Answer:
C
Explanation:
The globin of the RBC is broken down into constituent amino acids that can be reutilized by the phagocytic cells (this can occur in the spleen, liver and lymph node). The chains cannot be reused in their large form. The heme(iron) is transported by the blood to the bone marrow and is used to make new red blood cells.
Which of the following structures would be considered an accessory organ to the digestive system and NOT part of the alimentary canal?
(a) Pancreas
(b) Esophagus
(c) Stomach
(d) Small Intestine
The structure listed that is not a part of the alimentary canal, yet is an accessory organ to the digestive system is the Pancreas. Option A is correct.
The alimentary canal is also known as the gastrointestinal tract. This includes all organs through which food travels once ingested. Which would be:
MouthPharynxEsophagusStomachSmall intestineLarge intestineSince they are included in this list, options B, C, and D are incorrect given that they do form part of the alimentary canal. The accessory organ is the pancreas given that it secrets substances into this canal that then assist in the digestive process.
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The pancreas is considered an accessory organ to the digestive system.
Explanation:An accessory organ to the digestive system is an organ that helps in the process of digestion but is not part of the alimentary canal. The pancreas is considered an accessory organ because it produces digestive enzymes and releases them into the small intestine to aid in the digestion of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats.
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Which statement is not correct about the antibodies?
a. They are protein molecules that bind to the specific antigens
b. They are produced by memory B cells
c. They consist of 2 heavy chains and 2 light chains
d. They contain fixed and variable regions
e. They are also called immunoglobulins
Answer:
b. They are produced by memory B cells
Explanation:
The rapid cell division in activated B cells is followed by the differentiation of daughter cells into the plasma cells. The plasma cells are the precursor for antibodies and memory B cells. The antibodies kill the antigens while memory B cells are long-lived cells.
Hence, antibodies are not produced by memory B cells but by plasma cells.
How many lumbar vertebrae are in the vertebral column?
The adult human vertebral column contains five lumbar vertebrae, which are designated as L1-L5 and located in the lower back region.
Explanation:The human vertebral column includes a series of bones known as vertebrae, which are categorized into different regions. Among these regions, the lumbar vertebrae are found in the lower back. According to the provided information, the vertebral column consists of seven cervical vertebrae (C1-C7), twelve thoracic vertebrae (T1-T12), and five lumbar vertebrae (L1-L5). The lumbar vertebrae are especially crucial as they endure the stress of lifting and carrying and provide flexibility and movement to the torso.
The sacrum is formed by the fusion of five sacral vertebrae, while the coccyx or tailbone originates from the fusion of four coccygeal vertebrae. Overall, the adult vertebral column typically consists of 24 individual vertebrae, the sacrum, and the coccyx, with the lumbar section exclusively containing five lumbar vertebrae.
The manubrium, body, and xiphoid process form a bone called the __________.
The manubrium, body, and xiphoid process form a bone called the sternum.
List vertebral column bones in correct order from Cervical to Coccyx.
Answer:
Cervical vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, lumbar vertebrae, sacrum, coccyx.
Explanation:
Vertebral column or spine is made of a total of 26 vertebrae in adults. Starting from the upper part, it has 7 cervical vertebrae, 12 thoracic vertebrae, 5 lumbar vertebrae, one sacrum, and one coccyx.
The coccyx is made of four fused coccygeal vertebrae. Likewise, the sacrum consists of five sacral vertebrae that are fused during development.
Part of the quadriceps group of muscles
a. Rectus femoris
b. rectus abdominis
Answer:
A. Rectus femoris
Explanation:
Rectus femoris is one of the muscles of the Quadriceps femoris group which in turn makes the anterior and posterior thigh. The rectus femoris, vastus intermedius, vastus medialis, and vastus lateralis together make the quads. Rectus femoris is the thigh muscle that originates from the ilium. It is an example of bipennate muscle and has central tendons. Fascicles are located on either side of the tendons.
How many different amino acids are responsible for making up the thousands of different proteins found in a cell?
3
15
thousands
4
20
Answer:
20 amino acids.
Explanation:
Amino acids are the monomers that combine together to form a protein. Two main types of amino acids are non- essential amino acids and essential amino acids.
Thousands of different proteins can be made by the simple 20 amino acids present in the cell. The amino acids can combine in different ways to form all the proteins present in the body.
Thus, the correct answer is option (5).
Most vertebrae are found in which region?
a. cervical
b. thoracic
c. lumbar
d. sacral
e. coccyxgeal
Answer: b. thoracic
Explanation:
A vertebral column is also called as backbone in human skeleton. It forms the part of axial skeleton. It includes a verticle series of bones which covers and protects the spinal cord. It includes 33 vertebral bones like 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, and 4 coccygeal bones.
On the basis of this description, thoracic region exhibit most vertebrae.
Answer: b. thoracic
Explanation:
A vertebral column is also called as backbone in human skeleton. It forms the part of axial skeleton. It includes a verticle series of bones which covers and protects the spinal cord. It includes 33 vertebral bones like 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, and 4 coccygeal bones.
On the basis of this description, thoracic region exhibit most vertebrae.
The rgion between the tip and the shaft of a long bone is the?
Answer:
Metaphysis
Explanation:
The tip of a long bone is known as epiphysis and the shaft of a long bone is named as diaphysis.
Metaphysis is located between the tip and shaft of a long bone. Metaphysis tissue consists of epiphyseal plate, fibrous and bony component. Metaphysis undergoes ossification near the diaphysis. The metaphysis of long bone of children is more prone to the osteomyelitis condition.
What is enzyme, a substrate and competitive enzyme inhibition?
Answer:
Enzyme: A biomolecule that speed up the rate of chemical reactions without being used up.
Substrate: A substance or chemical that enter the chemical reaction and is being converted into a new substance (product).
Competitive enzyme inhibition: Inhibition of enzyme's activity by binding of inhibitor to substrate binding site of the enzyme.
Explanation:
Enzymes are the biomolecules that serve to increase the rate of reactions by lowering down the required activation energy. The enzyme is never used up during reactions.
Substrates are the chemicals that undergo a chemical change and produce products.
For example, Glucose is the substrate for hexokinase enzyme and is converted into glucose 6 phosphate (the product).
When the inhibitor competes with the substrate for the binding site on the enzyme and does not allow the substrate to bind to the enzyme, the process is called competitive enzyme inhibition. It can be overcome by increasing the concentration of substrate in the system.
Dorchester Company had the following balances at the end of 2018 and 2019 respectively: Net Credit Sales - $955,000 for 2018 and $1,022,000 for 2019. Accounts Receivable - $88,000 for 2018 and $111,000 for 2019. Allowance for Doubtful Accounts - $4,000 for 2018 and 5,500 for 2019 Calculate the accounts receivable turnover ratio to one decimal place.
Answer:
The turnover ratio is 10.7
Explanation:
Turnover ratio may be defined as the ration of net credit sales with the average accounts receivable.
The formula used to calculate the turnover ratio is :
[tex]\text{Turn over ratio}= \frac{\text{net credit sales}}{\text{average account receivables}}[/tex]
Net credit sales (2019)= $1,022,000
Average account receivables = [tex]\frac{(88,000-4000)+(111,000-5,500)}{2}[/tex]
=94750.
[tex]\text{Turn over ratio}=[tex]\frac{1,022,000}{94750}[/tex]
= 10.7
Hence, The turn over ratio is 10.7.
Imagine a self-reactive T cell that has not undergone clonal deletion in the thymus (that is to say, it has escaped central tolerance). If it encounters self antigen in the absence of an infection or inflammation, what will happen to this self-reactive T cell? (select two answers) (a) The T cell undergoes clonal expansion. (b) The T cell gains effector functions. (c) The T cell undergoes apoptosis. (d) The T cell becomes activated. (e) The T cell becomes anergic.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Where does growth in length occur in a long bone?
Answer:
epiphyseal plate
Explanation:
in a long bone, growth in length occurs in the epiphyseal plate.
Growth in length of a long bone primarily occurs at the epiphyseal plate or growth plate. Here, new bone cells are produced to extend the length of the bone. As we mature, these plates ossify and growth in length ceases.
Explanation:Growth in length occurs primarily at a specific zone in a long bone called the epiphyseal plate, or growth plate. This is a layer of hyaline cartilage near the end of the bone where new bone cells are produced, contributing to the bone length.
As a person matures, these epiphyseal plates eventually ossify and the growth in length ceases. It's noteworthy to mention that, the long bones are particularly known for their distinct elongated shape and the important role they play in providing support and mobility to the body.
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As a result of long term aerobic training the body tends to depend more on __________ as a substrate for metabolism
a. fat
b. carbohydrate
c. protein
d. there is no change in substrate
Answer:
Fat is a substrate on which our body depends during aerobic training for metabolism.
Explanation: Aerobic literally means "with oxygen", and refers to use of oxygen in muscles' energy generating process. In such exercise, Oxygen is used to "burn" fats and glucose in order to produce Adenosine triphosphate the basic energy carrier for all cells. Initially during aerobic exercise glycogen is broken down to produce glucose, but in its absence, fat metabolism is initiated instead. The more efficient your body becomes through exercise, the easier it is for your body to convert fat into fuel. Fat allows to sustain our workouts for a long duration to see weight loss, cardiovascular and stress-reducing exercise benefits
Answer:
As a result of long term aerobic training the body tends to depend more on __Fat__ as a substrate for metabolism.
Explanation:
Firstly, at the beginning of the training the body tends to depend on carbohydrates, because it's the easiest substrate to breakdown and give energy.Fats breakdown gives more energy but it takes more time to breakdown, it's not easy like carbohydrates In case of long term aerobic training, there will be no more carbohydrates to breakdown and the body tends to depend on fats to cover its need for energy.Learn more about:
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Keywords: Metabolism \ aerobic \ fat \ carbohydrate \ energy
What is the significance of secreting inactive pepsinogen from the mucosal cells instead of pepsin?
Answer:
Pepsin is an enzyme present in the gastric juice which digests the proteins of the food material.
These pepsin are synthesized as pre-proenzymes or inactive forms by chief cells in the gastric mucosa of the stomach. These inactive forms consist of a signal peptide, activation peptide and active enzyme which gets activated in the acidic environment of stomach by Hydrochloric acid.
The stomach secrets this enzyme in an inactive form to prevent the digestion of protective proteins present in the lining of the digestive tract.
Why would the pancreatic enzyme trypsin be non-functional if it was secreted in the stomach instead of the pancreas?
Answer:
-Due to acidic pH of stomach.
Explanation:
Enzymes are generally made up of protein molecules and work at an optimum pH and temperature. This is because at change in pH and temperature leads to denaturation of proteins that cause change in active site of enzyme.
For trypsin, optimum pH is slightly basic as pH (7.5). So, trypsin would become non-functional at acidic pH due to denaturation and loss of active site.
Trypsin is a pancreatic enzyme that works at small intestine as pH of small intestine is slightly basic.Thus, if the trypsin was secreted in stomach instead of pancreas, it would be non-functional as stomach has acidic pH due to stomach acid.
3. A ribosome is cellular machinery that is located in the ____ and assembles ______.
nucleus; proteins during the process of transcription
cytoplasm; mRNA from the regulatory region of DNA
nucleus; DNA using a template
nucleus; mRNA from the regulatory region of DNA
cytoplasm; proteins from mRNA instructions
Answer:
cytoplasm; proteins from mRNA instructions
Explanation:
The ribosome is an organelle attached to the endoplasmic reticulum in the cytoplasm.
It is the ribosome that helps to make the proteins with the help of the instruction carried on the mRNA. The mRNA is transcribed from the DNA.
Thank you.
Cytoplasm, proteins from mRNA instructions
Further Explanation
Ribosome They are small granular structures involve in protein synthesis. Sometimes they are also called protein factories.
Structure of ribosome
Ribosomes are non-membranous in structure. They contains 37 to 62% of ribonucleic acid and remaining portion of proteins.
Location Of ribosome
They may be attached to Endoplasmic reticulum or disperse in the cytoplasm. Both animal and plant cells have ribosomes. Eukaryotic ribosome consist of 2 subunits larger subunit and smaller subunit which is 60s and 40s respectively
Function of ribosomes
They synthesize protein which is needed by many cellular functions for example respiration and in repairing.
Answer details
Subject: Biology
Difficulty Level: High school
Key words
Ribosomes
Structure of ribosomes
Location of ribosomes
Function of ribosomes
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Most organs are composed of what?
Answer:
Organs are composed of main tissue, parenchyma, and "sporadic" tissues, stroma. The main tissue is that which is unique for the specific organ, such as the myocardium, the main tissue of the heart, while sporadic tissues include the nerves, blood vessels, and connective tissues.
Explanation:
which monomers are most likely linked to form cellulose
Answer:
glucose only
Explanation:
Cellulose is a polysaccharide and therefore a polymer, constructed from many monosaccharides glucose monomers.
True or False. Sickle-cell anemia causes anemia due to abnormal shape of RBCs which may cause them to block blood vessels.
Answer:
true
Explanation:
the shape of the rbc are usually sickles or cresent moon shaped. these shapes get stuck in small blood vessels. which can slow or block blood flow
Currently there is no cure for sickle-cell anemia
Which of the following is not a function of the autonomic nervous system? A. innervation of cardiac muscle B. innervation of skeletal muscle C. innervation of smooth muscle of the digestive tract D. innervation of glands
Answer:
B. innervation of skeletal muscle
Explanation:
Innervation of skeletal muscle is not a function of the autonomic nervous system.
Answer:
Option B. innervation of skeletal muscle
Explanation:
The nervous system is made up of Central Nervous System which constitutes the brain and spinal cord and the Peripheral Nervous System.
The peripheral nervous system is made up of:Somatic Nervous system: It controls the voluntary body movements and reflexes of the body such as sitting, standing, talking, running, etc.Autonomic Nervous system: It controls the involuntary physiological processes of the body such as movement of cardiac muscles, respiration, heart rate, etc.The innervation of skeletal muscle is a voluntary body movement and therefore controlled and coordinated by the Somatic Nervous System.All other options are involuntary processes and therefore controlled by the autonomous nervous system.For more information:
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What is a monosynaptic reflex arc?
Answer:
A reflex arc with single synapse (integrating center) is a monosynaptic reflex arc.
Explanation:
A reflex arc consists of sensory neurons, motor neurons, integrating center, sensory receptors, and effectors.
A monosynaptic reflex arc is the one that consists of only a single synapse in the central nervous system. This means that the whole monosynaptic reflex arc has only one synapse between single sensory and motor neurons.
The metaphyses of a 40-year-old's long bones have?
The metaphyses of a 40-year-old's long bones have appositional growth.
What is metaphyses?
The broad segments of long bones and the areas of the bone where growth takes place are referred to as metaphyses (plural: metaphysis). The metaphysis portion next to the growth plate experiences growth (physis).
Between the diaphysis and epiphysis is the metaphysis. The metaphysis is more vulnerable to osteomyelitis and hematogenous spread of infection in children because of its relatively rich blood supply and increased vascular stasis.
Between the epiphysis and the diaphysis, a long bone's neck is known as the metaphysis. It houses the growth plate, the portion of the bone that develops during childhood. As it expands, the growth plate ossifies close to the diaphysis and the epiphyses.
Therefore, The metaphyses of a 40-year-old's long bones have appositional growth.
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Final answer:
The metaphyses of a 40-year-old's long bones have an epiphyseal line, indicating that the growth plates have closed and the bones can no longer grow in length.
Explanation:
The metaphyses of a 40-year-old's long bones have undergone a process known as epiphyseal plate closure. By the age of 40, the regions of cartilage typically found in the metaphyses during childhood and adolescence, which are responsible for the longitudinal growth of the bones, have been replaced by osseous tissue. This replacement transforms the epiphyseal plate, also referred to as the growth plate, into an epiphyseal line. Therefore, in a 40-year-old individual, the long bones no longer can grow in length, as the cartilage cells have ceased dividing and have been completely substituted with bone, resulting in the fusion of the epiphysis and diaphysis.
A typical human cell is approximately 12.00 μm in diameter and enclosed by a membrane that is 5.000 nm thick. (a) What is the volume of the cell including the membrane? (b) What is the volume of the cell membrane? (c) What percent of the total volume does its membrane occupy? To simplify the calculations, model the cell as a sphere. Enter your answers using four significant figures.
To calculate the volumes related to a spherical human cell, we use the volume formula for a sphere. The total volume of the cell is computed as well as the volume of the membrane, then we determine the percentage of the total cell volume that the membrane occupies, which is about 0.0624%.
Explanation:To calculate the various volumes requested in these questions regarding a typical human cell modeled as a sphere, we start by computing the volume of the entire cell including its membrane. The formula for the volume of a sphere is V = (4/3)\u03c0r^3.
To find the volume of the cell, including the membrane, with a diameter of 12.00 \u03bcm, we first determine the radius, which is half the diameter, so 6.00 \u03bcm or 6.00 x 10^-6 m. Substituting this into the formula gives us approximately 904.78 x 10^-18 m^3.
For the volume of the cell membrane, we must consider the volume of the cell with the membrane and subtract the volume of the cell without the membrane. The thickness of the membrane is 5.000 nm, or 5.000 x 10^-9 m. The outer radius of the cell is 6.00 \u03bcm, and the inner radius, after subtracting the thickness of the membrane, is 5.995 \u03bcm or 5.995 x 10^-6 m. The volume of the cell membrane is then the volume of the sphere with a 6.00 x 10^-6 m radius minus the volume of the sphere with a 5.995 x 10^-6 m radius, which comes out to approximately 0.565 x 10^-18 m^3.
Lastly, to find the percent of the total volume that the membrane occupies, we divide the membrane volume by the total cell volume and multiply by 100%, resulting in approximately 0.0624%.
Which of the following is not true for antibodies?
a. they are proteins
b. they are produced in response to the presence of an antigen
c. they are capable of interacting with several antigens
d. they are abbreviated as lg
e. they are present in blood and body secretions
Answer:
c. they are capable of interacting with several antigens
Explanation:
Antibodies, also called immunoglobulins (Ig), are protein structures found in blood plasma. They act against invading organisms in the body, such as bacteria and viruses. The main function of antibodies is the body's defense, which act directly against invading microorganisms (also called antigens) that can cause various infections and diseases. In this way they neutralize the toxins of extracellular parasites.
Antibodies are produced by B lymphocytes and have the ability to specifically combine with substances foreign to the body, inactivating them. Antigens are extremely specific, so we can say that for each of their types there is a type of antibody, complementary to that of the antigen. Thus, antibodies are not able to interact with various antigens, but only those with which they establish a specific relationship.
The statement that is not true about antibodies is d. they are abbreviated as lg
Which is not true for antibodies?The statement "they are abbreviated as lg" is not accurate when referring to antibodies. Antibodies are commonly abbreviated as Ig, which stands for Immunoglobulin. Immunoglobulins are a vital class of proteins produced by the immune system in response to the presence of antigens, which are foreign substances like bacteria, viruses, or other pathogens.
When the immune system detects an antigen, it triggers the production of specific antibodies designed to target and neutralize that particular antigen. The structure of antibodies allows them to bind specifically to antigens, effectively marking them for destruction by other immune cells or neutralizing their harmful effects.
The ability of antibodies to recognize and bind to various antigens makes them a crucial defense mechanism in the immune system. They help prevent infections, clear pathogens from the body, and contribute to the development of immunity after exposure to specific diseases.
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What is a cell membrane and describe its structure and components.
Answer:
Cell membrane or plasma membrane is the semi-permeable outer layer surrounding the components of the cell.
It is important to the cell as it provides important properties to the cell as it separates the aqueous interior of the cell from the external environment, helps in cell–cell contact, in surface recognition, signaling and transport.
The plasma membrane is made up of different types of molecules like phospholipids, proteins, cholesterol, carbohydrates providing flexibility to the layer so, the model of membrane is known as fluid mosaic model.
The primary constituent of membrane is a lipid molecule called Phospholipids which is made up of glycerol molecules attached to a phosphate group and forms a hydrophilic head while long fatty acyl chains attached to the head froms hydrophobic tails.
It is the fatty acid chains which provide hydrophobic nature to the cell membrane. These layers are arranged in the form of bilayer with head towards outside while tails inside.
Along with phospholipid membrane posses peripheral and integral proteins which helps in transport of the molecules across membrane.
Which of the following might be symptoms of a lesion to the right motor cortex?
a) loss of movement of the left leg
b) loss of movement of the right leg
c) loss of movement of the head and trunk
d) complete loss of bladder control
Answer:
loss of movement of the left leg
Explanation:
The main function of the brain motor cortex is the regulation of body movements. This area of brain controls the voluntary movements of the body.
Right half of the body controls the left side of body and left half of the body controls the right side o body. Any lesion in right motor cortex may cause the loss of movement of left leg.
Thus, the correct answer is option (A).
Someone who has anterograde amnesia would have an inability to remember which of the following?
a) their mother’s name
b) how they drove to work that day
c) the location of the home they grew up in
d) all of the above
Anterograde amnesia refers to the inability to form new memories, so someone with this condition would be unable to remember their mother's name, how they drove to work that day, and the location of their childhood home.
Explanation:Anterograde amnesia is the inability to form new episodic or semantic memories, meaning individuals with this condition cannot remember new information after the onset of their amnesia. This includes things like their mother's name, how they drove to work that day, and the location of the home they grew up in.
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What is systolic and diastolic blood pressure
Answer:
The diastolic blood pressure (80 mmHG) is the pressure in artery measured during the diastolic phase while the systolic blood pressure (120 mmHg) is the one measured during systolic phase of cardiac cycle.
Explanation:
The diastolic blood pressure is the pressure in the artery during the diastolic phase of the cardiac cycle, that is, when the left ventricle undergoes relaxation. It is 80 mmHg for a normal adult.
And the systolic blood pressure is the blood pressure in an artery during the systolic phase of the cardiac cycle, that is, when the left ventricle undergoes contraction. It is 120 mmHg for a normal adult.
If purple flower color is dominant in pea plants, a cross between P generation purple and white plants will result ina. all purple flowers in the F1 generation.b. all white flowers in the F1 generation.c. all purple flowers in the F1 generation but a lighter purple than in the parents.d. mostly purple flowers in the P1 generation, with an occasional white flower.e. half of the plants having purple flowers, the other half having white flowers.
Answer:
a. all purple flowers in the F1 generation.
Explanation:
According to the given information, the allele for purple flower color (lets assume P) is dominant over while the allele of flower color (p). When two pure breeding purple (PP) and white flowered (pp) plants are crossed, the F1 would have all "purple flowered progeny with genotype Pp".
According to the Mendel's law of dominance, the hybrid genotype exhibits the dominant phenotype. Here, the allele "P" is dominant over allele "p". Hence, the genotype "Pp" would exhibit purple flower color and all the F1 progeny would have purple flowers.
In pea plants, when a cross is made between a purple flower plant and a white flower plant in the P generation, the F1 generation will have all purple flowers.
Explanation:In pea plants, purple flower color (P) is dominant to white (p). When a cross is made between a purple flower plant and a white flower plant in the P generation, the F1 generation will have all purple flowers. This is because the purple flower color is dominant over the white flower color. The white flower color will only appear in the F2 generation.
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