concentration in urine is more who drank sport drink as compared to a person who drank normal water.
Explanation:
Chloride concentration in urine is high who drank sport drink as compared to a person who drank water because in sport drink there is more concentration of salts are present which is required our body. Due to more salts present in the sport drink, more chloride is present in urine due to the removal from the body while normal water has less amount of salts so urine has less concentration of chloride in urine.
Answer: there is an increased chloride content in subjects who drank sport drinks compared to those who drank water.
Explanation:
Chloride concentration in urine is high in subjects who drank sport drink as compared to a subject who drank water because more concentration of salts are present in sport drinks which is required our body. Due to more salts present in the sport drink, more chloride is present in urine due to the removal of excess chloride from the body while normal water has less amount of salts and also aid in diluting Cl content which makes the urine less concentrated.
The PCR primer ‘D7S820’ is used to amplify the D7S820 locus. Using this gel below, determine whether each person (M1, P1, P2, C1) is homozygous or heterozygous at this locus. Also determine the size of each person’s amplicons. Using this gel, you can determine paternity. M1 is the mother. C1 is the child. Is P1 or P2 the father of C1? Explain how you made this determination. If you were actually determining paternity, would you use one PCR primer? Why?
Answer:
1) M1 is heterozygous since it contains 2 bands, which means that it contains one recessive and one dominant allele
P1 is homozygous for this locus, since it contains a single band or is known to be homozygous for the locus or gene.
P2 is hetozygous for this locus because two bands appear in which each band represents one allele for the gene.
ChildC contains two gel bands, representing two alleles and is therefore heterozygous
P1 is the father of the child C1, if we look at the gel, each father shows a similar band, one coinciding with the mother and the second with the father p1
As for the paternity study, the PCR test is not useful, since it provides asymmetric results, thus only one strand information will be provided, and because the DNA is double-stranded, a more complete study is required.:
The episome in an Hfr strain is inserted near the trp (tryptophan operon) locus. This Hfr strain is grown with an F- Trp- strain. From this mating, we isolate an F+ Trp+ strain that can readily impart the Trp+ phenotype to F- Trp- strains, but no other traits are ever transferred. (When the original Hfr strain is mated with F? strains, traits other than Trp+ can be transferred, although at lower frequency than Trp+.) What most likely has happened?
Answer:
It is a typical Hfr mating, as trp gene is very closed to F plasmid, the Hfr bacteria donates its trp gene along with F plasmid and then process is disturbed.
Explanation:
"The most likely scenario is that a recombination event has occurred between the episome of the Hfr strain and the bacterial chromosome of the F- Trp- strain, resulting in the integration of the trp (tryptophan operon) locus into the F factor, creating an F' (prime) plasmid.
This F' plasmid carries the trp+ gene, which confers the ability to synthesize tryptophan, and can be transferred to other F- Trp- strains through conjugation.
Here's the explanation and logic behind this
1. The Hfr strain has an episome (a type of F factor) inserted near the trp locus on its chromosome. This allows for the transfer of chromosomal genes, including trp, to an F- strain during conjugation.
2. When the Hfr strain mates with an F- Trp- strain, the trp+ gene can be transferred to the recipient strain via conjugation. Since the trp locus is near the origin of transfer on the Hfr strain's chromosome, it is transferred first and with higher frequency.
3. The F' plasmid is formed when the trp+ gene from the Hfr strain is incorporated into the F factor through a recombination event. This F' plasmid can replicate independently of the bacterial chromosome and carries the trp+ gene.
4. The F' plasmid can then be transferred to other F- Trp- strains through conjugation, imparting the Trp+ phenotype. Since the F' plasmid is smaller than the entire bacterial chromosome, it is transferred more efficiently than the larger segment of the chromosome that would be transferred by the Hfr strain.
5. The fact that no other traits are ever transferred along with the Trp+ phenotype suggests that the F' plasmid does not carry any other chromosomal genes from the original Hfr strain. This is consistent with the observation that the trp locus is the only gene that is consistently transferred at a high frequency.
6. The original Hfr strain can still transfer other traits to F- strains, but these traits are located further from the origin of transfer on the chromosome and are therefore transferred at a lower frequency. This is because the further away a gene is from the origin of transfer, the less likely it is to be completely transferred before the mating pair separates.
In summary, the formation of an F' plasmid carrying the trp+ gene through recombination best explains the observed results of the mating experiments. The F' plasmid can efficiently transfer the Trp+ phenotype to F- Trp- strains without transferring other chromosomal traits."
Fill in the blanks with the answer that correctly completes the sentence below.
_______ and _______ can only obtain food through consuming other organisms.
A.
Euglena and amoebae
B.
Volvox and euglena
C.
Amoebae and paramecia
D.
Paramecia and volvox
Answer:
C. Amoebae and paramecia is the answer.
Explanation:
The correct sentence completion is c) "Amoebae and paramecia", as they are the organisms that can only obtain food through consuming other organisms unlike Euglena which can both perform photosynthesis and take up nutrients heterotrophically.
Amoebae and paramecia can only obtain food through consuming other organisms. The correct completion for the sentence is: c) Amoebae and paramecia can only obtain food through consuming other organisms. This indicates that both amoebae and paramecia are heterotrophic organisms, which means they do not produce their own food through photosynthesis but instead rely on other sources for nourishment.
In contrast, Euglena, as mentioned within the Euglenozoans information, can operate as mixotrophs. When light is available, they can perform photosynthesis, but in its absence, they switch to heterotrophy and take up organic nutrients from their environment. Therefore, they would not fit this sentence as they are capable of photosynthesis under certain conditions.
How many amino acids must be obtained in the diet because they cannot be made by the body? A. 2 B. 5 C. 10 D. 20
Answer:
The answer is 10 C.
Explanation:
Because your body can produce 10 of the 20 amino acids.
The number of amino acids that must be obtained in the diet because they cannot be made by the body is 10 amino acids. The correct option is C.
What are amino acids?Amino acids are organic substances that are made up of amino and carboxylic groups. They are building blocks of proteins. There are 20 types of amino acids. 10 are essential and 10 are non-essential amino acids.
Essential amino acids are those amino acids that are not present in the body, that's why we have to take them from food. They are histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine.
Non-essential; amino acids are those that are already present in the body. They are synthesized by the cells.
Thus, the correct option is C. 10 amino acids.
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Which of the following factors does NOT influence biodiversity?
What do all protists have in common? Check all that apply.
Protists are organisms composed of one or more cells.
Protists’ cells contain a nucleus.
Protists live in dry environments.
Protists produce their own food from water.
Protists reproduce asexually or sexually.
Protists live in moist environments.
Answer: The answers are A,B,E,F
Explanation: because i listened to the wrong answers and they showed me what i had got wrong and it showed me the answers to the questions! IF YOU GUYS GET IT RIGHT LIKE THE ANSWER !! HOPE THIS HELPED!
Protists are eukaryotic organism that contains one or more cells and has a nucleus. They reproduce by both types of methods and live in moist environments. Thus, options A, B, E, and F are correct.
What are protists?Protists are one of the kingdoms along with plants, animals, and fungi. They are eukaryotic species that may contain more than one cell. They also contain a nucleus like the other eukaryotic cell and hence exhibits similar cellular processes.
They can reproduce through both modes of reproduction to produce progeny. Protists live in moist environments that are suitable places for reproduction and growth.
Therefore, the protists have a nucleus, can reproduce through both methods, and live in moist environments.
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Compare the environmental and societal impact of urban sprawl to upward growth. please hurry!!!
Answer:
Urban sprawl means the Migration of population from the densely populated cities to the low populated areas around the cities.
Urban Sprawl has a huge impact on the environment. Urbanisation leads to cutting down of trees which are called deforestation. Deforestation is extremely bad for the environment because it creates a disbalance in the environment. Trees are extremely important to us because they provide us with raw materials and oxygen and we should not cut down the trees at any cost.
When people move further and further out from the city center, only the poor are left behind int he city. They have no choice but to live in the most blighted areas. Buildings are crumbling, shops are closed, and access to basic necessities is lacking. The natural environment is often damaged as well. For example, unhealthy air quality is aggravated by heavy traffic congestion, causing high rates of respiratory illnesses. The quality of life in these abused and neglected urban centers is greatly reduced.
Explanation:
Urban sprawl negatively impacts the environment through increased automobile dependency, land consumption, and pollution, leading to socioeconomic segregation and higher developmental costs.
Upward growth, representing high-density living, is often more sustainable but may also result in high-density sprawl. The greatest challenge for sustainable cities is controlling sprawl to conserve resources and promote a better quality of urban life.
The environmental and societal impact of urban sprawl compared to upward growth, refers to the consequences on the environment and society when cities expand horizontally versus growing vertically. Urban sprawl, characterized by low-density expansion into rural areas, increases average travel distances, encourages automobile dependency, and leads to extensive land, energy, and soil consumption.
These factors contribute to greenhouse gas emissions and elevate air and noise pollution levels. Sprawl also has socioeconomic impacts such as segregation of development by income, greater societal divisions, and increased developmental costs.
Contrarily, upward growth in cities, through the construction of high-rise buildings and denser living spaces, can be more sustainable, reducing pressure on surrounding agricultural and natural lands, and promoting efficient use of land and resources.
However, it might also lead to high-density sprawl depending on the urban design and infrastructural support. The sustainable city model aims to tackle these challenges by integrating growth within the existing urban footprint, promoting high-density living, and encouraging sustainable transportation options.
The major hindrance for designing a sustainable city is suburban sprawl, as it spreads into natural and agricultural lands and necessitates greater resource allocation for infrastructure, leading to economic and environmental challenges.
Suppose that each β–adrenergic receptor bound to epinephrine converts 100 molecules of the G???? subunit to the GTP-bound form, G????s. If each molecule of activated adenylate cyclase produces 1000 molecules of cAMP per second, how many molecules of cAMP are produced in 10 seconds after the formation of a single complex between epinephrine and the β–adrenergic receptor? Assume the pathway is fully responsive.
Answer:
The correct answer is 10^5*10 molecules of cAMP are produced.
Explanation:
It is given that when each molecule of epinephrine combines with the adrenergic receptor the transformation of 100 molecules of G-alpha takes place into their stimulated GTP form, which further stimulates adenylate cyclase. This stimulated adenylate cyclase further give rise to 1000 molecules of cAMP per second.
Therefore, in one second the production of 100 * 1000 or 10^5 cAMP molecules is taking place.
Thus, in 10 seconds, the production of 10 * 10^5 cAMP molecules will take place.
After epinephrine binds to a single β-adrenergic receptor, it activates 100 Gαₛ units, which each activate adenylate cyclase to produce 1000 cAMP molecules per second. Over 10 seconds, this results in the production of 1,000,000 molecules of cAMP.
The question concerns the biochemical pathway by which the hormone epinephrine activates the production of cyclic AMP (cAMP) in cells. When epinephrine binds to the β-adrenergic receptor, it activates a G-protein, which in turn activates adenylate cyclase. This activation leads to the conversion of ATP to cAMP. According to the supplied information, each β-adrenergic receptor bound to epinephrine activates 100 Gαₛ units, and each molecule of activated adenylate cyclase produces 1000 molecules of cAMP per second.
To calculate the total cAMP produced after 10 seconds, we multiply the number of Gαₛ units activated by the cAMP production rate of adenylate cyclase, and then by the duration of 10 seconds:
100 (Gαₛ units) x 1000 (cAMP per second) x 10 (seconds) = 1,000,000 cAMP molecules
Therefore, 1,000,000 molecules of cAMP are produced in 10 seconds after the formation of a single complex between epinephrine and the β-adrenergic receptor.
Read the scenario below and answer the question that follows. There are two rival pet stores located across the street from each other. One day, the power goes out. The pet store owners discover that the power will not be restored for many days. Without power, the fish in the fish tanks at each store will die. Although either individual could afford to purchase a generator individually, they agree to split the cost of a generator because they love fish more than they dislike each other. Once the generator is connected, their stores have the power restored and the fish are saved. Is this an example of a superordinate goal? Why or why not? Choose the most accurate answer. A. It is a superordinate goal because both pet store owners helped with the task. B. It is a superordinate goal because both pet store owners wanted to accomplish the goal. C. It is not a superordinate goal because only one pet store owner was interested in completing the goal. D. It is not a superordinate goal because it did not require both pet store owners to accomplish. Please select the best answer from the choices provided A B C D
Answer:
D. It is not a superordinate goal because it did not require both pet store owners to accomplish.
Explanation:
In this case, both pet stores are benefited and therefore it corresponds to a superordinate goal.
Early in your own development, a subset of diploid cells called ____________ began to develop within your pre-ectodermal tissue. These cells will eventually lodge in the gonadal ridge. Still later they will go through meiosis and give rise to primary oocytes or primary spermatocytes.
Answer:
primary germ cells or primordial germ cells
Explanation:
During the early stages of embryonic development , primary germ cell or primordial germ cells develops within the pre-ectodermal tissue. they are diploid like other somatic cells and found in the primary ectoderm (epiblast) in the second week.
Primary germ cell moves through the gut of an embryo in order to develop gonads. Further they undergo meiosis process followed by cellular differentiation and five rise to mature gametes, either sperms (primary spermatocytes) or eggs (primary oocytes).
Hence, the correct answer is primary germ cells.
During early development, oogonia cells develop within the pre-ectodermal tissue and go through meiosis to form primary oocytes or primary spermatocytes. Oogenesis involves the completion of two meiotic divisions, resulting in the production of a secondary oocyte that is released during ovulation.
Explanation:In early development, a subset of diploid cells called oogonia begin to develop within the pre-ectodermal tissue. These cells eventually lodge in the gonadal ridge and later go through meiosis to give rise to primary oocytes in females or primary spermatocytes in males.
Oogenesis begins when an oogonium with the diploid number of chromosomes undergoes mitosis, producing a diploid daughter cell called a primary oocyte. The primary oocyte then goes through the first division of meiosis.
During oogenesis, the primary oocyte completes the first meiotic division and forms a secondary oocyte and a polar body. The secondary oocyte is released during ovulation and, if fertilized, continues through the second meiotic division to produce a fertilized egg.
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Edit: Use the drop-down menus to select the storm that causes each environmental hazard.
Flash flood - (options: thunderstorm, tornado, hurricane)
Storm surge - (options: thunderstorm, tornado, hurricane)
Answer:
it is actually thunderstorm and hurricane
Explanation:
Environmental hazard flash flood is due to thunderstorms and storm surge is due to hurricanes.
What is an environmental hazard?The majority of flash flooding is brought on by thunderstorms that move slowly, move over the same region repeatedly, or bring heavy rainfall from hurricanes and tropical storms.
On rare occasions, ice or floating debris may build up near a natural or artificial obstacle and impede water movement. The unexpected increase in water caused by a storm's winds is known as a storm surge.
Storm surges and powerful waves can cause significant property damage and fatalities near the shore.
Therefore storm surges and a flash flood is an environmental hazards. condition by thunderstorm hurricane.
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Giant pandas use their thumbs to grip and eat bamboo. They spend most of their time eating and save energy by not moving much. They live near streams of fresh water and have no natural predators. They reproduce once every two years. This description is an example of
Answer:
Explanation:
For many years, scientists wondered whether pandas were a type of bear, raccoon or something all their own. But plenty of genetic studies have made it clear that pandas are a type of bear, according to the San Diego Zoo.
Also called great pandas, parti-colored bears, bamboo bears and white bears, giant pandas are distinguished from other pandas by their large size and black-and-white coloring. Their bold coloring provides camouflage — giant pandas are nearly invisible in dense patches of bamboo, according to the Smithsonian National Zoo.
Giant pandas grow to be 27 to 32 inches (70 - 80 centimeters) tall at the shoulder, 4 to 5 feet (1.2 to 1.5 meters) long and can weigh up to 275 lbs. (125 kilograms), according to the San Diego Zoo Their size is about the same as an American black bear. By comparison, the giant panda's distant relative, the red panda, is only 20 to 26 inches (50 to 65 cm) tall and weighs 10 to 20 lbs. (4.5 to 9 kg).
In the wild, giant pandas are only found in the remote, mountainous regions of central China, in Sichuan, Shaanxi and Gansu provinces, according to the National Zoo. In this area, between 5,000 and 10,000 feet elevation (1,524 - 3,048 m), are the cool, wet bamboo forests that giant panda's call home. The large bears make their dens from hollowed-out logs or stumps of conifer trees found within the forest.
Answer:
This is an example of a K-selected species.
Explanation:
K-selected species are characterized by being more intelligent in comparison to their counterpart - r-selected species - saving more energy (being energy efficient), having a weaker sex drive (reproducing less) and the tendency to delay maturation.
A gene is a segment of DNA on a chromosome. How are genes related to the proteins made by a cell?
A.
The structure of the genes in a cell determines the structure of the proteins made by the cell.
B.
All genes in a cell have the same exact structure, but each gene codes for a different set of proteins.
C.
All genes in a cell have the same exact structure, so all genes code for the same exact set of proteins.
D.
The structure of the genes in a cell is unrelated to the structure of the proteins made by the cell.
The structure of the genes in a cell determines the structure of the proteins made by the cell.
What is DNA?DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid, is the hereditary material in humans and almost all other organisms. Nearly every cell in a person’s body has the same DNA.
Most DNA is located in the cell nucleus (where it is called nuclear DNA), but a small amount of DNA can also be found in the mitochondria (where it is called mitochondrial DNA or mtDNA). Mitochondria are structures within cells that convert the energy from food into a form that cells can use.
The information in DNA is stored as a code made up of four chemical bases: adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), and thymine (T). Human DNA consists of about 3 billion bases, and more than 99 percent of those bases are the same in all people.
Therefore, The structure of the genes in a cell determines the structure of the proteins made by the cell.
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Which marked location on the map above would you expect to have greatest biodiversity?
A. Taiga
B. Temperate forest
C. Desert
D. Tropical rain forest
The answer would be D. Tropical Rainforest, this would be due to the abundance of rain which creates plenty of vegetation and then, more herbivores will live in the rainforest, and the more herbivores there are, the more carnivores will come to the rainforest. The canopy of the tall trees also provide shelter for countless of thousands of species of birds.
Answer:
The answer is D. tropical rainforest, this is because of the immense vegetation which provides food to many species of animals, who also happen to be food for other animals
Explanation:
A county has recently evolved from under developed to developed in the birth and death rate has stabilized. This is known as
A. Zero population growth
B. Death stabilization
C. Demographic transition
D. Birth stabilization
Answer:
C. Demographic transition
Explanation:
describe what happened to China's air pollution between December and March and explain why IN YOUR OWN WORD (hint*, use what the video says about cars and factories)
Answer:
The air pollution in china decreases due to less usage of transportation and shutdown of industries.
Explanation:
From December to march, transportation and industrial work is greatly affected due to the corona virus. Due to reduction of activities in both transportation and industries, there is a lot of decrease occurs in the air pollution. We know that smoke produce by vehicles and industries are the main cause of pollution so that's why air pollution decreases between December to march..
Which advancement in technology has increased scientific knowledge of planets other than Earth?
cellular models
microscopes
probeware
rovers
I think Is Rovers they helped explore other planets such as mars
Answer: The correct answer is rovers :)
Explanation:
I got it right!
Simon makes poor food choices and does not exercise. When Simon goes to the doctor for a checkup, his doctor
tells him he is obese What is his doctor most likely concerned he will develop?
A.diabetes
B.asthma
C.cancer
D.color blindnes
Answer:
A Diabetes
Explanation:
3. ¿Cuáles son las dos técnicas utilizadas para restaurar la biodiversidad?
Answer:
Las dos técnicas utilizadas para restaurar la biodiversidad son la biorremediación y el aumento biológico.
Explanation:
Wild-type E. coli grow best at 37 but can grow efficiently up to 42 . An E. coli strain has a mutation of the sigma subunit that results in an RNA polymerase holoenzyme that is stable and transcribes at wild-type levels at 37 . The mutant holoenzyme is progressively destabilized as the temperature is raised, and it completely denatures and ceases to carry out transcription at 42 . Relative to wild-type growth, characterize the ability of the mutant strain to carry out transcription at: 37 degrees A. organism does not transcribe gene, B. organism transcribes slowly,C. organism transcribes a wild type, D. organism transcribes faster than a wild type What term best characterizes the type of mutation exhibited by the mutant bacterial strain?
Answer:Temperature- Sensitive Mutation, C
Explanation:
AT 37°C , The organism transcribe a wild type--C.
The type of mutation exhibited by the mutant bacterial strain is a Temperature- Sensitive Mutation. This is because at different temperatures, the organism transcribes differently ie transcribes at wild-type levels at 37°C and completely denatures and ceases to carry out transcription at 42°C .
Did population B change in the way you predicted?
Population B's change is likely multifaceted, influenced by birth control, education, demographic transition, and natural disasters. Calculations based on the given growth and decline rates of two ethnic groups can predict when their population sizes will equalize. The Earth's current population is around 7 billion, with some countries experiencing negative growth rates.
The question 'Did population B change in the way you predicted?' is examining the dynamics of population growth and the various factors that can influence it, as described in the lesson. Considering improved birth control, education, and the transition seen in societies as they develop, as well as the concept of the demographic transition, population B's change can be understood. Population genetics can also contribute to changes following events like natural disasters, known as the bottleneck effect, where genetic structures may vary dramatically with each incident. Population dynamics are further complicated by factors like new births and migration. For instance, understanding a country's negative growth rate or the shift in population composition due to environmental pressures, as illustrated by the increase in dark-colored moths. It's also mentioned that once certain resource levels are reached, further increases do not significantly affect population growth, highlighting a saturation point.
In the specific example provided, two ethnic groups within a country are changing at different rates. If group A's population, making up 90% of the total, is decreasing by 1% per year, while group B's population, making up the remaining 10%, is increasing by 2% per year, then eventually, unless the rates change, these two groups will equalize in population size. This can be calculated using exponential growth and decline formulas.
The real current population of Earth, as per the given choices, is closest to option C (around 7 billion), while some countries experience negative growth rates. This shows how varied the picture of global population change can be.
In the Virtual Lab, what are two observations you made about how changes in an ecosystem can impact populations?
Answer:
Changes in the environment can modify the amount of natural resources available for the populations to survive. Changes in the environment can separate a population and cause changes so intense that it prevents members of the population from establishing crossings.Explanation:
As we know, changes in the environment can be caused by the manipulation of human beings or even by natural processes and phenomena of nature. What matters is that these changes always provide an environmental impact that can be beneficial or harmful, but will always affect populations.
Environmental impacts can cause changes in the environment that will modify the amount of environmental resources (food, water, habitat) needed for the populations to survive. The reduction of these environmental resources can cause an increase in the mortality rate of populations.
In addition, environmental changes can separate a population and cause an evolution in each separate part to the point of generating new species and not allowing members of each species to establish crosses.
Answer:
Changes in the environment can modify the amount of natural resources available for the populations to survive.
Explanation:
Why do you think the complementary base pairing between the two strands helps cells to detect and
repair errors in their DNA?
Answer: answer is.......
Explanation: Strands are complementary to each other, its mean that if one strand contain Adenine, Gunine and cytosine so on the other strand there will Thymine bond with Adenine, Cytosine with Gunanine and Gunanine with Cytosine. DNA molecules have an antiparallel structure - that is, the two strands of the helix run in ... Replication relies on complementary base pairing, that is the principle explained ... DNA replication occurs through the help of several enzymes.
Answer:
Strands are complementary to each other, strand contain Adenine, Thymine Gunine and cytosine the other strand will also have this just in a different pattern. They have an antiparallel structure, a complementary strand is needed in order for replication to occur, along with the help of many enzymes.
Select the scenarios that describe a biotic factor that is density dependent. Select the TWO answers that are correct.
1.Fir trees grow in number, increasing the amount of food available for moose.
2.Heavy and continuous rains flood the land, submerging habitats.
3.Lightning strikes a tree and begins a fire that clears the land.
4.Ticks infesting moose weaken the moose's health and reproductive success.
5.Frigid temperatures flow into the area, causing hypothermia and death.
The scenarios that describe a biotic factor which is density dependent are: fir trees growing in number, increasing the amount of food for moose and ticks infesting moose, weakening the moose's health and reproductive success. They are considered density-dependent factors as their effects change based on the population size. They are biotic factors as they pertain to living features of the environment.
Explanation:In the context of ecology, density-dependent factors include any factor whose effects on the population increase or decrease depending on the size of the population. Therefore, the correct answers are:
Fir trees grow in number, increasing the amount of food available for mooseTicks infesting moose weaken the moose's health and reproductive successIn these instances, the factor's impact changes according to the population size (number of moose). In the first scenario, more food becomes available when the fir population expands, which would generally allow for a growth in the moose population. In the second scenario, as the moose population grows, the tick infestation becomes more severe, harming the moose population's health and reproduction.
These are biotic, density-dependent factors because the impact changes based on the number of organisms and the factors are living features of the environment.
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