Answer:
Option-(B,C):Ether-linked lipids, and Membrane mono-layers,
Explanation:
Archaeal cell membrane:The archaeal cell membrane is able to resist any severe environmental factors, as the cell is able to live in the most extreme conditions of temperature and are able to perform there various cellular function in such way just because of having a double protective structure in there cell wall or membrane. As the fatty acids present inside the membrane are in connection to the outer lipid molecules(lipids) present in the archaeal cell membrane.
Answer:
Ether-linked lipids
Explanation:
Most organisms found in the Archaea are found in extreme enviroments such as very high temperatures. They are generally called Thermophiles.
In order to survive high temperatures, their cell membrane membrane contains ether-linked lipids. This is because these lipids are Thermo-stable. and can not be easily degraded by the high temperatures.
They also have a limited permeability to proton even at high temperatures hence maintaining a viable proton motive force even at these extreme temperatures.
Identify true statements regarding DNA. Check all that apply.
(1) It constitutes our genes.
(2) It is copied into RNA that is then passed on to future generations.
(3) It assembles amino acids in the right order to produce each protein.
(4) It gives instructions for synthesizing all of the body's proteins.
Answer:
(1) It constitutes our genes.
(4) It gives instructions for synthesizing all of the body's proteins.
Explanation:
DNA stores the genetic information in its nucleotide sequence. It carries the information to code for all the proteins present in the organisms. The nucleotide sequence of DNA serves as a template for synthesis of RNA which in turn is translated into the proteins. In this way, DNA molecules instruct for the synthesis of proteins with specific amino acid sequences. A gene is a DNA segment that codes for a particular polypeptide. Therefore, all the genes are made up of DNA.
DNA constitutes our genes and provides the instructions for synthesizing all body proteins. However, it does not assemble amino acids directly to form proteins, nor is it directly copied into RNA and passed onto future generations.
Explanation:Among the four statements provided about DNA, the following three are true:
It constitutes our genes. DNA is the hereditary material in humans and most other organisms. Most DNA is located in the nucleus, and a small amount can be found in the mitochondria.It is not directly copied into RNA that is then passed onto future generations. DNA is transcribed into messenger RNA, which further undergoes translation to form proteins. This RNA is not passed on to future generations, only DNA is.It does not directly assemble amino acids to produce each protein. However, it carries the genetic instructions for the sequence of amino acids required to build a specific protein. The actual assembling of amino acids is done by the ribosomes, using the instructions translated from DNA to RNA.It gives instructions for synthesizing all of the body's proteins. The information stored within DNA sequences is like instructions, and these 'instructions' determine the type of protein to be synthesized.Learn more about DNA here:https://brainly.com/question/32215555
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Based on your understanding of nucleic acids, what type of bonds form between the CRISPR/guide RNA molecule and the target DNA? What type of bonds would an enzyme such as Cas9 affect?
Answer: Hydrogen bonds
Explanation: The CAS9 enzyme affect the bond between the deoxyribose sugar and the phosphate backbone of the PAM sequence in the target DNA
The type of bonds form between the CRISPR guide RNA molecule and the target DNA Hydrogen bonds. The CAS9 enzyme affect the bond between the deoxyribose sugar and the phosphate backbone of the PAM sequence in the target DNA.
What is nucleotides bases?The base pairing between nucleic acid strands (either DNA or RNA) is through hydrogen bonds between nucleotide bases. In DNA, Adenine always forms two hydrogen bonds with Thymine, while Guanine always forms three hydrogen bonds only with Cytosine. Moreover, adjacent nucleotides in the same strand are covalently linked by phosphodiester bonds.
The CRISPR/Cas9 genome editing systems make use of single-guide RNAs (sgRNAs) that interact with DNA through hydrogen bonds. These sgRNAs have perfect complementarity to the target DNAs in order to bind them. On the other hand, Cas9 is an enzyme that hydrolyzes phosphodiester bonds in both DNA strands very precisely and accurately by using a sgRNA complementary to a specific DNA sequence.
Therefore, The CAS9 enzyme affect the bond between the deoxyribose sugar and the phosphate backbone of the PAM sequence in the target DNA.
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Which of the following is NOT a property of smooth endoplasmic reticulum? Which of the following is NOT a property of smooth endoplasmic reticulum? steroid hormone synthesis stores steroid hormones stores calcium forms transport vesicles to move proteins to the Golgi apparatus In liver cells, it contains detoxifying enzymes.
Answer: D - forms transport vesicles to move proteins to the Golgi apparatus
Explanation:
The function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum(SER) varies, depending on cell type.
1. SER is important in the synthesis of lipids, such as cholesterol and phospholipids, which form all the membranes of the organism. In some cells, such as those of the adrenal gland and certain other endocrine glands, it plays a key role in the synthesis of steroid hormones from cholesterol.
2. In the liver, enzymes in the SER catalyze reactions that render drugs, metabolic wastes, and harmful chemicals water-soluble, thereby contributing to their detoxification, or removal, from the body. The SER also plays a role in the conversion of glycogen to glucose, with glucose-6-phosphatase, an enzyme present in SER, catalyzing the final step in glucose production in the liver.
3. In skeletal muscle cells, SER occurs as a specialized membrane structure known as the sarcoplasmic reticulum. The sarcoplasmic reticulum is a critical storage site for calcium ions, taking up the ions from the cytoplasm. It also releases calcium ions when the muscle cell is triggered by nerve stimuli, resulting in muscle contraction. In this way, the sarcoplasmic reticulum helps regulate calcium ion concentrations in the cytoplasm of skeletal muscle cells. The sarcoplasmic reticulum is also found in smooth muscle cells, though in a more loosely organized form than in skeletal muscle.
Answer:
The SER does not form transport vesicles to move proteins to the Golgi apparatus.
Explanation:
The smooth endoplasmic reticulum carried out varries functions such as the synthesis and storage of steroid hormones, the regulation of calcium by sequestering it. SER also contains detoxifying enzymes that detoxifies a wide range of drugs and poisons.
The smooth endoplasmic reticulum does not form transport vessicles but it is the rough endoplasmic reticulum that does, because the RER is the site for protein synthesis and then it's transport to the golgi apparatus and other destinations.
The fact that being homozygous recessive for the CCR5 receptor protects people from being infected with HIV, thus causing an increase in the recessive CCR5 allele, is an example of
Answer:
Positive natural selection
Explanation:
Positive natural selection is fundamental to adaptive evolution and it is characterized by its ability to be passed on, that is heritable, and beneficial to a population.
Which three statements may correctly explain why the population size increases after time point C?Figure:Point C is a point in a graph
The correct statements are:
The population grew more rapidly after time point C because the bacteria must have acquired a second drug-resistance mutation.The population increase just after time point C indicates that antibiotic use was discontinued.Bacteria that acquired a mutation conferring drug resistance had a growth advantage over non-resistant bacteria, leading to the rapid reproduction of drug-resistant bacteria and a subsequent increase in the overall population size.The statement that the population grew more rapidly after time point C due to the acquisition of a second drug-resistance mutation is not necessarily supported by the graph. The increased population size may be attributed to other factors, such as the growth advantage of existing drug-resistant bacteria.The population increase just after time point C does not necessarily indicate that antibiotic use was discontinued. It could be a result of the proliferation of bacteria with drug resistance, indicating that the antibiotic was not effective against these resistant strains.The plausible explanation for the population increase after time point C is that bacteria with a mutation conferring drug resistance had a growth advantage over non-resistant bacteria. This growth advantage led to the rapid reproduction of drug-resistant bacteria, contributing to the overall population expansion. This interpretation aligns with the principles of natural selection, where advantageous traits confer a fitness advantage and drive their prevalence in a population.How might water on the surface of the solid culture medium cause the disruption of colony formation?
Answer: There can be few reasons why surface on water can be harmful to the bacterial colony.
Explanation:
It is possible that while preparing the media for the bacterial colony that the constituents might not have been taken right proportion and water is more in it.
It tends to float on the surface and if the bacterial colony is not able to grow in such an environment it will led to the death of the colony.
There are chances that the mobility of the bacterial species increases in water and because of this there will be problems faced at the time of isolation.
Resistance to pesticides a. is an example of gene flow. b. arises by genetic drift. c. is the result of long-term changes in the pesticide. e. e. e. is independent of the selection coefficient. none of the above
Answer:
none of the above
Explanation:
Resistance to pesticide is caused by genetic mutation. Genetic mutation is an altercation of the Deoxyribonucleic acid sequence that forms the basis of a gene.
When pesticides are introduced to these insects, only those who survived are resistant to the pesticides, the population reduces but yet creating some variant in the gene(allele) over time.
One effect of a mutation, is to create another variant of a gene. When this happens, you have increased the variability of a population, and changed allele frequency. Therefore, there is likelihood that those resistant to the pesticides increase and thrive over time.
Beatrice and Allen Gardner taught the chimpanzee Washoe to communicate by means of:A) pictures.B) Morse code.C) sign language.D) a simplified typewriter
Answer:
The correct answer is - option C) sign language.
Explanation:
Washoe was a chimpanzee used in a research experiment. According to Beatrice and Allen Gardner, this chimpanzee is the first non-human to learn and communicative with the help of American sign language. Washoe learned about 350 signs of ASL, an American sign language. It was part of the research experiment on animals.
Thus, the correct answer is - optic C.
Suppose a newborn baby was accidentally mixed up in the hospital. In an effort to determine the parents of the baby, the blood types of the baby and two sets of parents were determined. Baby 1 had type O Mrs. Brown had type B Mr. Brown had type AB Mrs. Smith had type B Mr. Smith had type B .
a. Draw Punnett squares for each couple (you may need to do more than I square/ couple)
b. to which parents does baby # I belong? Why? Hint you may want to refer to your Punnett squares.
Answer:a. Draw Punnett squares for each couple (you may need to do more than 1 square/ couple)
Baby 2 MUST belong to the Browns because Mr. Brown is the only parent with an A allele to
contribute… then the rest works out as follows:
b. To which parents does baby #1 belong? Why? Hint you may want to refer to your Punnett
squares.
Baby 1 must belong to the Smiths, because they are the only ones with the possibility of EACH
having a recessive allele to pass down to the baby, Mr. Brown has type AB blood and therefore
only has the dominant A and dominant B alleles – no recessive allele possible.
Explanation:
Baby I belongs to Mr. and Mrs. Smith.
Individuals Blood type Genotype Parents Name
Baby I O Smith Smith
Mrs. Brown B Bi
Mr. Brown AB AB
Mrs. Smith B Bi
Mr. Smith B Bi
The Punnett squares
[tex]\begin{matrix} & B & B \\ B & BB & \\ & & \end{matrix}[/tex] [tex]\begin{matrix} & B & B \\ B & BB & BB\\ i & Bi & Bi\end{matrix}[/tex]
[tex]\begin{matrix} & B & i \\ B & BB & Bi\\ i & Bi & ii\end{matrix}[/tex]
Since, baby I have O type of blood group, so the baby should have 'i' alleles from both parents. This can be true only when both the parents of the baby I have 'i' allele in their genotypeThus from the Punnett square diagram, we can say that baby I belongs to Mr. and Mrs. Smith.
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1. How many different combinations do you think are possible for a cell like ours with 3 pairs of chromosomes using only random alignment?
Answer:
Eight
Explanation:
The arrangement of chromosomes shall be governed by the principle of independent assortment which allows each chromosome to assort independently. If we follow the general rule of pairing, the number of chromosome pair formed depends of the number of different types of chromosome denoted by “n”. Total number of chromosome pair would be 2 raised to the power n. Therefore, if n is equal to three, then total eight pairs would be formed.
For instance if (P, p), (Q,q), (R,r) are three set of chromosomes, then the eight pairs would be as follows –
• P Q R
• P Q r
• P q r
• P q R
• p Q R
• p Q r
• p q R
• p q r
How do the stages of mitosis and meiosis occur in a specific order and never alternate.
Answer:
The cell divides by the two main process known as mitosis and meiosis. The somatic cells divide by the process of mitosis and germ cells divide by the process of meiosis.
The cell follows the sequential pathway - prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase. This specific order follows because the cell cycle have various check point at each stage of the cell cycle. The cyclins and cdk's regulate the transitions from one stage to another stage of the cell cycle. If the cell correctly passes these transition without any defects in the cell.
Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADP ) is a biological oxidant involved in the oxidation of testosterone to estradiol.
True/false
Answer:
False.
Explanation:
NADP does not convert testosterone to estradiol. This oxidation is done by a steroid 17-a-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase.
This oxidation is essential for stability of hormone: it helps to regulates the elevation of Testosterone in women,subduing the manifestation of male sexual characteristics,
and
for preventing autoimmune diseases.
The oxidation involved two basic steps of reaction, controlled by two different enzymes.
NADP is a Co- factor, when in reduced form( NADPH) is used in Calvin cycle, of light independent reaction of photosynthesis, and in Nucleic acid and triglycerides synthesis.
It has nothing to do with conversation of Androgen( testosterone to Estradiol.
Draw one of the positively charged amino acids. Indicate whether you would expect to find it on the surface of or buried in a globular protein.
Answer:
COO-
|
H3N+ ------C -------H
|
CH2
|
CH2
|
CH2
|
CH2
|
+NH3
Lysine (positively charged amino acid)
It is present on the outside of a globular protien.
Explanation:
Formula of lysine:
C6H14N2O2
Globular proteins are folded such that their tertiary structure consists of the polar, or hydrophilic, amino acids arranged on the outside and the nonpolar, or hydrophobic, amino acids on the inside of the three-dimensional shape. This arrangement is responsible for the solubility of globular proteins in water.
As lysine is a positively charged polar / hydrophilic amino acid , it is arranged on the outside of the globular protien.
Amniotes produce eggs that contain fluids that bathe the embryo during gestation..
a True
b. False
Answer: a) true
Explanation: The fluid inside the egg helps in the survival of embryo and maintain fluid environment.
Answer:True
Explanation:
Ambitious have a protective covering called amnion this serves as a protective coat while developing . It contains amniotic fluid and it as been said that some of the fluid are found in the developing embryos and its also aisds there movement . The fluid contain protein and some minerals
Which structure contains intertwined capillaries from the mother and the developing embryo?
Answer:
The structure that contains intertwined capillaries from the mother and the developing embryo is PLACENTA.
Explanation:
Placenta is a structure composed of both embryonic and maternal tissues. It supplies nutrients to the developing embryo.
Placenta is a unique organ found mainly in mammals, that allows developing fetus to have all the nutrients from their mother's blood stream even before they are born.
Besides providing the nutrients, placenta also provides attachment of fetus to the mother's Uterine wall and allow the fetus to transfer all the waste products to the mother's blood for excretion.
Placenta composed of 2 parts : The maternal part called as Decidua Basalis and the fetal part called as Chorion Frondosum. The parts are held together by Anchoring Villi.
Maternal blood flows from the maternal circulatory system through the intervillous space (space surrounding the chorion) nutrients and other exchange occurs and blood flows back in the maternal circulation.
In the shotgun approach to whole-genome sequencing (shotgun sequencing), random DNA fragments of a chromosome are sequenced. The fragment sequences are then assembled into a continuous sequence that represents the DNA of the entire chromosome.
Remainder of question from another source:
What are the steps in the shotgun approach to whole-genome sequencing?
PLACE IN ORDER
A. 1-kb fragments are cloned into plasmids.
B. Chromosomes copies are broken into 1-kb fragments
C. The plasmids are sequenced.
D. Multiple copies of the same chromosome are prepared.
E. A computer combines the fragments sequences.
Answer:
DBACE
Explanation:
First, multiple copies of an entire chromosome are created (D). Then, the chromosome is fragmented into lots of pieces approximately 1kb in length. These pieces will contain overlapping sequences (B). Next, the newly created 1kb fragments will be cloned into plasmid vectors (A). The plasmids containing the DNA fragments are then sequenced (C), and the sequence is combined and aligned by a computer, aided by the fact the fragments are overlapping (E).
Which of the following best describes the natural process that occurs during malting?
A) a seed begins to grow into a new plant
B) living plant begins to decay
C) flower produces seeds
D) fruit transported by other animals
Answer:
A) a seed begins to grow into a new plant
Explanation:
Malting is a process of growth and drying that causes a change in the structure of cell walls, proteins, and starch granules. The process entails the steeping to increase the moisture content required for germination process, to modify the kernel and to dry it.
Malting is the process of a seed growing into a new plant. It involves soaking, germination, and drying of cereal grains in controlled conditions. This activates enzymes that convert starches into sugars.
option a is correct
Explanation:The natural process that occurs during malting is when a seed begins to grow into a new plant. Malting is a process of germinating cereal grains, such as barley, under controlled conditions.
During the malting process, the grains are soaked, allowed to germinate, and then dried. This process activates enzymes in the grain, which convert starches into sugars that can be used by the developing plant.
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A man and woman marry. They have five children, 2 girls and 3 boys. The mother is a carrier of
hemophilia, an X-linked disorder. She passes the gene on to two of the boys who died in childhood
and one of the daughters is also a carrier. Both daughters marry men without hemophilia and have 3
children (2 boys and a girl). The carrier daughter has one son with hemophilia. One of the non-carrier
daughter’s sons marries a woman who is a carrier and they have twin daughters. What is the percent
chance that each daughter will also be a carrier?
Answer:
50%
Explanation:
Since the disease is X-linked, males can either be affected or not while females can be affected, unaffected or a carrier for the disease.
Let the allele for hemophilia be h, the alternate will be H
Non-carrier mother's son is a not affected for the disease = [tex]X^H Y[/tex]
A woman who is a carrier = [tex]X^H X^h[/tex]
If the two mate: [tex]X^H Y[/tex] x [tex]X^H X^h[/tex]
Progeny: [tex]X^HX^H, X^HX^h, X^HY and X^hY[/tex]
Out of the two daughters, one is a carrier and the other is unaffected at all.
Hence, the chance of each daughter being a carrier is 50% or 1/2.
Franz is diagnosed with retrograde ejaculation. This means that
a.
his sperm count is getting low and he may be infertile
b.
he is unable to ejaculate during intercourse
c.
he is unable to ejaculate and experience orgasm at the same time
d.
his semen passes into his bladder rather than out of his urethral opening
Answer:
d. his semen passes into his bladder rather than out of his urethral opening.
Explanation:
Men who have retrograde ejaculation have no trouble getting an erection. The problem is that when the man reaches the climax the semen enters the bladder instead of going out through the male sex organ (The sperm passes from the seminiferous tubules to the epididymis. In the epididymis semen is formed. This semen comes out of the end of the urethra.). For this reason, no semen goes out through the male sex organ and there is a cloudy urine after orgasm because it contains semen. This condition causes inability to cause a pregnancy.
Answer: Option D.
Retrograde ejaculation means semen passes in to the bladder rather than urethral opening.
Explanation:
Retrograde ejaculation is a sexul disorder in men in which the semen travel to the bladder instead of the penis during orgasm. This lead to too much sperm in the urine and can also lead to low fertility in men. Retrograde ejaculation is common in men with diabetes who suffer nerve damage. Men with spinal cord injury and multiple sclerosis can also develop retrograde ejaculation. Once diagnosed medical treatment should be given.
The N-H bond in ammonia is polar because
A: nitrogen occupies more space than hydrogen.
B: hydrogen is much more electronegative than nitrogen.
C: it is a hydrogen bond.
D: it is an ionic bond.
E: nitrogen is much more electronegative than hydrogen.
Answer:
The N-H bond in ammonia is polar because the nitrogen is more electronegative than the hydrogen.
Explanation:
The nitrogen atoms in a molecule of ammonia is more electronegativity than the hydrogen atoms thus making it a polar molecule.
Answer: Option E.
N-H bond in ammonia is polar because nitrogen is more electronegative than hydrogen.
Explanation:
Ammonia is a compound that contain nitrogen and hydrogen. It has a trigonal pyramidal i shape, the three hydrogen atoms and one nitrogen atom are covalently bonded together. The nitrogen atom is more electronegative and it attracts more electron to itself. The nitrogen atom is slightly negative and the hydrogen atoms are slightly positive, there is unequal sharing of electrons between the nitrogen atom and hydrogen atoms due to high attraction of electrons to nitrogen atom, this is what is refer to Polar molecule. A polar molecule I a molecule with unequal sharing of electron between the atoms.
An individual who shows similar symptoms or trends of metabolic syndrome but are in an acceptable body fat range could be also be called (select all that apply):
Answer:
Unmotivated, Skinny fat, mentally obese physically normal
Explanation:
Which of these is not a connective tissue? Adipose tissue Bone Blood Ligaments No exceptions; all of these are connective tissues
Answer: All of these are connective tissue
Explanation:
Answer: All of the mentioned are connective tissue.
Explanation:
Connective tissues are tissues that form matrix under the epithelial layer,they binds, connects and support other tissues or organs. Connective tissues are found between every other tissues in the body. The types of connective tissues are adipose tissues,cartilage, bone, collage,elastic fiblre, reticular fibre, lymphoid tissue,bonemarrow,ligaments and lymphatic. Connective tissues also function in transmitting substances around the body.
_______________ are performed to assess the adequacy of the amount of oxygen getting to the heart muscle and thus indicate the presence or absence of heart disease. The top number on a blood pressure reading is _______________; the bottom number on a blood pressure reading is _______________.
Answer:
STRESS TEST
SYSTOLE
DIASTOLE
Explanation:
A standard exercise stress test employs an EKG (electrocardiogram) to watch closely any variation in the heart's electrical activity, the heart valves, the activities of the heart muscle, if the heart does not have shortage of blood flow during exercise and to study how heart functions when undergoing physical activity.
Diastole and systole are two levels of the cardiac cycle. They are seen during heart beats function as it pumps blood using a collection of blood vessels that transports blood to each and every singular part of the body. Systole is produced during contraction of the heart to pump blood out, and diastole is produced during relaxation of the heart when it contracts.
Let's consider, 120/80 mm Hg. The up figure stands for the level of pressure in the arteries when the heart muscle contracts --- systolic pressure. The below figure stands for blood pressure as seen when the heart muscle is between beats--- diastolic pressure.
Answer:
Stress Test
Systole
Diastole
Explanation:
Stress Test is a medical test the determines the heart potentiality to reply to external stress in a controlled observed environment. The stress response can be triggered or evoked by exercise. Stress Tests are performed to assess the adequacy of the amount of oxygen getting to the heart muscle and thus indicate the presence or absence of heart disease. During this test, a device known as Electrocardiogram (ECG) is used to measure and record the electrical activity of the heart.
The top number on a blood pressure reading is Systole because during this period, it is a period of contraction, therefore the heart muscles are contracting thereby ejecting blood into the aorta and pulmonary trunk.
The bottom number on a blood pressure reading is Diastole because it is a period of relaxation of the heart muscle. Here, three coronary arteries surrounds the heart whereby the heart receives blood. When these arteries are clear, amount of blood moving into the heart muscle is supplied in adequate proportion. The heart muscles receives little blood and oxygen during low blood pressure level. This is caused by some certain event (e.g exercise) where the heart beats faster and as the heart beats faster, the heart rate drops in level and started to increase and the diastolic pressure decreases. This is what results to little amount of blood and oxygen that is received by the heart muscles as being said earlier.
A "Cuckold bee" is a common term to describe several different kleptoparasitic lineages in Apoidea.
True or False?
Answer:
True
Explanation:
In biology or animal behavior, the term cuckold refers to the act of invading a strange net. The term might be applied to different species that parasite other species. A very well known example is the cuckoos bird.
The Cuckold bees or cuckoo bees are many parasitic species belonging to the Apoidea taxon that characterize for invading nests of other bees.
Females lay their eggs in the cells of the host nest. Depending on the species, the intruding female might kill the owner larvae of the cell, or the emerging parasitic larvae is the one that can destroy the host using their highly developed mandibles as weapons.
As they develope, foreign larvae feed on the foodstuffs that the female owners of the nests bring for their own offspring.
The term 'Cuckold bee' is true for describing kleptoparasitic bees in the Apoidea superfamily that lay their eggs in other bees' nests.
Explanation:The statement "A Cuckold bee is a common term to describe several different kleptoparasitic lineages in Apoidea" is True. The term 'Cuckold bee' is often used to describe the behavior of certain bees that lay their eggs in the nests of other bees, thereby having their offspring raised by the host bee.
This is indeed a form of kleptoparasitism, as the parasitic bee exploits the host both for its nest and the resources collected by the host bee, without providing any benefit in return. This behavior is exhibited by various lineages within Apoidea, which include bees, wasps, and ants.
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Rabbits, turtles, fish, humans, and whales all share certain characteristics but also differ from each other. All of these species have cells with nuclei. Other characteristics that all of these organisms share is the fact that they must consume plants and/or other organisms to get their energy.
A. What level(s) of classification do all of these organisms share?
The levels of organisation are
Domain: Eukarya
Kingdom Animalia
Phylum :Chordata
Explanation:
They all share these levels of organisation because;
for the Domain Eukarya, they have;
→multi-cellular cells containing nucleus; and other membrane bound organelle.e.g Mitochondrial.
→their DNA located in the nucleus packaged as linear chromosomes bounded by histone proteins.
→mode of reproduction which is sexual.
They share Kingdom Animalia because;
→they have multi-cellular, specialised cells, bounded by plasma membranes.
→they have specialized tissues, organs, and system.
→they all undergo heterotrophic mode of nutrition as evident in the question 'that they must consume plants and animals as source of energy'
→they exchanged communication by nervous ssytem and
→ use homeostatic mechanisms to regulate water balance of the body through the kidney.
→Humans,Rabbits,and whales are VIVIPAROUS; they give birth to young ones alive.
→Most fishes lay eggs to reproduce, they are said to be Ovoviviparous.
They belong to phylum Chordata because ;
→they all have noto chord; which serve as template for axial skeleton.
dorsal hollow nerve cord -template for the brain and spinal cord
→pharyngeal slits- templates for gill aches in bony fishes and components of inner ear in land animals.
→ tail length varies in these organisms.
Energy extraction and the complete oxidation of foodstuffs requires three stages. The energy extracted from fuels is converted to ATP.
Select the statements that are true for the different stages required for energy extraction and complete oxidation of foodstuffs. In the first and second stages the majority of ATP needed for cellular processes is produced.
a. In the third stage, fuel molecules are completely oxidized to CO2, and a small amount of ATP is produced.
b. In the third stage, fuel molecules are completely oxidized to CO2, and most of the ATP needed for cellular processes is produced.
c. In the third stage, fuel molecules are completely oxidized to CO2, and no ATP is produced.
d. In the first stage, macromolecules are converted to monomers, and a small amount of ATP is produced.
e. In the second stage, monomers are broken down, and a small amount of ATP is produced.
The energy extraction and complete oxidation of foodstuffs occurs in three stages. The accurate statements describing these stages are: a) In the third stage, fuel molecules are completely oxidized to CO2, and a small amount of ATP is produced; d) In the first stage, macromolecules are converted to monomers, and a small amount of ATP is produced; e) In the second stage, monomers are broken down, and a small amount of ATP is produced.
Explanation:The processes of energy extraction and complete oxidation of foodstuffs occur in three stages. The statements that accurately describe these stages are as follows:
Statement a: In the third stage, fuel molecules are completely oxidized to CO2, and a small amount of ATP is produced. This is true. During the third stage, namely oxidative phosphorylation, most of the oxidation occurs and some ATP is produced directly.Statement d: In the first stage, macromolecules are converted to monomers, and a small amount of ATP is produced. This is true. This stage, known as digestion, involves breaking down complex macromolecules into simpler monomers. During this process, some ATP is produced.Statement e: In the second stage, monomers are broken down, and a small amount of ATP is produced. This is also true. The second stage, named glycolysis and the citric acid cycle, involves the breakdown of monomers, usually glucose, into pyruvate. Small amounts of ATP are produced in this stage.Therefore, statements a, d, and e accurately represent the stages of energy extraction and complete oxidation of foodstuffs.
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According to the question, Statements b, d, and e are correct.
The three stages of energy extraction and complete oxidation of foodstuffs involve the breakdown of macromolecules to monomers with small ATP production, the conversion of monomers to acetyl-CoA with further small ATP production, and the complete oxidation to CO2 and H2O with most ATP production. Statements b, d, and e are correct.
The process of energy extraction and the complete oxidation of foodstuffs through respiration involves three stages:
Stage I: Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins are broken down into their individual monomer units such as simple sugars, fatty acids, and amino acids. A small amount of ATP is produced during this stage. (d is correct)Stage II: The broken-down monomer units are further processed through metabolic pathways to form a common end product, acetyl-coenzyme A (CoA). A small amount of ATP is also produced during this stage. (e is correct)Stage III: Acetyl-CoA is completely oxidized to form carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O). During this stage, most of the ATP needed for cellular processes is produced. (b is correct). NADH and FADH, produced in earlier stages, participate in the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation, which results in the majority of ATP production.Adaptive radiation can be a direct consequence of four of the following five factors. Select the exception.
a) vacant ecological niches
b) genetic drift
c) colonization of an isolated region that contains suitible habitat and few competitor species.
d) evolutionary innnovation
e) an adaptive radiation in a group of organisms (such as plants) that another group uses as food
Answer: Option B.
Genetic drift.
Explanation:
Adaptive radiation is the fat evolution of several species from a common ancestors, when a change in environment make available new resources or create new opportunities. It is characterized by ecological and morphological diversity. The factors or conditions that lead to adaptive radiation are colonization of an isolated that contain suitable habitat and few competitors species, evolutionary innovation,adaptive radiation in a group of organisms that another group use as food and vacant ecological niches.
Genetic drift is not a direct consequence factor of adaptive radiation.
Genetic drift is a process that occur in small population which is due to change in allele frequencies of a population due to certain occurrences. In this case few of the population can separate from the entire or the whole population is reduced, hence it is not a direct consequences of adaptive radiation.
Genetic drift is the exception among the listed factors because it does not actually lead to or is not associated with adaptive radiation which usually occurs when a change in the environment makes new resources available or opens new environmental niches.
Explanation:In the context of evolution, adaptive radiation is a process where organisms diversify rapidly into a multitude of new forms, particularly when a change in the environment makes new resources available, creates new challenges, or opens new environmental niches. The factors that can lead to adaptive radiation include vacant ecological niches (option a), colonization of an isolated region that contains suitable habitats and few competitor species (option c), evolutionary innovation (option d), and an adaptive radiation in a group of organisms that another group uses as food (option e). However, genetic drift (option b) does not lead to adaptive radiation because it refers to random changes in the frequencies of alleles in a gene pool, which is not necessarily aligned with adaptation or the filling of ecological niches.
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50 points Please help
Discuss the importance of oxygen to all living organisms, and describe how three different organisms—human, flatworm, and fern—obtain the oxygen they need
Answer:
Hey hope this helps.
Explanation:
It allows the process of respiration to occur. For humans we inhale oxygen and exhale carbon dioxide. For the flatworm it does the same it inhales oxygen and exhales carbon dioxide. Now for a fern since it is a plant it can not take in oxygen it can only release it. This happens through photosynthesis. It is where plants take in the carbon dioxide and release oxygen.
Oxygen helps the organism to grow, reproduce and get energy from the food through cellular respiration.
Human inhale oxygen and exhale carbon dioxide through the process of respiration.
Flatworm also take up oxygen and release carbon dioxide.
Fern being a plant, takes up carbon dioxide to perform photosynthesis and release oxygen as a byproduct.
Why oxygen is important?Animal requires oxygen for the growth and reproduction as cells die in absence of oxygen.
To get energy from food, oxygen is requires as a terminal electron acceptor for cellular respiration.
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The rapid inward diffusion of Na+ followed by the outward diffusion of K+ produces a rapid change in the membrane potential of a neuron called ____.
Answer: depolarization
Explanation:
On depolarization, the sodium gates in the neuron membrane closes after sodium ions flow inside, while potassium gates open causing potassium ions to flow out and reestablish the original resting potential of the membrane.
The rapid change in membrane potential from resting to action potential is DEPOLARIZATION
Wildlife in the Serengeti is currently threatened by ________.A. Pollution from a nearby coal power plant.B. Plans to build a highway that passes through the park.C. An invasive fish that has been introduced into the major river that flows through the park.D. Plans to legalize hunting of most of the large animal species in the park.E. An overabundance of elephants.
Answer:
B. Plans to build a highway that passes through the park.
Explanation:
Serengeti is one of the largest wilderness area in the world as it supports a very large and magnificent diversity of animals especially Lion , Black rhino , buffalo , elephant and leapord.
Wildlife in Serengeti is currently threatened by the plans to build a highway that passes through the park definition. Thus the increased human acticities around the boundary of the Serengeti National park have damaged habitat and constrained the area available for the migration of animals like zebras , wildebeast and gazelles.