The correct answer is; Any equity interest in a non-publicly traded company must be disclosed.
Further Explanation:
After researching the the United States Public Health Service, the one major thing that they must do is disclose any and all equity interest that they have gained in a non-publicly traded company.
One conflict of commitment of workers for the PHS is if they cancel a lab meeting that is mandatory in order to do consulting work for another company.
Any investor who works with the PHS must disclose any new or old financial conflicts within 60 days of discovering them.
Learn more about the Public Health System at https://brainly.com/question/13808335
#LearnwithBrainly
The U.S. Public Health Service's approach to the disclosure of significant financial interests is guided by principles of transparency and disclosure, which are balanced by laws which allow for certain exceptions. Additional barriers like potential conflicts of interest are also considered.
Explanation:The U.S. Public Health Service, like many government agencies, is guided by principles of transparency and disclosure in relation to significant financial interests. This approach is grounded within wide-spread governmental efforts to ensure transparency in order to enhance public trust. While this philosophy extends to lobbying efforts as seen through the Lobbying Disclosure Act and similar regulations endorsing transparency and disclosure, it is also essential to note there are certain exceptions as indicated by legislation like the Sunshine Act. This act allows for exceptions in instances where proprietary data is being discussed, personal privacy is in question, and in instances where information release could lead to financial harm.
Relevant to transparency in financial affairs, governments during the 1990s passed laws requiring banks to display operational transparency and to act swiftly once issues are identified. Advocacy for these transparency laws suggests that an informed public is integral to democratic processes, though it also acknowledges that some matters demand sensitivity and confidentiality. In the context of the Public Health Service, this principle implies their approach to disclosure is guided by a desire to communicate as transparently as possible regarding financial issues, while respecting boundaries where confidentiality is needed.
However, it is also critical to consider the concept of potential conflict of interests. The Securities and Exchange Commission, for example, regulates financial markets and would not be responsive to the interests it regulates, given it would denote a conflict of interest. Similar sensitivity can be expected to be practiced by the U.S. Public Health Service given the potential ethical dilemmas that might emerge from significant financial interests.
Learn more about Disclosure of Financial Interests here:https://brainly.com/question/33019434
#SPJ3
What is prenatal brain development
Answer:
At birth, your baby's brain will have over 100 billion neurons. Considering that he started as a single cell nine months earlier, that is phenomenal growth. Fetal brain development begins in the second or third week of gestation -- weeks before many women know that they are pregnant -- and it continues into adulthood.
Explanation:
Hope this helps!
Answer:
Explanation:
From the first three months of pregnancy also called the first trimester, the brain structure begins to form. In the first month of pregnancy the embryo forms the neural tube, which is the earliest nervous system tissue that then develops into the full brain and spinal cord.
Neuraminidase is an antigen on the influenza virus. This antigen may have multiple antibody recognition sites or Select one: a. Epitopes b. All of the above c. PAMPS d. LPS molecules e. PRRs f. Receptors
Answer:
The correct answer is a. Epitopes
Explanation:
Epitopes are a small portion of antigen which is also known as antigenic determinant which is recognized by the host antibodies which helps in generating the immune response against the antigen.
Neuraminidase is the antigen on the influenza virus which has multiple antibody recognition sites called epitope on which antibodies bind through its paratope region which is the antigen-binding site is an antibody.
Then these antibody binds to some Fc receptors present on immune cells and helps in initiating an immune response against this antigen. So the right answer is epitope.
Which is one of the most common reasons clients are often concerned about confidentiality of treatment for mental health problems?
Answer:
The clients are concerned about people's opinions from their friends, colleagues and anyone who knows them, due to the view of people or people's take on mental illness.
Explanation:
I hope this answered your question very well.
How many women are diagnosed with an eating disorder in the United States?
a. 0.5-1%
b. 1-3%
c. 3-5%
d. 5-10%
Answer:
Based on numerous studies and surveys, the range of women who are diagnosed with eating disorders is 3-5%.
Explanation:
Eating disorders for which the above range applies to are the following.
1. Anorexia Nervosa.
0.9%
2. Bulimia Nervosa.
1.5%.
3. Binge Eating Disorder (BED).
2.8%.
4. Diabulimia.
5. Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder (ARFID).
3-5%
Answer:
c. 3-5%
Explanation:
Lifetime prevalence of binge eating disorder is 3.5% in women, and 2.0% in men (3).
Margo Spencer was diagnosed with closed-angle glaucoma affecting her left eye. She is scheduled to have a/an ________, performed to treat this condition.
Answer:
Margo Spencer was diagnosed with closed-angle glaucoma affecting her left eye. She is scheduled to have a/an peipheral iridotomy , performed to treat this condition.
Explanation:
Peripheral iridotomy is a laser treatment which basically treats close angle glaucoma by creating drainage holes in the iris thus helps unblock the canals resulting in extra fluid drain.
It can also be treated by surgical iridotomy (less common)
There are also a number of treatments including medications but the laser treatment is most commonly used in close angle glaucoma.
In the later part of her first year of college, Lisa is doing well losing some of the weight she put on at the beginning of the school year. Her highest weight was 160 pounds and she now weighs 152 pounds. How many kilograms does Lisa now weigh
Answer: The mass of Lisa now is 69.1 kg
Explanation:
We are given:
Weight of Lisa now = 152 pounds
To convert the given mass into kilo grams, we use the conversion factors:
1 kg = 2.2 pound
So, [tex]152pound=152pound\times \frac{1kg}{2.2pound}=69.1kg[/tex]
Weight of Lisa now = 69.1 kg
Hence, the mass of Lisa now is 69.1 kg
Final answer:
Lisa's current weight is 152 pounds, and when converted to kilograms using the conversion factor, it is approximately 68.9 kilograms, rounded to the nearest tenth.
Explanation:
To convert Lisa's weight from pounds to kilograms, we can use the conversion factor that 1 pound is equivalent to 0.453592 kilograms. Since Lisa now weighs 152 pounds, we calculate her weight in kilograms by multiplying her weight in pounds by the conversion factor:
152 pounds × 0.453592 kilograms/pound = 68.94624 kilograms.
To ensure the result is user-friendly, let's round it to the nearest tenths place. Therefore, Lisa now weighs approximately: 68.9 kilograms.
It's important to round to the nearest tenth, which reflects common practice in recording body weight measurements and makes the answer practical for everyday use.
List at least 4 things to look for that would indicate a dog in exhibiting an offensive threat to you when you enter an exam room
1. Growling
2. Ears pinned back
3. Attempting to bite
4. Arched spine
The city that attracted the largest number of African-American migrants from NYC, 1995-2000.
Answer:
Atlanta
Explanation:
Black migrants moved to the South from three regions of the United States between 1995 to 2000. Metropolitan areas, especially Atlanta had the highest number of African-American migrants from New York, San Francisco, Los Angeles, and Chicago. The top destinations for black people during this period of migration was Atlanta and Washington D.C. Unlike the blacks, the white moved to areas like Los Angeles, Phoenix, and Miami.
The reference material provided offers a historical account of the Great Migration during the early 20th century, especially focusing on Harlem, New York, as a significant destination for African-Americans but does not specify a city that attracted the most migrants from NYC between 1995-2000.
Explanation:The city that attracted the largest number of African-American migrants from New York City between 1995-2000 isn't specifically mentioned in the provided reference material. The historical context provided pertains to the Great Migration that occurred much earlier, during the early 20th century, when hundreds of thousands of African-Americans moved from the South to cities like New York, especially Harlem, which became a central hub for the emerging Negro middle class. This migration was largely due to economic opportunities and the demand for industrial labor during World War I, as well as the subsequent development of a new urban African-American culture and political activism. Key cultural landmarks such as the Harlem Renaissance emerged as a result of this demographic shift, further enriching American culture and society.
Preventing epidemics and the spread of disease is the cornerstone of public health. Prevention is done with the combination of:_______
Answer:
Ongoing surveillance, warning system, clinical expertise, knowledge of history of disease and collaboration with the public
Explanation:
Preventing epidemics and the spread of disease is only properly done with the combination of following:
1. Ongoing surveillance - Doctors must always be at alert and report first signs of potential epidemic
2. Warning system - Warning system must be effective in order to alert as many people as fast as possible
3. Clinical expertise - Doctors must always be up to date with new and updated diseases in order to find the cure, and to recognize the symptoms
4. Knowledge of history of disease - Doctors must know the entire history of disease from the moment of its outbreak
5. Collaboration with the public - Collaboration is the main thing in order to avoid mass panic
The clinic nurse is talking with a client about information concerning a medication that the client read about online. What is the nurse's best action?
Answer:
Interpret the information and explain it in terms that the patient will understand.
Explanation:
With the development of technology such as the internet, our lives have become a lot easier. For example, we can learn about medications online. But often, the information given on the internet about a particular drug would not be understandable for a layman. This is because the person might not have much knowledge about medical terms. In such cases, the clinic nurse can help the client to by interpreting the information and explaining it to the client in terms which are understandable for the client.
A client is performing a standing cable row with her shoulders elevated. What cue should be used to correct her form?
Answer:
This is an exercise conducted to develop strength. It is practise by standing few inches from the machine, knees slightly bent,and repeatedly taking the weight of low pulley cable, by pulling a single handle with one arm up to the clavicle.
The single handle should be well dragged towards the body, lowering the scapualr ;so that the effect of the pull contacts the latissimus dorsi of the back,the gluteus maximum of the gluteal region, the trapezius, and the harmstrings(bicept femoris,semimembranisous) of the upper leg. It specifically reccomemded for developin the muscels of the back( latissimus dorsi).
it is a compound exercise where enough resistance should be applied so that scapular depression and retraction is avoided for maximum muscular contraction.Therefore in this question the subject should depress her scapular so that the pull could be above the scapular outwards for enough resistance to be applied for contractions of trapezius and rhomboids( the scapular retractors).
Explanation:
Answer:
The shoulder blades should be depressed in other for the scapula retractors to be activated.
Explanation:
Morton has type 2 diabetes. His treatment, which includes diet, exercise, and 3 oral antidiabetic agents at maximum dose, is insufficient to achieve acceptable glycemic control. Your next course of action is to:_____________.
Answer:
The hormones plays an important role in the maintenance of the homeostasis of the body. The level of the blood glucose is maintained by insulin and glucagon released by the pancreas.
The improper release of the insulin hormone can cause diabetes Mellitus in the patient. These patients require insulin injections for the maintenance of sugar level. The Morton must given the high dosage of the insulin that works for the long time at the bedtime.
Sympathetic pathways beginning with the neuronal cell body in the spinal cord and ending with the arrival at a target organ. You will need to use the scribble tool in the insert component of word or another application to draw the lines
Answer:
Hi
The sympathetic nervous system is one of the divisions of the autonomic nervous system. It involuntarily regulates the contraction of smooth muscles and the secretion of many glands. Its effects are opposite to those of the parasympathetic nervous system. The most important neurotransmitters are adrenaline and norepinephrine. Its main action is related to a fight response to external stimuli that can endanger the body, so it increases the frequency and strength of the heartbeat, dilates the lungs, dilates the pupil, increases blood pressure, It dilates the blood vessels and stimulates the production of sweat by the sweat glands. A schema is attached to the Word file.
Explanation:
Discuss the key leaders and historical events that have influenced the advancement of nursing, nursing education, and nursing roles that are now part of the contemporary nursing profession
Answer:
At the beginning, being a nurse used to be considered a synonym of being a witch. Taking care of the sick was just an activity that men could carry out and in case women performed it was just because it was thought to be a religious vocation.
During the Crimean War, Florence Nightingale developed the pillars of what we still use nowadays in nursing. Later, when nursing migrated to the U.S some more people became founders of this practice, such as Lilian Ward, Mary Brewster and Lina Rogers. Ward and Brewster created a house to provide the poor with medical care in Manhattan. Obviously the way to provide this medical care has changed during all these years taking into account the materials that are used such as latex instead of leather and giving the chance to our new generations of nurses to attend specialized schools in order to receive a degree.
An off-duty EMT is driving down the road when she sees a major vehicle accident. There are no Emergency Medical Responders on the scene yet. There are only Good Samaritans. The EMT is late for a doctor's appointment so she decides that she will not stop and help. The driver of the vehicle dies before help arrives. One of the Good Samaritans notices her EMT license plates and writes them down as she passes by. The Good Samaritan is angry that the EMT did not stop and help and tries to get the EMT fired for not helping. Which of the following statements is true?Select one:a. The EMT is negligent for not stopping and helping.b. The EMT is negligent because the patient died.c. The EMT is not negligent because she had a doctor's appointment.d. The EMT is not negligent because she did not have a duty to act.
Answer:D). The EMT is not negligent because she did not have a duty to act.
Explanation: This is because there is no 'duty to act' for off EMTs. In fact, EMTs are considered civilians when off duty and can only act when on duty under the authorization of their medical control physician.
If they do, it would be considered illegal and also expose them to great risks if anything went wrong.
I hope you found this helpful .
An off-duty EMT is not legally negligent for not stopping to assist at the scene of an accident as there is generally no duty to act, unless under specific legal obligations.
Explanation:The question revolves around whether an off-duty EMT is negligent for not stopping to assist at the scene of a major vehicle accident. According to the options provided, the correct answer is that the EMT is not negligent because she did not have a duty to act. In general, unless there is a specific legal duty to act, such as a contractual obligation, or if the EMT had created the emergency situation, an off-duty EMT does not have a legal requirement to provide aid. Additionally, the fact that the EMT had a doctor's appointment is not relevant to the negligence determination. It's important to note that while professional and ethical considerations may compel medical professionals to render aid when able, the decision not to stop does not necessarily constitute legal negligence.
The nurse prepares a client for a skin biopsy. which client statement will the nurse report to the health care provider
Answer:
biospy doesnt need to fast
1.ive been taking aspirin for my sore knees
5.ive changed my mind about the surgery
What is not an example of when the parent is considered not to be the personal representative of a minor child with respect to protected health information?
Answer:
In some exceptions, the laws prevent the parents to become personal representatives of a minor child in-terms of having access to protected health information.
Explanation:
There are three exceptional circumstances as stated by HIPAA privacy rule.
1) When state does not require consent of parents before a minor can obtain healthcare service such as state law providing adolescent the right to obtain mental health treatment.
2) When a court decides that some person other than parent could take decisions regarding treatment for a minor or court may make a decision by itself.
3) When a parent agrees to a confidential relationship between healthcare provider and minor patient.
A parent is not considered the personal representative of a minor child regarding protected health information when the minor can legally consent to certain medical services, has been emancipated by a court, or when parental rights are terminated. Additionally, if a parent agrees to a confidential relationship between the minor and the healthcare provider, they may not have access to the minor's PHI.
One scenario where a parent is considered not to be the personal representative of a minor child with respect to protected health information (PHI) is when the minor is legally able to consent to a medical service without parental consent, and the minor or another individual or entity has expressly consented to the service. This occurs in situations governed by law, where minors have the capability to make certain medical decisions on their own. For instance, many jurisdictions have specific statutes allowing minors to consent to mental health, substance abuse treatment, or reproductive health services without needing parental consent. Furthermore, in cases where a court of competent jurisdiction has emancipated the minor, or where parental rights have been terminated due to abuse, neglect, or other significant issues, the parent would not be considered the personal representative in terms of accessing or controlling the minor’s PHI.
Another important scenario is when a parent agrees to a confidential relationship between the minor and the healthcare provider. In such cases, despite the parental relationship, the provider is not obligated to disclose information to the parent if it is deemed to breach the agreed-upon confidentiality with the minor.
Protein requirements per unit of body weight are _______ for infants and children than for adults.
__________ occurs during meiosis, in which chromosomes sometimes fail to divide properly; as a result, the person may have 45 or 47 chromosomes.
Answer: Aneuploidy occurs during meiosis, in which chromosomes sometimes fail to divide properly; as a result, the person may have 45 or 47 chromosomes.
Explanation: In Aneuploidy, abnormal chromosome number is not an exact multiple of haploid. That is, there might be one chromosome left (45) or one chromosome more (47) than normal (46).
Aneuploidy results from non-disjunction during gametogenesis. The homologous chromosome fail to separate during mitosis or meiosis. Therefore, one daughter cell receives an extra chromosome while the other daughter cell is deficient of one. Following fertilization, the resulting zygote will have either one homologous chromosome (monosomy) or three homologous chromosomes (trisomy).
You should exercise for muscular fitness 2-3 times per week. A. True B. False
Answer:
false
Explanation:
You should exercise more then twice a week
Answer:
true
Explanation:
How do health service administrators contribute to public health?
They directly find the causes of diseases.
They analyze data to determine patterns.
They educate people about healthy choices.
They manage the various resources needed.
The correct answer is D; They manage the various resources needed.
Further Explanation:
Health service administrators contribute to public health in several ways. The main way they contribute is to manage all of the various resources needed in the communities.
Here is a few examples of the resources that are provided;
Mental health hospitals and clinicsSubstance abuse clinicsMaternal servicesChild servicesClinics for the homelessIn past years, there were approximately 1300 hospitals who provided free care and services for people who did not have insurance or the funds to pay for services provided. The health service administrators educate patients on the resources that are available for them to use and help them to get the resources started.
Learn more about public health at https://brainly.com/question/12173294
#LearnwithBrainly
A health psychologist wants to study whether a diet of fruits and vegetables is healthier than a diet of meat.
1. Place in order the steps of the scientific method he needs to follow.
These are the steps of the scientific method that this researcher has to follow:
He forms a hypothesisthe researcher has to propose that having fruits and vegetables causes tumors to develop less on rats than those rats that feed on a meat diet.
He has to conduct a literature reviewThe researcher has to read up on other research works that have been done on diets.
He designs the studyThe researcher makes definitions of meat and plant proteins then he plans for the duration that he wants to carry out to study.
He conducts the studyThe researcher assigns rats randomly to either diet of meat protein or diet of vegetable proteins.
He collects datathe researcher does this by recording his findings on the tumors that grew.
He reports his resultsthe researcher reports his results by publishing in a journal after peer review.
Read more on https://brainly.com/question/2352442?referrer=searchResults
Ann is a 19-yr old student who came into the doctor because her scalp hair began falling out and she started developing a fine layer of hair in several areas on her body. Upon meeting Ann, the doctor observes that she is very thin, and, after weighing Ann, the doctor notes that she weighs about 20% below the expected weight for her height and age. Later in the examination, Ann mentions that her right ankle has been causing her significant pain after she exercised for a few hours in the gym on Tuesday. She also mentions that she has not had a period in 4 months. When the doctor s Ann about her diet, Ann divulges that she eats a plate of broccoli everyday for breakfast, a crumpet with fat-free cream cheese for lunch, and carrots and a slice of whole-wheat bread with mustard for dinner.Based on this vignette, Ann most likely has:
The question is incomplete as it does not have the option which are:
Anorexia: restricting type
Anorexia: binge/purge type
Bulimia: non-purging type
Feeding Disorder in Adolescence
Answer:
Anorexia: restricting type
Explanation:
The person develops some eating disorders due to various factors in which the person develops unhealthy eating habits.
In the given question, the symptoms are shown by the Ann like brittle hair, low weight, loss of hair, no menstrual cycle which could be considered a symptom of infertility arose due to the anorexia.
Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder in which the person develops a feeling that he or she is overweight and to lose weight perform vigorous exercise, less eating and low calories intake. This is of two types: restricting type and binge type.
Since the symptoms shown by the Ann are of anorexia restricting type, therefore, the selected option is the correct answer.
the patent length for drugs to treat fatal diseases is reduced to five years, and current patents for such drugs that are already
True/False
Answer:
Hi
False
Explanation:
Since the way to protect the innovation of a product, in this case of a medicine, is by giving it a period of time in which it has exclusivity of sale in the market. The duration of the patent is 20 years from the date of filing of the patent application. Once this time passes, any manufacturer that meets the quality requirements can produce that same medicine.
In some countries, it is possible to obtain a longer period of protection for pharmaceutical products. This is awarded as compensation for the loss of the actual period of protection for possible delays in obtaining approval of the drug for certification.
What are three (3) key points to include in family teaching for a child prescribed methlyphenidate for ADHD.
Answer:
1. Monitoring, defining, and tracking child’s behavior.
2. Positive reinforcement activities
3. Mild and extinction activities.
Explanation:
ADHD is adverse condition that affects children and adolescents and can persist to adulthood when improperly treated. The adverse effects ranges from attention difficulty, impulsiveness and hyperactivity
Methlyphenidate is a medication used in the treatment of this chronic condition.
However, a behavioral therapy is also used in controlling ADHD. Parents training is one of the branches in behavioral therapy.
Key points in parent training by the therapist include:
1. Monitoring, defining, and tracking child’s behavior: This involves reading meanings to the child's actions, comparing present actions to the previous ones, and keep an healthy survelliance to the child activities.
2. Positive reinforcement activities: This suggest parents give the affected child series of parental care, appreciating them when engage in a task.
3. Mild and extinction punishment activities: This enjoins the shun of ignoring the affected child, response delay and abolishing physical punishments.
Low-incidence disabilities are generally more visible or easily observed than high-incidence disabilities.
True
False
Low incidence disabilities are generally more visible or easily observed than highly incidence disabilities. Thus, this statement is true.
What is low incidence disability and high incidence disability?Low incidence disabilities happen less often and greater uncommon in world population of students.
Typically there is only 1% of student have low-incidence disability.
High incidence disabilities are common in world population of student. There is 14% of student have high incidence disabilities.
Difference between high and low incidence disabilities.
Low incidence disabilities are generally occurs low example a student suffered from intellectual disabilities, multiple disorder like visual impairments, traumatic brain injury and other health issue .
High incidence disabilities are common among the students when a student suffered from emotional and behavior disorder , specific learning disabilities and other health issue. So we can day that low incidence disabilities are more visible than high incidence disabilities.
Therefore, low incidence disabilities are generally more visible or easily observed than highly incidence disabilities. Thus this statement is true.
Learn more about incidence disabilities here:
https://brainly.com/question/14566796
#SPJ2
If you felt an itching sensation on the bottom of your foot, which of the following represents the pathway taken by that sensation?
foot, spinal cord, thalamus, parietal lobe
Answer:
foot, spinal cord, thalamus, parietal lobe
Explanation:
Natriuretic peptide (BNP), is an example of a neurotransmitter, which are responsible for conveying different itching sensations from the skin or foot to the spinal cord and ultimately into the brain. When the brain receives the signals from the nerves, it interprets it and further relays the message which appears as the feeling of sensation we do experience.
An itching sensation on your foot travels a pathway beginning at sensory receptors in the foot, through peripheral nerves to the spinal cord, to the thalamus in the brain, and finally to the parietal lobe where the sensation is perceived.
Explanation:The sensory pathway for feelings like an itching sensation on your foot involves a sequence of neurological events. The sensation begins at the foot, by specialized cells called sensory receptors that are sensitive to stimuli such as heat, pressure or pain. These receptors convert the physical stimuli into electrical signals which are then sent through sensory neurons. These neurons transmit this signal up through peripheral nerves to the spinal cord, where it continues to travel to the brain. In the brain, the signal first reaches the thalamus, which acts like a relay station, sending the signal to the appropriate part of the brain for interpretation. In this case, the signal is sent to the parietal lobe. Here, it is actually perceived as an itch on the foot. This whole process happens remarkably quickly, allowing us to respond to sensory input in real time.
Learn more about Sensory Pathway here:https://brainly.com/question/31868559
#SPJ12
What functional groups must be free for a sugar to qualify as a reducing sugar?
Answer:
A reducing sugar is any sugar that is capable of acting as a reducing agent because it has a free aldehyde group or a free ketone group. All monosaccharides are reducing sugars, along with some disaccharides, oligosaccharides, and polysaccharides.
Explanation:
Answer:
A reducing sugar is any sugar that is capable of acting as a reducing agent because it has a free aldehyde group or a free ketone group.
Explanation:
hope this helps
if you can sub to vegangaming on yout_ube
J and K want to have a baby, but they are a little concerned because they both have the sickle cell trait. They want to know what the possibility is that their child may actually have the disease.
1. Develop a Punnett square depicting the possibility that their offspring will have the trait and/or the disease.
2.How would the nurse interpret this Punnett square?
Answer:
1. Attached
2. The have a 25% possibility of the disease and a 50% possibility of having the trait.
Explanation:
1. If J and K both carry the sickle cell trait, that means they are heterozygous for the sickle cell allele (Ss) where the sickle cell allele is recessive to the normal allele. The punnet square showing the possible genotypes of their potential offspring is shown in the attachment
2. The nurse would see that the genotypes possible are SS, Ss, or ss. SS would be a normal phenotype, Ss would be sickle cell trait, like the parents, and ss would have sickle cell disease. The ratios are 1 SS: 2 Ss: 1 ss. This means there is a 25% chance the child will be totally normal, a 50% chance they will inherit sickle cell trait, and 25% chance the child will have sickle cell disease.
A high-school basketball player suffers a grade 2 ankle sprain during mid season of the competitive schedule. After a 3-week course of rehabilitation, most of the pain and swelling have been eliminated. The athlete is anxious to get back into practice and competitive games as soon as possible, and subsequent injuries to other players have put pressure on the coach to force the athlete's return. Unfortunately, the athlete is still unable to perform the functional tasks (cutting and jumping) essential in basketball.
a. Who is responsible for making the decision regarding when the athlete can fully return to practice and game situations?
Answer:
the coach?
Explanation:
Final answer:
An athletic trainer is responsible for deciding when an athlete can return to play after an injury.
Explanation:
The person responsible for deciding when the athlete can fully return to practice and game situations is the athletic trainer. Athletic trainers are healthcare professionals who specialize in preventing, diagnosing, and treating muscle and bone injuries. They work closely with athletes to ensure their safe return to sports after an injury.
The athletic trainer must assess the athlete's readiness to perform functional tasks like cutting and jumping, which are essential in basketball, to prevent re-injury and promote proper healing.
Ignoring the athlete's limitations and forcing a premature return to play can lead to further damage and prolong the recovery process.