Which of the following distinguishes prophase 1 of meiosis from prophase of mitosis?
A. homologous chromosomes pair up
B. spindle forms
C. nuclear membrane breaks down
D. chromosomes become visible

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

The correct answer is A). Homologous chromosomes pair up.

Explanation:

During prophase 1, it occurs chromosomes condensation. The principal difference with the mitosis prophase is that during meiosis prophase 1, each chromosome gets carefully in pair with its homologous chromosome. They do so to make the crossing-over possible, stage where they interchange their parts.

Answer 2

The distinguishing feature of prophase I of meiosis is the [ option a ]  pairing of homologous chromosomes (synapsis), which does not occur in prophase of mitosis.

To distinguish prophase I of meiosis from prophase of mitosis, you need to identify what is unique to each process. This pairing, known as synapsis, is specific to prophase I of meiosis and does not occur during prophase of mitosis.

Here is a step-by-step comparison:

Prophase I of Meiosis: Homologous chromosomes pair up (synapsis). This is followed by crossing-over, where genetic material is exchanged between chromatids, contributing to genetic diversity.Prophase of Mitosis: Homologous chromosomes do not pair up. Instead, individual chromosomes condense and become visible, the nuclear membrane breaks down, and the spindle forms, but without the specific pairing of homologs.

Related Questions

When removing a needle from a reusable syringe, which of the following is acceptable to use:

Answers

Answer:

Hub clamping device.

Explanation:

The syringe cannot be used if it is contaminated with some pathogens. The reusable syringes are used in the hospitals. The needle must be removed from the syringes to use it again.

The different devices are used for the reusable syringe. The hub clamping device is used generally for this procedure. The device must have the increased level of the dynamic stress, high density power and must involve the tight budgets.

Thus, the answer is hub clamping device.

Orlando, 14, frequently twists his head uncontrollably and yelops or grunts. If he has not done this for several hours, he has a sensation that can only be relieved by engaging in these movements and sounds. Orlando has had this problem since he was 8. The most likely diagnosis is
a. Tic disorder
b. Coprolalia
c. Tourette's syndrome
d. Obsessive-compulsive disorder

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option c, that is, Tourette's syndrome.

Explanation:

Tourette's syndrome refers to an issue with the nervous system in which the individual possesses no control over his movements like turning his or her head, creating certain sounds like grunts. These activities are known as tics, and the person suffering from the condition loses the tendency to control their movements.  

An individual suffering from this condition blurt out words, and in place of saying anything blinks their eyes. Thus, in the given question, Orlando is suffering from this condition.  

Which structure(s) is/are primarily responsible for the release of catecholamines?

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - adrenal medulla.

Explanation:

The adrenal medulla is the structure that has the cells called chromaffin cells and the postganglionic fibers of the Sympathetic nervous system and brain. Catecholamines are neurotransmitters that include epinephrine, dopamine, and norepinephrine. The secretion or release of the Catecholamines is from the adrenal medulla of the brain.

Thus, the correct answer is - adrenal medulla.

A student measured the time required for a protein sample to be completely digested in the presence of an enzyme under different pH levels. At which pH are ALL three of the enzymes below the LEAST effective?



a

2

b

5

c

7

d

10

Answers

Answer:

B. 5

Explanation:

Judging from the graph plot, all three of the enzymes below would be LEAST effective at PH of 5

Answer:

5

Explanation:

Seeing a snake, and then simultaneously running away from it and becoming frightened, is the sequence of events postulated by ________ theory. a) Plutchik's the Cannon-Bard b) Schachter-Singer c) James-Lange.

Answers

Answer:

A) the cannon bard theory.

Explanation:

the cannon bard theory is an emotion that reflects that trigger feelings and physical reactions at the same time. in this specific example fear would be a feeling and running would be a physical response. could also be described as fight or flight response.

Seeing a snake and then simultaneously running away from it and becoming frightened is the sequence of events postulated by Plutchik's Cannon-Bard theory. So option A is correct for the statement.

What are flight and fright responses?

Plutchik's Cannon-Bard explained that both the emotions and the physical activities occur simultaneously in some instances. An example is seeing a snake and then simultaneously running away from it and becoming frightened.

Seeing a snake initiates a danger feeling, and as a result, the running starts, which is a physical activity. In such a flight-and-fright situation, many hormonal activities change in the body. The sympathetic nervous system regulates different organs, such as the heart and breathing rate, in such a situation. It also activates muscle functions in order to avoid situations such as running, etc. At the same time, other, less necessary functions of the body slow down, such as digestion.

Hence, seeing a snake and then simultaneously running away from it and becoming frightened is the sequence of events postulated by Plutchik's Cannon-Bard theory. So option A is correct for the statement.

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With regard to the functioning of the thyroid gland, which is an essential element for the manufacturing of thyroxine and triiodothyronine?

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is- iodine

Explanation:

Thyroid glands is an important endocrine gland of the body which release hormone called thyroid hormone in the blood. It plays an important role in metabolism, brain development, and function, muscle control, etc.

The active form of thyroxine is triiodothyronine and the formation of thyroid hormone requires the availability of iodine. Four iodine atoms are present in thyroxine and 3 is present in triiodothyronine. Without iodine, they can not be produced.  

Therefore iodine is the essential element that is required for the manufacturing of thyroxine and triiodothyronine.

If crossing over and independent assortment ceased to occur,
a. genetic variation would decline rapidly, with sperm or ova having the same alleles.
b. sperm will always have the same alleles, but ova will always have different alleles.
c. ova will always have the same alleles, but sperm will always have different alleles.
d. sperm or ova would alternate between the types of alleles they will contain.

Answers

Answer:

Genetic variation would decline rapidly, with sperm or ova having the same alleles.

Explanation:

Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material between the chromatids of homologous chromosomes. It results in the formation of recombinant chromatids that have new combinations of maternal and paternal alleles. The gametes with recombinant alleles impart genetic variations to the progeny.

Likewise, an independent assortment of homologous chromosomes to the opposite poles during anaphase I of meiosis I result in the packing of alleles of a gene independent of that of the other gene. Independent assortment produces some gametes with new gene combinations and the other with parental gene combinations.

If crossing over and independent assortment cease to occur, male and female gametes will have the same alleles due to the absence of any source of recombination and the genetic variation in the progeny would be reduced.  

A DNA molecule consists of two antiparallel strands of polynucleotides. Each strand is composed of nucleotides bound to each other along the sugar-phosphate backbone.

Answers

Answer:

Explanation: The basic unit of a DNA is a Nucleotide. The nucleotide comprises of: the nitrogenous bases, a deoxyribose sugar and a phosphate group. The nitrogenous bases are the purines and pyrimidines . The include, Adenine, guanine, Thymine and cytosine

Answer:

True.

Explanation:

The DNa molecule is made up of two antiparallel strands and complementary to each other. That's because each strand is polynucleotide, which means it is made up of several nucleotides.

Each nucleotide is formed by a nitrogenous base, a phosphate group and a sugar. The heterogenated bases of DNA are: adenine, guanine, thymine and cytosine, and they are responsible for linking the two strands of DNA, since the adenine of one strand is able to make connections with the thymine of the other strand and guanine from one strand is capable of making connections with the cytosine of another strand.

In a particular species of mammal, black hair (B) is dominant to green hair (b), and red eyes (R) are dominant to white eyes (r). When a BbRr individual was mated with a bbrr individual, the observed distribution of offspring was as follows: black-red 1,070; black-white 177; green-red 180; green-white 1,072. Based on these data, what is the recombination frequency?

Answers

Answer:

0.14

Explanation:

the formula is = total of the recombinant gene/total of all the gene

                       = 177+180/(1070+177+180+1072)

                       = 357/2499

                       = 0.14

Small-chain fatty acids can enter the bloodstream directly, but large-chain fatty acids must be packaged first before entering the__________.

Answers

Answer: lymph

Explanation:

Lymph is a fluid that flows to the lymphatic system. When the fluid runs in the lymph capillaries is called as the lymph. The lymph is a colorless fluid that consists of white blood cells. The lymphatic system has the function of absorption of fat-soluble vitamins and fats from the digestive system. The lymphatic system transports these substances into the venous circulation.

Select the three factors from the choices below that determine the size of the actual focal spot on the target anode.

Answers

Answer: A focal spot in the x-ray setup is the area of the anode surface which receives the beam of electrons from the cathode. It is the apparent source of x-rays.

Below are some of the factors that affect its size.

Explanation:

Size of the focal spot depends on

* angle of the anode

Other prime factors that affect x-ray emission; under the control of the radiographer includes;

• Miliamperage-second (mAs)(tube current measurement)

• Kilovoltage (kVp) Controls both the quantity and quality of the x-ray beam with the speed and energy.

• Distance (d) - Related to tube design and construction.

• Tube housing

• Target material

• Filtration

• Voltage waveform

The leaves of a plant are dotted with openings known as stomata. When open, stomata allow the plant to exchange gases and allow moisture to evaporate, helping to draw water from the roots up into the plant. These activities help the plant to:_______a. maintain homeostasisb. synthesize mineralsc. produce light energyd. decompose organic matter

Answers

Answer:

maintain homeostasis

Explanation:

Plants maintain homeostasis in two ways:

1. By keeping their stomata open to allow the diffusion of gases so that photosynthesis reaction takes place in the organisms.

2. By maintaining the water content in plants by evaporating the excess amount of water through leaf stomata. The loss of water is own of the cause of the transpirational pull in the plants.

Thus, plants maintain their homeostasis by these two mechanisms.

A researcher studying a group of individuals of the same species living and interacting in a shared environment is said to be working at the level of a ______

Answers

Answer:

the answer is " POPULATION".

Explanation:

A population is a group of individuals of same species living and inhabiting the same environment. in other words : All the inhabitants of a particular space forms a population in which the species interbreed.

so the correct answer is POPULATION.

Calculate the calories for a flour tortilla that contains 3 grams of fat, 2 grams of protein, and 17 grams of carbohydrate.

Answers

Answer: 103 calories

Explanation:

We know that carbohydrates contain 4 calories per gram, protein contains 4 calories per gram, and fat contains 9 calories per gram.

Given : A flour tortilla contains : 3 grams of fat, 2 grams of protein, and 17 grams of carbohydrate.

calories in 3 grams of fat = 3 x 9 = 27 calories.

calories in 2 grams of protein = 2 x 4= 8 calories.

calories in 17 grams of carbohydrate = 17 x 4 = 68 calories

Then , the total number of calories in flour tortilla will be

= calories in 3 grams of fat+ calories in 2 grams of protein +calories in 17 grams of carbohydrate

= 27+ 8+68 calories.

=103 calories.

Hence, there are 103 calories for a flour tortilla that contains 3 grams of fat, 2 grams of protein, and 17 grams of carbohydrate.

Final answer:

To calculate the calories in a flour tortilla, multiply the grams of each macronutrient by the number of calories per gram for that nutrient. Then, add up the calories from each macronutrient to find the total calories.

Explanation:

To calculate the calories in a flour tortilla, we need to know the number of calories per gram for each macronutrient. Fat contains 9 calories per gram, protein contains 4 calories per gram, and carbohydrates contain 4 calories per gram.

Given that the tortilla contains 3 grams of fat, 2 grams of protein, and 17 grams of carbohydrates, we can calculate the total calories as:
Calories from fat = 3 grams x 9 calories/gram = 27 calories

Calories from protein = 2 grams x 4 calories/gram = 8 calories
Calories from carbohydrates = 17 grams x 4 calories/gram = 68 calories
Total calories = calories from fat + calories from protein + calories from carbohydrates = 27 calories + 8 calories + 68 calories = 103 calories

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Module Two

a.According to the phylogenetic tree in this virtual lab, all anole lizards (genus Anolis) are more closely related to one another than they are to Leiocephalus carinatus.i.True
b.Anolis cristatellus is more closely related to Anolis occultus than it is to Anolis evermanni.i.False
c.Based on this phylogeny, do lizards of the same body type tend to be more closelyrelated to one another than to lizards of different body types?i.No
d.In general, are lizards on the same island more closely related to one another than to similar-looking lizards from other islands?i.Yes
e.The tree is more consistent with which of the following hypotheses:i.The same types of anole lizards evolved independently on each of the islands.

Answers

Answer:

Please read the explanation seeing the phylogeny attatched

Explanation:

a. is true. When you read a phylogeny you do it from tips to roots, tips that are close together come from the same node. All Anolis come from the same node, and Anolis genus and Leiocephalus genus share a common ancestor more distant than all Anolis.

b. If you see the tree, A. cristellatus and A. evermanni share a common ancestor, and the group that contains A. cristellatus and A. evermanni, share a common ancestor with A. occulatus. So A. cristellatus and A. evermanni are closely related among them than with A. occulatus

c and d. In the figure with colors, if lizards of the same body are closely related to each other than to lizards of different body types, your phylogeny should be colored by body shape. If not, your phylogeny should be colored by island (I use another group phylogeny to illustrate, but you should see the patterns on you phylogeny)

Final answer:

According to the phylogenetic tree in this lab, anole lizards are more closely related to one another than to Leiocephalus carinatus(true).Anolis cristatellus is not more closely related to Anolis occultus than to Anolis evermanni. Lizards on the same island are generally more closely related to each other than to similar-looking lizards from other islands.

Explanation:

a. True: According to the phylogenetic tree, all anole lizards (genus Anolis) are more closely related to one another than to Leiocephalus carinatus.

b. False: Anolis cristatellus is not more closely related to Anolis occultus than to Anolis evermanni based on the tree.

c. No: The phylogeny does not suggest that lizards of the same body type are more closely related to one another.

d. Yes: In general, lizards on the same island are more closely related to one another than to similar-looking lizards from other islands.

e. The tree is more consistent with the hypothesis: 'The same types of anole lizards evolved independently on each of the islands.'

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A stroke victim may be alert but suffering from aphasia. Which of the following describes this condition?

Answers

Answer:

Loss of speech

Explanation:

Aphasia is a language and communication disorder that is common in stroke patients. It is often caused by an injury to the brain, but it is not limited to a stroke. It can also be caused by a head trauma, neurological illness and/or brain tumor.

Aphasia can come in different forms of speech impediment. Sometimes the affected will experience difficulty putting words together, or won't be able to associate things/persons with their names, or cannot read all of a sudden. At times, they come in combination of these problems.

Answer:

Loss of speech.

Explanation:

Life insurance could alleviate estate problems caused by

Answers

Answer:

lack of liquidity

Explanation:

Estate is nothing but an individual's total sum of financial assets and liabilities at the time of his death.

Now the estate  problems caused by lack of liquidity can be alleviated with the help of life insurance. Insurance will provide the required liquidity for the time. As selling of estate to get proper price might take sum time.

Which cellular component would be responsible for the classic shape of a red blood cell?

Answers

The question is incomplete as it does not have the options which are-

nucleus cytoskeleton lysosome mitochondria

Answer:

The correct answer will be- cytoskeleton

Explanation:

The shape of the red blood cell is "biconcave" which could be due to the elasticity or bending property of the cell membrane.  

Also, the shape of the red blood cells is maintained by the "cytoskeletal structures" like microtubules, intermediate filaments and the actin filaments. These structures help determine and maintain the shape of the cell.

Thus, the cytoskeleton is the correct answer.

A scientist was studying the effects of oil contamination on ocean seaweed. He believed that oil runoff from storm drains would keep seaweed from growing normally. He had two large aquarium tanks of equal size. He kept the amount of dissolved oxygen and the water temperature the same in each tank. He added some motor oil to one tank but not to the other. He then measured the growth of seaweed plants in each tank. In the tank with no oil, the average growth was 2.57cm/day. The average growth of the seaweed in the tank with oil was 2.37cm/day. Based on this experiment, answer the following questions:

What was the question that the scientist started with?
What was his hypothesis?
Identify the independent variable.
Identify the dependent variable.
Identify the control(s).
What did the data show

Answers

Answer:

What was the question that the scientist started with?

What affect does oil contamination have on ocean seaweed?

What was his hypothesis?

His hypothesis is that oil run off would keep seaweed from growing normally.

Identify the independent variable.

The oil.

Identify the dependent variable.

The ocean seaweed.

Identify the control(s).

The water.

What did the data show

The data showed that oil contamination in water does in fact have an affect on ocean seaweed. The plant in water without water grew .20 more centimeters than the plant in the oil contaminated water.

Brainliest please?

Question:

Does ocean contamination with oil can negatively effects the growth of ocean seaweed?

Hypothesis:

According to his believe the hypothesis should be:  Oil runoff is effective in increasing the growth of seaweed.  

Independent variable:

Independent variable is the variable which can be changed in an experiment. Here, the independent variable is the oil whose effect is to be observed on the growth of seaweed.

Dependent variable:

The dependent variable is the outcome of the experiment it changes with the effect of the independent variable. Here, the dependent variable is growth of the seaweed with the effect of oil.

Control(s):

Control is a specimen in the experiment which is kept as a benchmark for comparison and no experiment is done on it.

Here, the tank in which only water was used to observe the growth of seaweed is the control.

Data:

The data shows that the oil is not responsible for enhancing the growth of seaweed instead the tank with only water content was helpful for raising the plants with greater growth as on the other one having water and motor oil both.

Hence, it can be stated that the scientist hypothesis is false and the oil runoff can inhibit the growth of the seaweed rather than increasing its growth.

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Free-running rhythms are those that occur in environments devoid of __________________ .

Answers

Answer:

Free running rhythms

Explanation:

Free running or Circadian rhythms are independent rhythms

that strive when the organism environment is unprovided with necesaary time cues such as constant light by switching on or off the genes that influence the molecular structure of biological clocks.

Which of the following represents the correct order of anatomical structures in the nephron?
A) glomerulus, proximal convoluted tubules, loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubules
B) proximal convoluted tubules, loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubules, glomerulus
C) glomerulus, distal convoluted tubules, loop of Henle, proximal convoluted tubules
D) distal convoluted tubules, glomerulus, proximal convoluted tubules, loop of Henle
E) glomerulus, loop of Henle, proximal convoluted tubules, distal convoluted tubules

Answers

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

The structural and functional unit of kidney is nephrons. They are present in huge numbers in the kidney that helps in filtration of the blood in the body.

The anatomical structure of the nephron is made of different parts. The structure in the nephrons are in the order as follows.

The first is proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle and then distal convulated tubule and finally the glomerulus. These structures combinely helps in the purification of blood.

The correct order of the anatomical structures in the nephron is glomerulus, proximal convoluted tubules, the loop of Henle and distal convoluted tubules (Option A).

A nephron is the functional and structural unit of the kidney that acts to generate urine and thus removes waste from the blood.

The glomerulus refers to the network of small blood vessels found at the beginning of a nephron.

The distal convoluted tubule refers to the tubule between the loop of Henle and the collecting tubule.

The loop of Henle is a U-shaped part of the nephron tubule that acts to conduct the urine.

In conclusion, the correct order of the anatomical structures in the nephron is glomerulus, proximal convoluted tubules, the loop of Henle and distal convoluted tubules (Option A).

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A diploid human cell normally has 23 pairs of homologous chromosomes, but as a woman ages, the chances of nondisjunction increase. Imagine that a gamete is produced in which the two homologues of chromosome 21 have failed to separate. If the gamete is fertilized with a normal sperm, the embryo’s cells will contain _______ chromosomes.a. 23
b. 24
c. 46
d. 45
e. 47

Answers

Answer:

e. 47

Explanation:

The situation is called Regular Trisomy 21. Its associated with with Down's syndrome. This is due to uneven division of the chromosomes (non-disjunction) at either the first or the second meiotic division, in either parent.

In this case, the individual has an extra chromosome 21 in every cell resulting in 47 chromosomes instead of the usual 46.

This condition results from unusual cell division which yielded either an egg or a sperm with 24 chromosomes instead of regular 23. When this egg or sperm fuses with regular egg or sperm, the first cell of the developing baby will be 47 chromosomes instead of 46 resulting in a baby with 47 chromosomes.

Genetically modified organisms are created by A. Inserting chemical pesticides into embryos to improve pest or disease resistance.B. Inserting pieces of DNA, which will result in pest or disease resistance in a crop.C. Injecting growth hormones into seeds or pregnant animals.D. Cloning of good producersto make millions of offspring.

Answers

Answer:

Genetically modified organisms are created by

B. Inserting pieces of DNA, which will result in pest or disease resistance in a crop.

Explanation:

A genetically modified organism (GMO) is an organism in which the genetic material has been changed using techniques of genetic engineering . Genes have been transferred within the same species, across species (creating transgenic organisms) and even across kingdoms. New genes can be introduced, or endogenous genes can be enhanced, altered or knocked out.

Creating a genetically modified organism is a long process. The gene that genetic engineers wish to insert into the host organism must be isolated and fused it with other genetic elements. A number of techniques are available for inserting the isolated gene into the host genome. Recent advancements using genome editing techniques like  CRISPR-Cas9 that can be used to edit genes within organisms have made the production of GMO's much easier.

How do eukaryotic plants obtain energy at night to maintain sufficiently high levels of ATP?

Answers

Answer: The plants get energy by the help of the process known as photosynthesis.

At night the plants rely on the process of glycolysis and mitochondrial respiration to generate the ATP for the cellular processes.

The process of glycolysis can be defined as the the breakdown of carbohydrates into pyruvate and the release of ATP for the cellular process.

The mitochondrial reactions can be defined as the set of metabolic reactions to convert energy stored in the macronutrients to ATP.

This is how the eukaryotic plants get sufficient amount of energy at night.

In classical conditioning, if the conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus, what will likely occur?
A. stimulus generalizationB. stimulus discriminationC. extinctionD. spontaneous recovery

Answers

Answer:

C - Extinction

Explanation:

Extinction is the gradual removal or cessation of a learned behavior. It usually occurs when the behavior is not reinforced.

Classical conditioning can be defined as a process in which a conditioned stimulus becomes paired with an unrelated unconditioned stimulus in order to elicit a conditioned response (behavior) from the subject.

It was a process incepted by Ivan Pavlov.

In classical conditioning, if the conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus, the conditioned response is gradually eroded until it becomes extinct and forgotten.

Final answer:

In classical conditioning, if the conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus, extinction will likely occur.

option c is correct

Explanation:

In classical conditioning, if the conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus, extinction will likely occur.

Extinction refers to the gradual weakening and eventual disappearance of the conditioned response when the conditioned stimulus is no longer paired with the unconditioned stimulus. This occurs because the conditioned stimulus no longer predicts the unconditioned stimulus, and the learned association weakens over time.

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The original source of genetic variation that serves as the raw material for evolution is ________.
(a) mutation
(b) genetic drift
(c) gene flow
(d) sexual recombination
(e) random fertilization

Answers

Answer:

(a) mutation  

Explanation:

A mutation is defined as a change in an individual's DNA, these mutations can be transmited in gametes and therefore they modify the gene pool of a population, over long time the accumulation of these mutation can lead to evolution.

I hope you find this information useful and interesting! Good luck!

Species A and B are lizards that eat insects. The figures at right show the preferred prey size of each species for populations living on Islands 1, 2, and 3. Determine if each of the statements below is true of these species on these islands.


A. In allopatry, species A and B eat mostly the same prey
B. In sympatry, resource partitioning has occurred
C. In sympatry, species A and B diverge in prey choice
D. Competition between species A and B affects prey choice on different islands
E. Character displacement has decreased competition between species A and species B in allopatry

Answers

Answer:

except option D all other options are true

Explanation:

Two species are said to be living in sympatric association when they live in the same area and very rarely cross with each other. However, allopatric species live in two distinct geographic areas and hence do not interact with each other. In both sympatric and allopatric case, the species do not affect the habitat, food or any other biological habit as there in no competition between the two species.  

Thus, except option D all other options are true.  

Exposing inner mitochondrial membranes to ultrasonic vibrations will disrupt the membranes. However, the fragments will reseal "inside out." The little vesicles that result can still transfer electrons from NADH to oxygen and synthesize ATP.
These inside-out membrane vesicles will _____.
A) become acidic inside the vesicles when NADH is added
B) become alkaline inside the vesicles when NADH is added
C) make ATP from ADP and Pi if transferred to a pH 4 buffered solution after incubation in a pH 7 buffered solution
D) hydrolyze ATP to pump protons out of the interior of the vesicle to the exterior

Answers

Answer:B

Explanation:

This is Because Plasma membranes purified from human red cells were Converted into small vesicles by disruption in alkaline buffer of low ionic strength. Therefore, Most of these vesicles were inside-out.

Bile is produced by the __________ but stored in the __________.
A) liver; pancreasB) gallbladder; liverC) liver; gallbladderD) small intestine; pancreasE) gallbladder; pancreas

Answers

Answer: option C) liver; gallbladder

Explanation:

Bile is derived from the degradation of Cholesterol, a vital component of cell membranes. This Cholesterol is produced in the Liver; so bile as well is produced in the Liver.

Once produced, bile is transported through the bile duct to the Gall bladder, where it is stored until when needed for fat digestion.

Therefore, Bile is produced by the LIVER but stored in the GALL BLADDER.

Answer:

D

Explanation:

About 45 to 60 minutes after LTP, all of the following occur among dendritic spines EXCEPT ______.
a. partial bridging of the cleft
b. appearance of more AMPA receptors that are transported from the dendrites
c. enlargement or splitting to become separate spines
d. pruning of those that were not used in the process

Answers

Answer:

Pruning of those that were not used in the process.

Explanation:

LTP (long-term potentiation) may be defined as the strengthening of the synapse that are mainly based on the recent pattern activity. They are mainly based on the synaptic activity.

This LTP also denotes the phenomena of the synaptic plasticity. Dedndritic spines shows the LTP. The binding of the cleft occurs at the synaptoc end and the transfer of the receptor strength increases. Different spines amy form during the LTP. The pruning do not occur even if they are not in use.

Thus, the correct answer is option (d).

Other Questions
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