Answer:
Present Value of the project is $3,295,932
Explanation:
Present value is the discounted value of all the cash inflows and outflows of the project. It can be calculated using a required rate of return.
All the cash flows first grew at the specified growth rate each year and then discounted using required rate of return.
Working for present value of the project is attached please find it.
The bonds have a par value of $2,000 and semiannual coupons.
Company (Ticker) Coupon Maturity Last Price Last Yield EST $ Vol (000’s)
Xenon, Inc. (XIC) 6.500 Jan 15, 2034 94.293 ? 57,373
Kenny Corp. (KCC) 7.230 Jan 15, 2033 ? 5.36 48,952
Williams Co. (WICO) ? Jan 15, 2040 94.845 7.06 43,813
What price would you expect to pay for the Kenny Corp. bond?
Answer:
$2,365.02
Explanation:
For computing the price we have to applied the Present value formula i.e to be shown in the attachment
Given that,
Future value = 2,000
Rate of interest = 5.36% ÷ 2 = 2.68%
NPER = 14 years × 2 = 28 years
PMT = $2,000 × 7.230% ÷ 2 = $72.3
The formula is shown below:
= -PV(Rate;NPER;PMT;FV;type)
So, after applying the above formula, the price of the bond is $2,365.02
The 14 years is taken from
= Year 2033 - year 2019
= 14 years
Brief Exercise 23-1 Lopez Company uses both standards and budgets. For the year, estimated production of Product X is 534,000 units. Total estimated cost for materials and labor are $1,441,800 and $1,762,200. Compute the estimates for (a) a standard cost and (b) a budgeted cost. (Round standard costs to 2 decimal places, e.g. 1.25.) Materials Labor (a) Standard cost $ $ (b) Budgeted cost $ $
Answer:
a. $6
b. $3204000
Explanation:
Given:
Product X is 534,000 unitscost for materials $1,441,800cost for labour: $1,762,200(a) a standard cost
As we know standard cost is the cost of producing 1 unit and is recorded in a standard cost card. However, the cost of labor, materials and overhead are used to make a single unit, so
standard cost = unit variable cost = the total cost / the total number of unit.
In this situation, the overheading cost is not gven, so the total cost:
= The cost of labor + materials
= $1,441,800 + $1,762,200
= $3204000
=> standard cost = $3204000 / 534,000 = $6
(b) a budgeted cost represents the total costs
The total number of units * standard cost
= 534,000 * 6
= $3204000
Cleveland Cove Enterprises is evaluating the purchase of an elaborate hydraulic lift system for all of its locations to use for the boats brought in for repair. The company has narrowed their choices down to two: the B14 Model and the F54 Model. Financial data about the two choices follows. B14 Model F54 Model Investment $ 330 comma 000 $ 230 comma 000 Useful life (years) 10 10 Estimated annual net cash inflows for useful life $ 80 comma 000 $ 33 comma 000 Residual value $ 10 comma 000 $ 18 comma 000 Depreciation method Straightminusline Straightminusline Required rate of return 12% 8% What is the net present value of the B14 Model?
Answer:
NPV = $125,237.6
Explanation:
Net Present Value (NPV) : This is one of the techniques available to evaluate the feasibility of an investment project. The NPV of a project is the difference between the present value of the cash inflows and the cash outflows of the project.
Net Present Value of Model B14
Present Value (PV) of annual cash inflow = A× (1- (1+r)^(-n) )/r
A- annual cash inflow - 80,000, r-12%, n- 10
PV of cash inflow = 80,000× ((1- (1.012)^(-10))/0.12 = 452,017.84
PV of Scrap value = F× (1+r)^(-n)
= 10,000 × (1.12)^(-10)
= 3,219.73
NPV = 452,017.84+ 3,219.73 - 330,000 = 125,237.57
NPV = $125,237.6
Answer:
$125,238
Explanation:
Net present value is the Net value all cash inflows and outflows in present value term. All the cash flows are discounted using a required rate of return.
B14 Model F54 Model
Investment $330,000 $230,000
Useful life (years) 10 10
Estimated annual net cash inflows $80,000 $33,000
Residual value $10,000 $18,000
Required rate of return 12% 8%
B14 Model
First calculate Present value of each cash flow.
PV of Initial investment = $330,000
Present value of cash inflows = $80,000 x [ 1 - ( 1 + 12% )^-10 / 12% ] = $452,018
Present value of Residual value = $10,000 x ( 1 + 12% )^-10 = $3,220
Net present value = PV of Initial investment + Present value of cash inflows + Present value of Residual value
NPV = $(330,000) + $452,018 + $3,220 = $125,238
Dimitrov Corporation, a company that produces and sells a single product, has provided its contribution format income statement for July.
Sales (6,600 units) $429,000
Variable expenses 297,000
Contribution margin 132,000
Fixed expenses 103,500
Net operating income $28,500
Required:
a) If the company sells 6,500 units, its net operating income should be closest to __________.
Answer:
$27,000
Explanation:
Computation of the given data are as follows:
Net operating income = Contribution margin per unit × Reqd. Sales Unit - Fixed expenses
Where, Contribution margin per unit = Contribution margin ÷ Sales Unit
= $132,000 ÷ 6,600
= $20
So, by putting the value in the formula, we get
= $20 × 6,500 - $103,500
= $130,000 - $103,000
= $27,000
The Bank of Key West is not going to have enough reserves at the end of the business day to meet its reserve requirement of 10%. It currently has two options to borrow money overnight in order to meet the requirement. First, it could borrow money from the Federal Reserve at a rate of 1.15% . Second, it could borrow money from other banks at a rate of 0.15% . What is the federal funds rate, and what is the discount rate
Answer: Federal Fund Rate = 0.15%
Discount rate = 1.15%
Explanation:
The Federal Fund Rate is the rate at which banks can borrow money from other Banks and is listed as 0.15%. This rate is usually lower than the discount rate as is usually suggested by the Federal Open Market Committee.
The Discount rate is the rate at which Banks can borrow from the Fed which is stated to be 1.15%. This rate is set by the Fed and can be used to control interest rates by either reducing or increasing the cost of borrowing for Banks which banks then reciprocate.
Marsh Corporation purchased a machine on July 1, 2015, for $1,500,000. The machine was estimated to have a useful life of 10 years with an estimated salvage value of $84,000. During 2018, it became apparent that the machine would become uneconomical after December 31, 2022, and that the machine would have no scrap value. Accumulated depreciation on this machine as of December 31, 2017, was $354,000. What should be the charge for depreciation in 2018 under generally accepted accounting principles
Answer:
$229,200
Explanation:
The carrying value of the machine as of December 31, 2017, was $1,500,000 (purchase cost) - $354,000 (accumulated depreciation) = $1,146,000.
Since the machine's useful remaining life was reduced by 3 years, the depreciation amount should reflect this. The remaining useful life of the machine is 5 years (2018 - 2022), so the company can increase the depreciation expense per year to $1,146,000 / 5 = $229,200.
That way at the end of 2022 the carrying value will be $0, since the machine has no salvage value.
Rachel's Designs has 1,800 shares of 5%, $50 par value cumulative preferred stock issued at the beginning of 2019. All remaining shares are common stock. Due to cash flow difficulties, the company was not able to pay dividends in 2019 or 2020. The company plans to pay total dividends of $15,000 in 2021. How much of the $15,000 dividend will be paid to preferred stockholders and how much will be paid to common stockholders?
Answer:
Out of $15,000, the $13500 will be paid to preference stockholders and the remaining $1500 will be paid to equity stockholders
Explanation:
Given the information:
Rachel's Designs has 1,800 shares of 5%, $50 par value
The company plans to pay total dividends of $15,000 in 2021
For computing the preferred dividend, first we have to find out the yearly dividend which is shown below:
= Number of shares × par value per share × dividend rate
= 1,800*$50*5%
= $4,500
Since in 2019 and 2020 the dividend is not paid
The dividend arrears for 2019 and 2020 would be:
= $4,500 + $4,500
= $9000
=> The total dividend is:
= $4,500 + $9000
= $13,500
So, for the common stockholder, it is
= $15,000 - $13,500
= $1500
Hence, out of $15,000, the $13500 will be paid to preference stockholders and the remaining $1500 will be paid to equity stockholders
In October, Pine Company reports 20,700 actual direct labor hours, and it incurs $124,200 of manufacturing overhead costs. Standard hours allowed for the work done is 20,700 hours. The predetermined overhead rate is $6.15 per direct labor hour. In addition, the flexible manufacturing overhead budget shows that budgeted costs are $4.45 variable per direct labor hour and $54,000 fixed. Compute the overhead volume variance. Normal capacity was 25,000 direct labor hours.
Answer:
$18,810 Unfavorable
Explanation:
The computation of the overhead volume variance is shown below:-
Overhead volume variance = Budgeted Overheads - Recovered Overheads
= (20,700 × $4.45 + $54,000) - (20,700 × $6.15)
= $92,115 + $54,000) - (20,700 × $6.15)
= $146,115 - $127,305
= $18,810 Unfavorable
Here, the budgeted overhead is more than recovered overhead so it becomes unfavorable.
At the beginning of 2019, Robotics Inc. acquired a manufacturing facility for $12.1 million. $9.1 million of the purchase price was allocated to the building. Depreciation for 2019 and 2020 was calculated using the straight-line method, a 20-year useful life, and a $1.1 million residual value. In 2021, the estimates of useful life and residual value were changed to 15 total years and $510,000, respectively. What is depreciation on the building for 2021?
Final answer:
The depreciation on the building for 2021 is $573,333.33.
Explanation:
The depreciation on the building for 2021 can be calculated using the straight-line method. The original useful life of the building was 20 years, and the residual value was $1.1 million. However, in 2021, the estimates were changed to a 15-year useful life and a residual value of $510,000. To calculate the depreciation for 2021, we need to find the annual depreciation expense.
First, we calculate the depreciable cost, which is the initial cost minus the residual value. The initial cost of the building was $9.1 million, so the depreciable cost is $9.1 million - $510,000 = $8.59 million.
Next, we divide the depreciable cost by the new useful life to find the annual depreciation expense: $8.59 million / 15 years = $573,333.33.
Therefore, the depreciation on the building for 2021 is $573,333.33.
CarPro is an automobile dealer selling only new cars. CarPro sells three types of vehicles: sedans, SUVs and trucks. CarPro places orders to the car manufacturers only when customers have decided to purchase. The ordering cost (per unit) of sedan, SUV and truck are $18,000, $20,500 and $19,000, respectively. The sales price (per unit) of sedan, SUV and truck are $20,000, $23,000, and $21,500, respectively. The base salary for a sales person is $100/day. In addition, a sales person gets a commission of 5% on the selling price of cars he sells. Each sales person works 8 hours a day. A sales person spends two hours selling a sedan, three hours selling an SUV, and two-and-a-half hours selling a truck. CarPro can spend a maximum of $300,000 per day on ordering cars. How many of each type of car should CarPro sell to maximize profits?
Answer:
14 truck and 1 suv produce 21,800 profit
Explanation:
We have to solve for the contribution margin considering the constraing resourse which, is the ordering cost:
[tex]\left[\begin{array}{cccc}&sedan&SUV&truck&\\$NRV&19000&21850&20425&\\$Cost&-18000&-20500&-19000&\\$CM&1000&1350&1425&\\$Constrain resource&18000&20500&19000&\\$CM per constrain&0.05556&0.0659&0.075&\\\end{array}\right][/tex]
The card models revenue is calcualted using the net realizable value for each card, which is their sales price less the 5% sales commission.
Then we solve for how many truck will it purchase:
300,000 / 19,000 = 15,78
So the company will purchase 15 trucks
giving 15 x 1,425 = 21,375
This will require 2.5 x 15 = 37.5 hours thus 5 sales man (40 labor)
This creates 2.5 hours unsured
and also 300,000 - 15,000 x 19,000 = 15,000 dollar which are not productive
So, we will try to make a better use to purchase the SUV which is the second best option instead of the 15th truck:
giving 14 x 1,425 + 1350 = 21,300
we subtract the 500 dollar of sales man and get a 21,800 profit
with less unproductive dollar. So this will be the answer
What is a common workflow error that can cause duplicate expenses in QuickBooks Online?
Answer:
A common workflow error that can cause duplicate expenses in QuickBooks Online is:
Duplicating any transaction.
Explanation:
The reason behind this is that duplicating transactions is very common because it might originate before the accounting process is made. It can be executed by any manager or someone in the resources acquisitions department. That is why the books have to be reviewed at two different moments from two different departments. Accounting first and then finance. To check that everything is correct.
Answer:
Create a bill to record a vendor expense, and create a check to the vendor for the same expense
Explanation:
Department S had no work in process at the beginning of the period. It added 12,200 units of direct materials during the period at a cost of $97,600. During the period, 9,200 units were completed, and 3,000 units were 25% completed as to labor and overhead at the end of the period. All materials are added at the beginning of the process. Direct labor was $73,630, and factory overhead was $17,910. The total cost of units completed during the period was
Answer:
Cost of completed units = $158,240
Explanation:
Cost of completed units = Cost per equivalent unit × no of units
Equivalent unit = Degree of completion × units of work
Equivalent units of material
( 9200× 100%) + (3000×100%) = 12,200 unit
Cost per equivalent unit of material = $97,600/12,200 units= $8
Equivalent units of labour and overhead
(9200× 100%) + (3000× 25%) = 750
Cost per equivalent unit of labour and overhead
=( 73,630+17910)/9950 =$9.2
Cost of completed units
= $(9.2+8)× 9,200 = 158,240
Cost of completed units = $158,240
Which of the following statements about dividend is NOT true? Bird-in-the-hand theory says that investors think dividends are less risky than potential future capital gains, so they like dividends. Tax preference theory indicates that low dividend payments mean higher capital gains. Capital gains taxes are lower than dividend taxes, and they can be deferred. So investors prefer low-dividend-payments or non-dividend-payments firms. Based on the Bird-in-the-hand theory, a firm should set low dividend payout ratio to increase firm value. Based on the Tax preference theory, a firm should pay less dividends to increase firm value.
Answer:
The statement that is not true about dividends is:
Capital gains taxes are lower than dividend taxes, and they can be deferred
Explanation:
Dividends is the money paid to investors and shareholders from the profit the company they invested in has made within a period of time.
Dividends can be earned from investing in stocks, mutual funds or exchange-traded funds and it is a taxable income.
Capital gains on the other hand are the incremental amount of value appreciation an asset accrues when it is purchased and after it is sold. This accrued earnings is also a taxable income.
The tax information is included in Schedule B, Form 1040.
Capital gains taxes are not lower than dividend taxes because the U.S. tax code gives treats dividends and capital gains the same.
Nelson Industries makes widgets using a two-step process that involves machining first and assembly second. In the Machining Department, all materials are issued at the beginning of the process and conversion costs are incurred uniformly throughout the process. During the period, the Machining Department transferred out 8,600 widgets and had an ending inventory of 4,000 widgets that were 85% complete. Beginning inventory consisted of 6,000 units that were 35% complete. What are the equivalent units of production for materials in the Machining Department
Answer:
12,600
Explanation:
Concept of Equivalent units of production measures the number of units in terms of percentage completion in input elements of the process.
The equivalent units of production for materials
Note : all materials are issued at the beginning of the process, therefore materials are 100% complete in both Widgets transferred out and Ending widgets.
Calculation :
transferred out (8,600 × 100%) = 8,600
ending inventory (4,000 × 100%) = 4,000
total = 12,600
Therefore, the equivalent units of production for materials in the Machining Department is 12,600.
A loom operator in a textiles factory earns $16.00 per hour. By contract, the employee earns $24.00 (time and a half) for overtime hours. The operator worked 44 hours during the first week of May, and overtime is paid after the usual 40 hours.1) Compute the loom operator's compensation for the week.2) Calculate the employee's total overtime premium for the week.3) How much of the employee's total compensation for the week is direct-labor cost? How much is overhead?
Answer:
1) $736
2) $24
3) Total compensation for direct labor = $736 -$24 = $712
Overhead = $24
Explanation:
(1) Normal wages for the week = Normal hours * normal hourly rates
= 40 hours * $16 per hour = $640
Overtime hours = Total time - Normal hours = 44 - 40
= 4 hours
overtime wages = overtime hours * overtime hourly rates
= 4 hours * $24 = $96
Operators compensation for the week = $640 + $96
= $ 736
(2) Employee's total overtime premium
= (overtime rate - normal time rate) * (Total hours - normal hours)
= ($24 - $16) *(44 - 40)
= ($8) * (4)
=$24
(3) Total compensation for direct labor = $736 -$24 = $712
Overhead = $24
1. The computation of the loom operator's compensation for the week is $736 ($16 x 40 + $24 x 4).
2. The calculation of the employee's total overtime premium for the week is $32 ($8 x 4).
3. The amount of the employee's total compensation for the week that is direct-labor cost is $704 ($16 x 44).
4) The amount of the employee's total compensation for the week that is overhead is $32 ($8 x 4).
Data and Calculations:
Earnings per hour = $16
Overtime rate = $24
Overtime premium = $8 ($24 - $16)
Number of hours worked = 44 hours
Normal work hours = 40 hours
Thus, loom operator earns a total of $736 per week with an overtime premium of $32.
Learn more about overtime premium and overhead costs here: https://brainly.com/question/25656547
Explain how the recognition that macroeconomic policymaking is an inexact science affects your recommended policy response to the following situations: a. Your estimate of the natural rate of unemployment is 5 percent, and the actual unemployment rate is 5.5 percent. If you recognize macroeconomic policymaking as an inexact science, you would interpret that the difference is: serious enough to require a policy change. not a measurement error, but not serious enough to warrant a policy change. due to a difference in unemployment expectations. due to a measurement error. b. Your estimate of the natural rate of unemployment is 5 percent, and the actual unemployment rate is 8 percent. Your understanding will be that: it is a measurement error. unemployment has risen above the natural rate. macroeconomics is an inexact science. people's expectations are unemployment are very high.
Answer:
a. If you estimated that the natural rate of state is 5%, and therefore the actual proportion is 5.5%, therefore to understand the economic science policy making is associate approximate knowledge which would possibly mean that you might interpret the distinction as existence of an error in the results and thus it is not justify any change in policy.
b. If you estimated that the natural rate of state is 5%, and therefore the actual proportion is 8%, thus it is given the inaccuracy of economic science policy making, you're doubtless to consider that state has up considerably higher than the expected level. Conversely, you'd not acumen extended it'd hold policy to have an effect on a modification within the proportion.
Suppose there is a rash of pickpocketing. As a result, people want to keep less cash on hand, decreasing the demand for money. Assume the Fed does not change the money supply. According to the theory of liquidity preference, the interest rate will _______, which causes aggregate demand to ______. If instead the Fed wants to stabilize aggregate demand, it should _______ the money supply by _______ government bonds.
Answer:
Fall;rise.
Decrease;selling.
Explanation:
Suppose there is a rash of pickpocketing. As a result, people want to keep less cash on hand, decreasing the demand for money. Assume the Fed does not change the money supply. According to the theory of liquidity preference, the interest rate will fall, which causes aggregate demand to rise.
If instead the Fed wants to stabilize aggregate demand, it should decrease the money supply by selling government bonds.
Answer:
Fall & rise
decrease & selling
Explanation:
The Liquidity Preference Theory in all stated that the demand for money is not necessary to borrow money but the desire to remain liquid that is there will be money is the interest rate Keynes in his definition of the liquidity preference theory stated the 3 motives behind this theory;they are;
a. transactions motive
b. precautionary motive
c. speculative motive
A corporation is considering expanding operations to meet growing demand. With the capital expansion, the current accounts are expected to change. Management expects cash to increase by $20,000, accounts receivable by $40,000, and inventories by $60,000. At the same time accounts payable will increase by $50,000, accruals by $10,000, and longdashterm debt by $100,000. The change in net working capital is ________.
Answer:
$60,000
Explanation:
The computation of change in net working capital is shown below:-
Change in net working capital = Increase in cash + Increase in accounts receivables + Increase in inventories - Increase in payable - Increase in accruals
= $20,000 + $40,000 + $60,000 - $50,000 - $10,000
= $120,000 - $60,000
= $60,000
Therefore for computing the change in net working capital we simply applied the above formula.
Doug Turner Food Processors wishes to introduce a new brand of dog biscuits composed of chicken- and liver-flavored biscuits that meet certain nutritional requirements. The liver-flavored biscuits contain 1 unit of nutrient A and 2 units of nutrient B; the chicken-flavored biscuits contain 1 unit of nutrient A and 4 units of nutrient B. According to federal requirements, there must be at least 40 units of nutrient A and 60 units of nutrient B in a package of the new mix. In addition, the company has decided that there can be no more than 15 liver-flavored biscuits in a package. If it costs 1¢ to make 1 liver-flavored biscuit and 2¢ to make 1 chicken-flavored, what is the optimal product mix for a package of the biscuits to minimize the
Answer: opt value = 65
Explanation:
This is quite easy to solve.
we will take a step by step process to solving this problem.
attached below are images showing the sheet for the formula used to run the program as well as the output(answer).
Let us begin;
we have from the problem that the variables Given are;
Y which is the number of chicken flavored biscuits in a package
and X represent the number of chicken flavored biscuits in a package7
Taking LLP as follows:
Min Z = 1X + 2Y where Z rep the Objective Minimum Function
subject to
1X + 1Y >= 40
2X + 4Y >= 60
1X + 0Y <= 15
X, Y >= 0
(i). attached is the excel sheet housing the formula
(ii). attached is the sheet generating the values
(iii). attached is the Excel solver
(iv). attached is final sheet showing the results
We have that the No of Liver Flavored biscuits and No of Chicken Flavored biscuits is 15 & 25
From the attached result, we have that the optimum solution value is 65
To find the optimal product mix, set up a linear programming problem to minimize cost while meeting nutritional requirements and constraints.
Explanation:To find the optimal product mix for the package of dog biscuits, we can set up a linear programming problem. Let's assume the number of liver-flavored biscuits in the package is represented by L and the number of chicken-flavored biscuits is represented by C.
The objective function to minimize the cost would be 0.01L + 0.02C since it costs 1¢ to make 1 liver-flavored biscuit and 2¢ to make 1 chicken-flavored biscuit.
The constraints would be:
1L + 1C ≥ 40 (nutrient A requirement)2L + 4C ≥ 60 (nutrient B requirement)L ≤ 15 (limit on liver-flavored biscuits)By solving this linear programming problem, we can find the values of L and C that minimize the cost while meeting the nutritional requirements and constraints.
Suppose you have two types of customers. Type 1 customers typically purchases your firm's product in bundles of 100 units, while type 2 customers typically purchase less than 10 units. The cost of producing one unit is $1 plus packaging costs. Packaging costs $1 per unit for small orders, but only $10 for a bundle of 100 units. Finally, suppose type 1 buyers have a price elasticity of demand equal to -2, while type 2 buyers have an elasticity equal to -1.25. a. What is the marginal cost of selling 100 units to a Type 1 buyer
Answer:
The marginal cost of selling 100 units to a Type 1 buyer is $110
Explanation:
In order to calculate the marginal cost of selling 100 units to a Type 1 buyer we would have to use the following formula:
Marginal Cost of selling 100 units to type 1 buyer=MC1= Marginal Cost of producing 100 units+Packaging cost
Therefore, Marginal Cost of selling 100 units to type 1 buyer=MC1
=1*100+10=$110
The marginal cost of selling 100 units to a Type 1 buyer is $110
Michael Perez deposited a total of $2000 with two savings institutions. One pays interest at a rate of 5%/year, whereas the other pays interest at a rate of 7%/year. If Michael earned a total of $112 in interest during a single year, how much did he deposit in each institution
Answer:
$1,400
Explanation:
Let us assume the interest rate 5% be 0.05X = X
And, for interest rate 7% be 0.07X = Y
So the first equation is
X + Y = $2,000 ................ (1)
And, the second equation is
0.05X + 0.07Y = $112 .................. (2)
Now multiply the 0.05 in equation 1
0.05X + 0.05Y = 100
0.05X + 0.07Y = $112
Now solving these above equations
0.02Y = 12
Y = 600
Now put the Y values to the first equation
X + 600 = $2,000
Y = $1,400
Loger's, a high-end apparel company in Bruslon, an Asian country, cuts back on production as consumers start turning to basic products such as food because of the economic downturn in the country. The company also lays off many of its employees to further cut down expenses. In the context of the business cycle, Bruslon is most likely going through a period of _____.
Answer:
Contraction
Explanation:
The business cycle refers to the fluctuations that happen in an economic activity over time. This cycle has 4 stages that are:
-Expansion is when the economy grows and employment is higher.
-Peak is a transition between expansion and contraction and it is a point in which the economy reaches its highest output.
-Contraction is a stage in which growth stops and unemploymetnt rises.
-Trough is a stage in which the economy gets to its lowest point before a rise.
According to this, the answer is that in the context of the business cycle, Bruslon is most likely going through a period of contraction because there is an economic downturn that forced Loger's to lay off many employees.
What benefits do you see to an organization where there are no job titles, no managers, and no hierarchy?
Answer:
Holocratic Organization have no structure this is not possible to manage the work if your business is very big(organization)
A boundaryless organization fosters higher job satisfaction, personal growth, and a sense of ownership for employees, but can also lead to role ambiguity, limited advancement opportunities, and potentially less job security.
Advantages of a Boundaryless Organization
One of the advantages of being employed by a boundaryless organization is the promotion of self-managed teams. By reducing hierarchy, team members can complete tasks and solve problems independently, leading to higher job satisfaction, increased self-esteem, and significant opportunities for personal growth. The organizational benefits include increased productivity, flexibility, and lower turnover rates. For lower-level employees, this structure can provide a stronger sense of ownership over their work. Additionally, the absence of hierarchy fosters a collegial environment where even entry-level employees can provide feedback to directors.
Disadvantages of a Boundaryless Organization
However, a boundaryless organization might not be without its drawbacks. Without the traditional structure of a hierarchy, employees might experience role ambiguity and a lack of guidance. Opportunities for advancement may also be limited due to fewer management layers. Although such organizational structures may satisfy an employee's self-actualization needs, they might not provide the same level of job security that comes with working in more traditional, hierarchically structured companies.
Variable Input Fixed Input Output Marginal Physical Product of Variable Input Total Fixed Cost Total Variable Cost Marginal Cost (units) (units) (units) (units) (dollars) (dollars) (dollars) 0 1 0 $500 $0 1 1 10 (A) $500 $200 (F) 2 1 25 (B) $500 $400 (G) 3 1 45 (C) $500 $600 (H) 4 1 60 (D) $500 $800 (I) 5 1 70 (E) $500 $1000 (J) Refer to Exhibit 21-3. What is the average total cost of producing 60 units of output
Answer:
$21.67
Explanation:
Exhibit 21-3 is attached with the answer .Please find it.
Total cost of production includes the fixed cost and variable cost. Fixed Cost remains constant as $500 in the exhibit, but the variable cost changes with each production level.
Cost of producing 60 units
Variable cost = $800
Fixed cost = $500
Total cost = $800+500 = $1,300
Product cost per unit = Total cost / numbers of unit = $1,300 / 60 = $21.67
A Dutch auction underwriting is best described as an underwriting in which: Select one: a. the offering price varies with each investor paying his or her bid amount. b. investors determine the amount of the spread via competitive bidding. c. the number of shares sold is determined by a public auction. d. the underwriters are committed to purchase any unsold shares. e. the offer price is set based on competitive bidding by investors.
Answer: the offer price is set based on competitive bidding by investors.
Explanation: A Dutch auction is defined as a type of reverse auction that starts at a high price that is gradually reduced by the auctioneer until someone is willing to buy or when it reaches it predetermined price.
Here, the price is determined based on competitive bidding by investors.
Answer:
e. The offer price is set based on competitive bidding by investors.
Explanation:
A Dutch Auction Underwriting is a form of public auction wherein, several investors make their bidding and then, the highest price is the amount at which the offering would be sold. This is a form of competitive bidding among the investors. The auctioneers wait for all the investors to make their bidding before selecting the highest.
Sometimes also in Dutch Auction, the price tag could be reduced, till there is a buyer for it. Once the going price is good enough by the bidder, the auction can then come to a successful end. Investment bankers are the underwriters in a public offering like this and they determine the prices of the items being sold.
Sky High Seats manufactures seats for airplanes. The company has the capacity to produce 100,000 seats per year, but currently produces and sells 75,000 seats per year. The following information relates to current production of seats: Sale price per unit $420 Variable costs per unit: Manufacturing $260 Marketing and administrative $40 Total fixed costs: Manufacturing $770,000 Marketing and administrative $200,000 If a special sales order is accepted for 4000 seats at a price of $375 per unit, fixed costs remain unchanged, and no variable marketing and administrative costs will be incurred for this order, how would operating income be affected? (NOTE: Assume regular sales are not affected by the special order.)
Answer:
$460,000 increment in the operating income
Explanation:
Production = 75000
Unit sales price = $420
Sales revenue 31,500,000
Cost of sales
Manufacturing (260*75000) 19,500,000
Gross profit 12,000,000
Marketing and admin (40*75000) 3,000,000
Manufacturing 770000
Marketing * Admin 200000
Operating income 8030000
Revenue for special order = 375*4000 = 1,500,000
Manufacturing cost =4000*260 1,040,000
Gross profit 460,000
There will be an increment of $460,000 in the operating income.
Final answer:
The operating income of Sky High Seats would increase by $460,000 if the company accepts the special sales order for 4,000 seats at $375 per unit, as the fixed costs remain unchanged and no variable marketing and administrative costs will be incurred for this order.
Explanation:
To determine how Sky High Seats' operating income will be affected by the special sales order of 4,000 airplane seats at $375 each, we can calculate the incremental profit from the order.
Special Order Revenue = 4,000 seats imes $375 per seat = $1,500,000
Total variable costs for the special order are only from manufacturing since the marketing and administrative costs do not apply. So, the variable cost per unit is $260.
Special Order Variable Costs = 4,000 seats imes $260 per seat = $1,040,000
Incremental profit is then calculated by subtracting the special order variable costs from the special order revenue.
Incremental Profit = Special Order Revenue - Special Order Variable Costs = $1,500,000 - $1,040,000 = $460,000
Since the fixed costs remain unchanged, the incremental profit represents the amount by which the operating income would increase if Sky High Seats accepts the special order.
Consider a Caribbean cruise route served by two cruise lines, Carnival and Royal Caribbean. Both lines must choose whether to charge a high price ($320) or a low price ($300) to vacationers. These price strategies with corresponding profits are illustrated in the payoff matrix to the right. Carnival's profits are in red and Royal Caribbean's are in blue. Suppose the cruise lines decide to collude. At which outcome are joint profits maximized?
Answer:
Consider a Caribbean cruise route served by two cruise lines, Carnival and Royal Caribbean. Both lines must choose whether to charge a high price ($320) or a low price ($300) to vacationers. These price strategies with corresponding profits are illustrated in the payoff matrix to the right. Carnival's profits are in red and Royal Caribbean's are in blue. Suppose the cruise lines decide to collude. At which outcome are joint profits maximized?
Joint profits are maximized when Carnival picks $320 and Royal Caribbean picks $320.
Explanation:
When Carnival picks $320 and Royal Caribbean picks $320, then joint profits are maximized.
Nash equilibrium would exist only when Royal chooses $300 and the carnival chooses $300.
However, if both Carnival and Royal Caribbean charge a lower price, both of them can earn a higher profit.
Carnival and Royal Caribbean can collude to set prices and act like a monopoly, which involves reducing output and raising prices to maximize profits.
Explanation:In the scenario presented, Carnival and Royal Caribbean have the option to collude and set their prices to maximize joint profits. Collusion would involve agreeing to charge the same price to eliminate competition and act like a monopoly.
When firms collude in such a manner, they tend to reduce output and increase prices to maximize profits, just like a monopolist would. In the context of a payoff matrix, colluding to charge a higher price would typically result in higher joint profits when compared to both firms charging a low price.
For a perfectly competitive firm, the goal is to maximize profit by finding the level of output where total revenue exceeds total costs by the greatest amount, as demonstrated by the provided example of a raspberry farm with revenue and costs data.
No variable overhead is incurred or budgeted. The expected cash balance at the end of the current year is $3,500. Disbursements other than for direct materials and direct labor are expected to occur in the quarter incurred. Fixed overhead expenses include $1,000 for depreciation. What is the budgeted excess or (deficiency) in cash flows at the end of the first quarter
Answer:
$23,000
Explanation:
The computation of the budgeted excess or (deficiency) in cash flows is shown below:-
Budgeted excess or (deficiency) in cash flows at the end of the first quarter = Cash Inflows - Cash Outflows
=$60,000 - $25,000 - ($8,000 - $1,000) - $5,000
= $60,000 - $25,000 - $7,000 - $5,000
= $23,000
Therefore for computing the Budgeted excess or (deficiency) in cash flows at the end of the first quarter we simply applied the above formula.
Baker Corporation applies manufacturing overhead on the basis of direct labor-hours. At the beginning of the most recent year, the company based its predetermined overhead rate on total estimated overhead of $85,120 and 2,800 estimated direct labor-hours. Actual manufacturing overhead for the year amounted to $86,870 and actual direct labor-hours were 2,700. The pre-determined overhead rate for the year was closest to:_____.a. $31.60.b. $33.62.c. $30.36.d. $32.30.
Answer:
Overhead rate is $30.4
So option (c) is correct option
Explanation:
We have given total estimated overhead = $85120
Estimated direct labor hours = 2800
Actual manufacturing overhead for the year = $86870
Actual labor hour = 2700
We have to find overhead rate for the year
Overhead rate is equal to the ratio of estimated overhead to estimated labor hour
Therefore overhead rate [tex]=\frac{85120}{2800}=30.4[/tex]$
So option (c) is correct
Disney and Paramount are both releasing an animated movie at the same time. Each company is fairly well known, and they are both deciding between pursuing two advertising strategies. Each firm knows that its profits will be affected by its own decision and the decision of the competing firm. The payoff matrix contains the estimated profits for both companies for all possible strategies. Paramount's profits are in the lower (green) triangle of each cell and Disney's profits are in the upper (blue) triangle of each cell. Profits (payoffs) are in millions of dollars. Disney Strategy 1 Strategy 2 Paramount Strategy 1 A $75 $75 B $25 $300 Strategy 2 C $300 $25 D $150 $150 What is Disney's dominant strategy? strategy 1 strategy 2 Disney does not have a dominant strategy. What is the Nash equilibrium in this game? B There is not a Nash equilibrium. A C D
Answer:
we can prepare a matrix to determine the best strategy:
Disney
strategy 1 strategy 2
$75 / $25 /
strategy 1 $75 $300
Paramount
strategy 2 $300 / $150 /
$25 $150
What is Disney's dominant strategy?
Disney's dominant strategy is strategy 1 with an expected value = $75 + $300 = $375. Strategy 2's expected value is only $175.
Paramount's dominant strategy is strategy 1 with an expected value = $75 + $300 = $375. Strategy 2's expected value is only $175.
What is the Nash equilibrium in this game?
There is a Nash equilibrium because both players' (Disney and Paramount) dominant strategy is Strategy 1.
Disney does not have a dominant strategy as their profit varies depending on Paramount's decision. The Nash Equilibriums are where both firms use Strategy 1 (option 'A') and where both firms use Strategy 2 (option 'D').
Explanation:To determine Disney's dominant strategy, we analyze the given payoff matrix. If Paramount chooses Strategy 1, Disney's profit would be $75 million with Strategy 1 and $300 million with Strategy 2. If Paramount uses Strategy 2, Disney makes $150 million with Strategy 1 and $25 million with Strategy 2. Thus, there is no single strategy for Disney that always gives them a higher profit regardless of Paramount's choice. Therefore, Disney does not have a dominant strategy.
To find the Nash Equilibrium, we need to look for a situation where neither of the firms would want to unilaterally switch their strategy, given that the strategy of the other firm stays the same. From the given payoff matrix, using Strategy 1 gives Paramount $75 million if Disney uses Strategy 1, and $300 million if Disney uses Strategy 2. Using Strategy 2 gives Paramount $25 million if Disney uses Strategy 1, and $150 million if Disney uses Strategy 2. From Disney's perspective, we have already discussed. Given these payoffs, we see that the situation where both firms use Strategy 1 (i.e., option 'A') and where both firms use Strategy 2 (i.e., option 'D') are Nash Equilibriums, since neither firm would want to switch strategies unilaterally in those cases.
Learn more about Dominant Strategy and Nash Equilibrium here:https://brainly.com/question/31326030
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