The correct answer is: d. Lethal dominant alleles are harmful whether they are carried in homozygous or heterozygous form, so there is always strong selection against these alleles.
Lethal alleles cause the death (prenatal or after birth, but usually early in development) of the organism that carries them. There are three types of lethal alleles:
• Recessive-both alleles must be defective,
• Dominant-it is sufficient that one allele is lethal to cause the death,
• Conditional depending on the gene or genes involved.
Lethal alleles are usually a result of mutations in genes essential for development of an organism.
The cellular process of breaking down large molecules into smaller ones is defined as
The cellular process of breaking down large molecules into smaller ones is defined as catabolism.
Catabolism together with anabolism is part of the metabolism-set of all chemical reactions within an organism. Purposes of metabolic processes are to convert food energy into energy that is required for cellular processes, to synthesize the building blocks for proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, and some carbohydrates (macromolecules) and to eliminate nitrogenous wastes.
Catabolic processes (breaking down of macromolecules) are necessary for energy release (usually in the form of ATP) which is then used in anabolism-synthesis of compounds that cell needs.
Catabolism is the cellular process of breaking down large molecules into smaller ones, releasing energy and involving reactions such as the breakdown of ATP. This is essential for metabolism and is exemplified in the digestion of food where complex molecules are turned into simpler monomers.
Explanation:The cellular process of breaking down large molecules into smaller ones is defined as catabolism. Catabolic reactions are crucial for the body's metabolism. During these reactions, complex molecules such as carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins from ingested food are broken down into their simpler components. Catabolism not only aids in digesting food but also includes the breakdown of ATP (adenosine triphosphate), which is vital for releasing the energy necessary for various metabolic activities in all the body's cells.
An example of a catabolic process is digestion, where food molecules undergo hydrolysis reactions to become individual monomer units suitable for absorption and use by the body. This is oxidative in nature and leads to energy release. However, not all this energy is captured; some is conserved in the form of ATP, which cells can then use for energy-consuming activities.
How do vaccines prevent disease?
Answer:
Vaccines introduce an attenuated form of the virus or bacteria into the body.
Explanation:
Vaccines introduce an attenuated form of the virus or bacteria into the body, meaning the virulence of the virus or bacteria has been negated. Introduction of this attenuated form enables the immune cells to easily eliminate the pathogen even without getting diseased and later have memory (in memory B and T cells) so that in case of a real infection, it is easily eradicated.
To what extent has the presence of a true coelom in animals changed over the course of evolution?
The presence or absence of a true coelom appears not to have changed during the course of evolution.
The presence or absence of a true coelom appears to have changed exactly once during the course of evolution.
It is impossible to tell whether the presence or absence of a true coelom has changed during the course of evolution.
The presence or absence of a true coelom appears to have changed multiple times during the course of evolution.
Option D is the correct answer.
To what extent has the presence of a true coelom in animals changed over the course of evolution?
A coelom is a body cavity that is formed from the mesoderm tissue.
Option D - The presence or absence of a true coelom appears to have changed multiple times during the course of evolution.
Answer:
The presence or absence of a true coelom appears to have changed multiple times during the course of evolution.
Explanation:
A coelom is a fluid-filled body cavity that is completely lined by tissue created from the mesoderm, the middle layer of the primary cells found in an embryo. It is typically found in multicellular organisms, which are living things that have more than one cell.
In a resting neuron, the inside of the cell is __________.
positive relative to the outside of the cell because the myelin sheath around the axon carries a negative charge
negative relative to the outside of the cell because of differences in ionic composition of the fluids inside and outside of the cell
positive relative to the outside of the cell because only positively charged ions are allowed into the cell
negative relative to the outside of the cell because the myelin sheath around the axon carries a positive charge
More negatively charge than the outside.
Carbon is a very important part of our Earth. In fact, carbon makes life on Earth possible and exists in many different forms. Mauna Loa, Hawaii, is the site for the oldest continuous carbon dioxide (CO2) measurement station in the world. Looking at the data collected, what can you infer is the main reason for the increase in carbon dioxide?
A) Deforestation
B) Rising sea levels
C) Increased volcanic activity
D) More fossil fuels are being burned
Answer: D
Explanation:
As graph shows the most amount of carbon dioxide released from the burning of petroleum, coal and natural gas. Natural gas and coal are the fossil fuels that release carbon dioxide on burning. Petroleum is also considered as fossil fuels as it contains large amount of carbon. So the answer is the graph conclude most of the carbon emission is done due to burning of fossil fuel.
Refraction occurs when light's ___________________ changes. A speed B direction C amplitude D color
Refraction occurs when light's direction changes.
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Which of the following statements about the smooth endoplasmic reticulum is/are correct?
Liver cells are abundant in SER.
The testes and ovaries are tissue types whose cells are abundant in SER.
The SER is the primary location for synthesis of membrane-bound proteins.
Cholesterol is made in the SER.
The luminal face of the SER is the main site at which membrane lipids are synthesized.
Phospholipids are synthesized from cytosolic water soluble precursor molecules.
Lipases are the enzymes that allow lateral movement of a lipid within a leaflet.
The correct answers are:
• Liver cells are abundant in SER.
This is because liver cells contain enzymes that metabolize various lipid-soluble compounds.
• The testes and ovaries are tissue types whose cells are abundant in SER.
This is because testes and ovaries produce steroid hormones (cholesterol is the precursor for their synthesis).
• Cholesterol is made in the SER.
ER is the organelle at which all membrane lipids are synthesized.
• Phospholipids are synthesized from cytosolic water soluble precursor molecules.
Phospholipids are the main lipids that are the main structural components of the cell membrane. They are synthesized on the cytosolic side of the ER membrane, from water-soluble cytosolic precursors.
how does the lymphatic system work
Hello =)
The primary function of the lymphatic system is to transport lymph, a fluid containing infection-fighting white blood cells, throughout the body.
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The ________ are double sheets of peritoneal membrane that suspend the visceral organs and carry nerves
The mesenteries are double sheets of peritoneal membrane that suspend the visceral organs and carry nerves
Thanks to the mesentery the intestines are attached to the posterior abdominal wall. Mesentery is formed by the double fold of peritoneum (double layers of peritoneum) and its roles are to help in storing fat and to allow blood vessels, lymphatics, and nerves to supply the intestines.
The Mesenteries are double sheets of peritoneal membrane that suspend visceral organs and carry nerves.
Here is a step-by-step explanation to make it more understandable:
The peritoneum is a large serous membrane that lines the abdominal cavity and covers most of the digestive organs.The peritoneum can be divided into two main layers: the parietal peritoneum which lines the abdominal wall, and the visceral peritoneum which covers the organs.Mesenteries are formed by the double folding of the peritoneum. These structures are crucial because they help to suspend and hold the organs in place within the abdominal cavity.Important functions of mesenteries include carrying the blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerves that supply the organs they are connected to.Maxwell shoots a rubber band at his friend Jimmy. Which type of energy is converted into kinetic energy?
Elastic potential energy is converted to kinetic energy
After earning an a in your biology course, your instructor gives you a firm handshake. you can feel the deep pressure of the handshake, and it is so strong it even starts to hurt a little. what type(s) of receptor was (were) activated by the handshake?
Answer:
Mechanoreceptors and nociceptors are the types of receptors that were activated by the handshake.
Explanation:
Sensory receptors are specialized cells that can sense and respond to various types of stimulus such as sound, pressure, odor, touch, light, and temperature. Sensory receptors are usually found near the surface of different part an organism’s body. Mechanoreceptors are a type of sensory receptors that detect and respond to mechanical pressure (such as when pressure is applied during hand shake), while nociceptors sense and respond to potential injury or damage in the body.
about 43% of blood consists of red blood cells.
true or false
i think it would be true but not 100% sure
I believe it is somewhere between 40-45% so the answer should be true
Protein synthesis is a complicated process involving dna being transcribed to rna. True or False
➷ This is a true statement. The DNA is then translated into amino acids.
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If a base-pair change occurs during DNA replication, this
is a mutation.
would be a mutation only if it falls in a protein-coding part of a gene.
would be a mutation only if it falls in a transcribed part of the genome.
is not a mutation, because only one base pair has been altered.
Correct Answer: "is a mutation"
This is the best answer choice because a mutation when at least one base pair changes to another.
Incorrect Answers:
"would be a mutation only if it falls in a protein-coding part of a gene"
Some mutations are more influential than others. If this mutation occurred in a region that codes for a protein, then it could greatly influence the structure/function of the the protein and therefore the cellular processes that the protein is used for. Oppositely, mutations can occur in regions that don't code directly for a protein and therefore could go completely unnoticed, making this a bad answer choice.
"would be a mutation only if it falls in a transcribed part of the genome."
A mutation can occur when the gene in transcribed from DNA → RNA, but the process of transcription is separate from that of DNA replication so that makes this answer choice not so good.
"is not a mutation, because only one base pair has been altered."
A mutation can be just when one base pair is altered, so this is an incorrect statement.
Since dogs always salivate at the sight of food, salivation in this case would be called a(n) ___________.
Answer:
Since dogs always salivate at the sight of food, salivation in this case would be called an unconditioned response.
Explanation:
An unconditioned response is a natural or unlearned response that occurs automatically in reaction to an unconditioned stimulus. An unconditioned response does not require learning and it occurs without behavioral modification. From the given question; dogs always salivate at the sight of food. In this case, the sight of food is the unconditioned stimulus. Dogs respond to this stimulus by salivating and it occurs naturally.
A dog salivating at the sight of food is an 'Unconditioned Response'. It is a natural biological reflex not requiring previous learning. Through classical conditioning experiments, Pavlov could elicit this same salivation response (termed 'Conditioned Response') to unrelated stimuli.
Explanation:Based on the information you've provided, the salivation a dog experiences at the sight of food would be termed an Unconditioned Response (UCR).
The renown experiments conducted by Ivan Pavlov used dogs and their salivatory responses to explore the concept of classical conditioning. Essentially, an Unconditioned Response is a biological reflex that naturally occurs without previous learning; in this case, it's the dog salivating at the sight of food.
Pavlov was able to elicit a salivation response - termed the Conditioned Response (CR) - to unrelated stimuli, like the sound of a bell, according to his experiments. This was achieved by consistently pairing the unrelated stimulus (Conditioned Stimulus or CS, e.g., the bell) with the Unconditioned Stimulus (UCS, e.g., food)
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A serious and potentially deadly medical condition with symptoms that include psychotic behavior, elevated temperature, and an extreme fight-or-flight response by the nervous system is called ______.
your answer is excited delirium.
the circulation system works with the digestive as well as the what system?
Skeletal
Excretory
Answer:
excretory
Explanation:
Where would you expect to find the receptor for a nonpolar ligand?
A. One the cell surface
B. Either in the nucleus of the cell or in the cytosol
C. In the cytosol
D. In the nucleus of the cell
Either in the nucleus of the cell or in the cytosol.
Groundwater supplies can be easily contaminated by surface mining of coal. Identify how surface mining might adversely affect groundwater conditions.
A) increased runoff of poor quality water to nearby streams
B) recharge of poor quality water to shallow groundwater aquifers
C) technologies used to control water flow prevents contamination
D) increased runoff of poor quality water to nearby streams and recharge of poor quality water to shallow groundwater aquifers
hint: think about the term watershed
Answer:
its D actually
Explanation:
The correct sequence of sensory processing is
A) sensory adaptation → stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory perception.B) stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory perception → sensory adaptation.C) sensory perception → stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory adaptation.D) sensory perception → sensory transduction → stimulus reception → sensory adaptation.E) stimulus reception → sensory perception → sensory adaptation → sensory transduction.
The correct answer is: B) stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory perception → sensory adaptation.
1. Stimulus reception-refers to activation of sensory receptors such as photoreceptor (vision), nociceptor (pain), olfactory receptor (smell), gustatiory receptor (taste) etc.
2. Sensory transduction-usually sensory receptor is connected (via synapse) with afferent neuron (sometimes receptor is by itself sensory nerve ending): stimulation of the sensory receptor activates the neuron, which then transports information about the stimulus to the CNS
3. Sensory perception-. specific processing regions of the brain are incolved in the perception of different stimuli. They are responsible for encoding of the type of stimulus, its location the duration, and the intensity.
4. Sensory adaptation-this phenomenon occurs when the sensory receptors become exposed to stimuli for a prolonged period, so their sensitivity to that stimuli is decreased.
The pharyngeal-esophageal phase of swallowing is involuntary and is controlled by the swallowing center in the thalamus and lower pons.
True
False
The answer is false.
The pharyngeal phase is the involuntary closure of the larynx by the epiglottis and vocal cords, and the temporary inhibition of breathing.
The pharyngeal-esophageal phase of swallowing is controlled by the medulla oblongata and the lower pons of the brainstem, not the thalamus, hence the statement is false.
Explanation:The statement is false. The pharyngeal-esophageal phase of swallowing, also known as the voluntary phase, is actually controlled by the swallowing center in the medulla oblongata and the lower pons of the brainstem, not the thalamus. During this phase, the bolus of food moves from the pharynx to the esophagus due to a series of involuntary contractions known as peristalsis.
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Which of these statements describing cranial nerves with parasympathetic outflow is accurate? Which of these statements describing cranial nerves with parasympathetic outflow is accurate? Postganglionic axons of cranial nerves III, VII, and IX travel with axons of the vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) to their final destinations. Cranial nerve IX, which synapses in the otic ganglion, promotes secretions of the sublingual and submandibular glands. Cranial nerve VII, which synapses in the pterygopalatine ganglion, regulates nasal secretions and tear production. Cranial nerve III promotes pupil dilation and secretions of the submandibular gland.
the correct answer is accurate:
Postganglionic axons of cranial nerves III, VII, and IX travel with axons of the vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) to their final destinations.
The parasympathetic division (craniosacral outflow) consists of cell bodies from one of two locations: the brainstem (cranial nerves III, VII, IX, X) or the sacral spinal cord (S2, S3, S4).
Answer:cranial nerve VII, which synapses in the pterygopalatine ganglion, regulates nasal secretions and tear production
Explanation:
Which ocean zone receives the most amount of sunlight?
Bathypelagic zone
abyssopelagic zone
epipelagic zone
mesopelagic zone
The zones given to us are all of the ocean zones, which can be ordered the following way:
Epipelagic zone = sunlight zoneMesopelagic zone = twilight zoneBathypelagic zone = midnight zoneAbyssopelagic zone - abyss / abyss zoneSo, as we can see, the epipelagic zone is the one that is closest to the surface. The epipelagic zone ranges from 0m to 200m below surface. This also depends on the water clarity (which influences visibility).
Answer:
C./3 - Epipelagic zone.
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BiologiaMagister
1) Radiation from the Earth's surface is _____.
ultraviolet
short-wave
long-wave
X-ray
2) X-rays _____.
have very long wavelengths
are blocked by the ionosphere
are less dangerous than ultraviolet rays
are not emitted by the sun
Answer:
1) Radiation from the Earth's surface is _____.
ultraviolet
short-wave
long-wave
X-ray
2) X-rays _____.
have very long wavelengths
are blocked by the ionosphere
are less dangerous than ultraviolet rays
are not emitted by the sun
Explanation:
Ultraviolet rays: They are invisible rays that are part of the energy that comes from the sun. The ultraviolet radiation that reaches the surface of the Earth is composed of two types of rays called UVA and UVB.
The answer is: Ultraviolet.
The energy of X-rays in general lies between ultraviolet radiation and naturally occurring gamma rays.
The answer is: They are less dangerous than ultraviolet rays.
Answer:
1) I don't know 2) Are blocked by the ionosphere
Explanation:
X-rays are more dangerous than ultraviolet rays. The amount of damage to the body is determined by the amount of exposure. Bone marrow, se(beep) organs, digestive system, and blood vessels are some of the body parts affected most by radiation. People who work with radiation might develop cancer. Very powerful forms of radiation or overexposure can ultimately cause death. The ionosphere absorbs all but a small amount of gamma radiation and X-ray radiation.
What causes asthma?
A. Bacteria that are resistant to antibiotics infect the body.
B. Particular antigens trigger muscle contractions that make it difficult to breathe.
C. Antibodies and cytotoxic T cells attack cells in the tissues of the lungs.
D. Mosquito-borne pathogens enter the bloodstream.
Particular antigens trigger muscle contractions that make it difficult to breathe causes Asthma .
The correct option is B .
Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition that is caused by inflammation and narrowing of the airways in the lungs. It is triggered by certain antigens, such as allergens or irritants, which lead to muscle contractions around the airways (bronchoconstriction) and increased production of mucus.
These factors result in difficulty breathing and characteristic symptoms of asthma, such as wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath. Bacteria that are resistant to antibiotics infect the body: Asthma is not caused by bacterial infections, and it is not related to antibiotic resistance.
Antibodies and cytotoxic T cells attack cells in the tissues of the lungs: This statement describes an autoimmune response, which is not a cause of asthma.
Hence , B is the correct option
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1. How does the structure of smooth and cardiac muscle differ from the structure of skeletal muscle?
Cardiac muscle is striated, as is skeletal, but cardiac muscle contains intercalated disks. ... Cardiac muscle pumps the blood through the smooth muscle-d arteries, which are then circulated to and through all of the skeletal muscles. Moving the body in certain voluntary ways can either restrict or enhance blood flow.
Answer:
appearance
structure
function
Explanation:
All of the following are part of the core oligosaccharide side chain in the ER except
A) erythrose.
B) glucose.
C) mannose.
D) N-acetyl glucosamine.
E) All are part of the core oligosaccharide.
The answer you are looking for is A) erythrose.
Visually analyze the wells colored with btb, and remember that acids are organized by columns and bases are organized by rows. what specific acids or bases are weak or strong acids or bases? explain why.
b)What is the value of using pH paper as an indicator?(1)It’s color coded and has a key, so it’s visually easy to see.
To visually analyze the wells colored with BTB (Bromothymol Blue) and determine the strength of acids and bases, it is required to observe the color changes exhibited by the indicator in different wells.
If a column of wells exhibits a bright yellow color, it indicates the presence of a strong acid. Strong acids completely dissociate in water, releasing a high concentration of hydrogen ions (H+), which turns the BTB indicator yellow.
If a column of wells shows a lighter shade of yellow or a transition from yellow to green, it indicates the presence of a weak acid. Weak acids partially dissociate in water, resulting in a lower concentration of hydrogen ions compared to strong acids.
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Why malarial concepts called hypothesis?
When Charles Louis Alphonse Laveran discovered that malaria was caused by a protozoan parasite in 1880, the miasma theory began to subside. ... In the early 1890s Manson himself began to formulate the complete hypothesis, which he eventually called the mosquito-malaria theory.
What is the founder effect?
Sampling error that occurs during the establishment of a new population by a small number of migrants
Natural selection that acts on the founders of a new population in their new, different environment
The frequencies of alleles in a population changing slowly over generations due to chance events
A period of rapid population growth that immediately follows some population bottlenecks
The answer is B, Natural selection that acts in the founders of a new population in their new, different environment.
The best option which describes founder effect is Natural selection that acts on the founders of a new population in their new, different environment.
What is founder effect?In terms of genetics, the term "founder effect" describes the decrease in genomic variability that happens when a small group of people separates from a larger population.
The ensuing new subpopulation will eventually resemble the original tiny, isolated group in terms of genotypes and physical features, which may differ greatly from the original bigger population.
A founder effect may also account for why some genetic disorders are more prevalent in some subsets of the population. A founder effect may occasionally contribute to the development of new species.
Therefore, The best option which describes founder effect is Natural selection that acts on the founders of a new population in their new, different environment.
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