Which muscle is not part of the rotator cuff?

Answers

Answer 1
The four muscles of the rotator cuff are the supraspinatus, infraspinatua, teres, and subcapularis. Hope this helps!
Answer 2
Final answer:

The deltoid muscle, among others like the rhomboids and latissimus dorsi, are not part of the rotator cuff. The rotator cuff consists of the tendons of four specific muscles: the deep subscapularis, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and teres minor.

Explanation:

The rotator cuff is an important component of the shoulder joint formed by tendons of four muscles, specifically the deep subscapularis, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and teres minor. These muscles arise from the scapula and attach to the humerus, providing essential structural support and allowing a range of movements. However, the deltoid muscle, which originates on the scapula, is not a part of the rotator cuff though it plays a significant role in the motion of the shoulder, facilitating actions such as flexing, medial rotation, extension, and lateral rotation of the arm.

Other muscles that are not part of the rotator cuff, but vital to the movement of the upper limb, include the rhomboids, trapezius, latissimus dorsi, brachioradialis, extensor carpi radialis, and extensor digitorum amongst others. While these muscles contribute to the flexibility and strength of the upper limb, they do not form the rotator cuff.

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Related Questions

The second part of the mitotic phase, during which cell division is completed by the physical separation of the cytoplasm components into two daughter cells is called ____________.

Answers

"The second part of the mitotic phase, during which cell division is completed by the physical separation of the cytoplasm components into two daughter cells is called telophase."

Telophase is the last phase of mitosis. The name itself indicates terminal (telo) phase. The chromosomes get to the cell poles and nuclear membranes are formed around each set of chromatids. The actual cell division is called cytokinesis and it starts at the end of the telophase.

You observe large ( >10 micrometer) oval cells in a sputum sample from a patient. your culture of the sample reveals fuzzy filamentous colonies. you conclude that __________. you contaminated the sample the patient has an infection caused by a dimorphic fungus the patient has an infection with unusual algae the patient has a yeast infection the patient has a protozoan infection

Answers

The answer is "the patient has an infection caused by a dimorphic fungus".  Dimorphic fungi are those parasites that exist either in yeast frame or as a shape contingent upon ecological conditions, physiological states of the organism or the hereditary attributes. 
Some dimorphic fungi will change to yeast or shape frame contingent upon the common temperature. These organisms are alluded to as thermally dimorphic. Others will change to yeast in the event that they develop inside host tissues.

Which option is an example of a physical property? 1.Flammability 2.pH 3. toxicity 4.freezing point

Answers

the answer is 4. freezing point

4. Freezing point it is not chemical because there was no new elements produced it just the state changed so it's physical

Gila Monsters are one of two types of venomous lizards in the world.  If you wanted to avoid coming across the Gila Monster when hiking in Arizona you would want to avoid __________ and __________ because Gila Monsters are crepuscular.

Answers

**in my country, gila means crazy. so its basicly crazy monsters

Answer:

Squamata

The Gila monster is venomous, although sluggish in nature and therefore not dangerous to humans.

Explanation:

i did the test on edge 2021

Explain how the human senses assist in communication in the body and between individuals.

Answers

The senses allow the body to perceive information that is in the world. Sight and hearing, for example, allow for us to notice what is going on around us, and allow us to then use tactile means to create a response that can then be perceived and understood by other people.

For each of the traits described below, indicate if it is true only in archaea, only in bacteria, in both archaea and bacteria or in neither group.

Answers

I found the full exercise on the internet. Below are the traits and answer:

1) The cells do not contain ribosomes. - both archaea and bacteria 

2) Most of the microorganisms in the group have a cell wall. - both archaea and bacteria

3) When proteins are being made, the first amino acid is a methionine. - 

only in archaea (in bacteria is a derivate of it N-formylmethionine)

4) They have mitochondria. - in neither group

5) The fatty acids found in the cytoplasmic membrane have branching chains. only in archaea (fatty acids in bacteria have straight chains)

Catalysts increase the rate of a reaction by

Answers

Catalysts increases the rate of a reaction by lowering the need for a larger reaction. Basically, the more reactions that are created, the faster the rate of the reactions will become. An example of this is Amylase in our saliva.

Answer:

Decreasing the activation energy of the reaction.

Explanation:

Catalyst may be defined as the substance that increase the rate of a bio chemical reaction. The catalyst does not change the equilibrium of the reaction.

The catalyst increase the rate of a chemical reaction by decreasing the activation energy of the reaction. The activation energy is the minimum amount of energy required for the conversion of reactant into product. The catalyst increases the effective collision between the molecules and decreases the activation energy. Hence, increases the rate of a reaction.

The point at which a zygote burrows into the uterine wall is referred to as​

Answers

the stage is implantation. it embeds into uterus wall. it happened after fertilisation

Predators, competitors, and diseases are all examples of _____ factors.

Answers

Resistance Factors are the examples which are put into this category

In the area with the largest sea lamprey population, what is being done to reduce this population?

Answers

In the area with the largest sea lamprey population, a few things are done to reduce and control this population. Lampricide, Currently, the primary method to control sea lampreys utilizes a lampricide, called TFM, that kills sea lamprey larvae in streams with little or no impact on other fish.   Barriers,Barriers have been constructed to block the upstream migration of spawning sea lampreys; most barriers allow other fish to pass with minimal disruption. Barriers have eliminated lampricide treatment on some streams and reduced the stream distance requiring treatment on others. The Sterile-Male-Release-Technique, The sterile-male-release-technique aims to reduce the success of sea lamprey spawning. Each year male sea lampreys are collected and sterilized. When they are released back into streams the sterile males compete with normal males for spawning females. Lastly trapping, Sea lamprey traps are operated at various locations throughout the Great Lakes, often in association with barriers. Traps are designed to catch lampreys as they travel upstream to spawn. 

In the area with the largest sea lamprey population, some of the things that are done to reduce this population will be:

Use of lampricide.Construction of barriers in order to block the migration of sea lamprey.Use of sterile male release technique

Population simply refers to all the inhabitants that are in a particular area. It is a community of plants, animals, or humans where interbreeding takes place.

Sea lampreys are bad as they have a negative effect on the population of fish. It should be noted that once a fish has been bitten by sea lamprey, rather than producing eggs and increasing the population of fishes, the fishes that are bitten spend more time healing.

To control sea lampreys, it's vital to use lampricide which is a chemical that destroys the larvae of lampreys before they develop into adults. Also, the construction of barriers can be done in order to block the migration of sea lamprey.

In conclusion, one can also make use of the sterile male release technique in order to control the pest.

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The factors of care that patients can expect to receive are frequently called

Answers

Final answer:

The factors of care frequently received by patients are referred to as patient's rights. These include safe and quality care, informed consent, right to privacy and respect. These rights contribute to ethical, patient-centered healthcare.

Explanation:

The factors of care that patients can expect to receive are frequently referred to as patient's rights. Patient's rights often include access to safe and quality care, the right to informed consent, privacy and confidentiality, and the right to respect and non-discrimination among others. Knowing these rights is a critical factor in promoting ethical and person-centered healthcare. For instance, the right to privacy ensures that a patient's health information cannot be freely disclosed without their consent or knowledge.

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Final answer:

The 'Standards of Care' refer to the guidelines that healthcare providers follow to meet the needs of a patient. Surgeons, nurses, and anesthesia professionals are included in this process, reviewing key aspects of patient recovery and care, and ensuring adherence to these standards.

Explanation:

The elements of care that a patient can anticipate receiving are regularly referred to as the 'Standards of Care'. These standards include the procedures, actions, and processes that a healthcare provider should abide by to meet the clinical requirements of a patient. From the consultation stage to recovery, every stakeholder involved in patient care such as the surgeon, nurse, and anesthesia professional has particular responsibilities. They must review the key concerns for the recovery and care of the patient comprehensively, ensuring adherence to the established standards with the ultimate goal of providing patient satisfaction and safety.

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The nurse suspects acute respiratory distress syndrome (ards) in a patient who has arterial oxygen tension (pao 2) of 60 mmhg while receiving inspired oxygen (fio 2) of 80 percent oxygen as room air. what is the pao 2 to fio 2 ratio of the patient

Answers

The patient’s PaO 2/75 based on the PaO 2 to FiO 2 equation: 60/0.80 = 75. p. 1620

If a scientist discovered a sequence of DNA that links the manatee a marine animal to there land dwelling ancestors which explains the likely effect of this discovery on the theory of evolution

Answers

The theory of evolution explains that species change in small ways through a gradual process of natural selection that occurs over the course of many generations. these small changes can eventually lead to entirely new species.if a scientist discovered a sequence of dna that links the manatee (a marine mammal) to their land-dwelling ancestors, which explains the likely effect of this discovery on the theory of evolution

Fat prevents protein from being burned for energy so that protein can do its own important jobs.

Answers

whats the question you are asking?

Oceanic crust is formed at _________.

convergent plate boundaries
mid-ocean ridges
subduction zones
lithospheric boundry

Answers

It is formed in the mid-ocean ridges

Answer:

mid-ocean ridges

Explanation:

what parts of the kernel remain intact if a carbohydrate is considered a whole grain?

Answers

titty titty titty titty titty titty tiyyty

Which process involves the movement of molecules or atoms down a concentration gradient across plasma membranes?

Answers

Diffusion

Specifically passive transport

Answer:

Diffusion is the process involves the movement of molecules or atoms down a concentration gradient across plasma membranes. It does not require any use of energy so it is a type of passive transport.

Diffusion can be divided into simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion. In simple diffusion, a molecule dissolve with the plasma membrane and transported inside the cell along the concentration gradient.

Facilitate diffusion also involved in transport of molecules along the concentration gradient but in this case, the molecules are transported by carrier protein present in the plasma membrane. Facilitated diffusion has a fast rate of transport than simple diffusion.

Which rem dosage causes symptoms of radiation sickness including nausea, vomiting, fatigue, and a reduction in white cell count?

Answers

The rem dosage that most likely cause the following symptoms mentioned above is the rem 120. It is because if this dosage has given to an individual, the person may likely experience side effects of having to feel nauseated, fatigue, vomiting and the white cell count is being reduced.

Dna polymerase occasionally makes errors and adds an incorrect base. a new strand of dna is being produced, and the template strand contains a g. based on your knowledge of the structure of dna, why is it more likely that dna polymerase would accidentally add a t to the new strand instead of a g or an
a.

Answers

DNA replication occurs in the synthesis phase. And one of the main actors are DNA polymerase which helps make a new copy of a DNA strand. Occasionally, they make errors and pair incorrect bases because of the process and repetition. A is sometimes paired with G is because they are both purines nucleotides and are produced with the same nucleotide components.

Why do the blood types of a person providing blood for a transfusion, and the person receiving the blood, have to be of a compatible abo type?

Answers

Blood transfusion involves removing blood from a blood donor and giving it to another person to replace blood loss. Making safe blood transfusion is essential to know the blood type of the patient. because mixing incompatible blood types may cause to danger and lethal. To be successful in blood transfusion, ABO and RH blood of a donor and a patient. If a blood transfusion gets wrong, it may lead to immunological reactions, it occurs when a receiver of blood transfusion has antibodies that work against to the blood cells of a donor.

Which organism develops breathing organs from pharyngeal arches General arches a shark a spider sea stars see seahorse

Answers

Throat painful difficult into the breathing organism develops . it's all about living organism

Answer: Sea Stars

Explanation:

"susan is consuming 70 grams of protein per day on her 2,000-kilocalorie-per-day diet. what percent of susan's diet is protein?"

Answers

The answer to this question would be: 14%
Protein will give a calorie about 4kcal/gram. Then, the total calorie of protein from Susan meal would be: 70 grams * 4kcal/g= 280 kilo calorie.
To find the percentage you will need to divide the total calorie diet with the protein calorie. The calculation would be:

protein percentage= protein calorie/ total calorie 
protein percentage= 280kcal / 2,000kcal = 14%

Final answer:

To determine the percentage of Susan's diet that is protein, multiply the amount of protein she consumes daily (70 grams) by the number of calories per gram of protein (4), and then divide that number by her total daily caloric intake (2,000 calories) and multiply by 100 to get the percentage, which is 14%.

Explanation:

To calculate the percentage of Susan's diet that is protein, we need to know how many calories are in a gram of protein and then how many of those calories are part of her overall 2,000 kilocalorie daily intake. A gram of protein has 4 calories. If Susan is consuming 70 grams of protein a day, she's getting 70 grams * 4 calories/gram = 280 calories from protein.

Now to find the percentage of her diet that is made up of protein, we use the formula:

Percentage of calories from protein = (Calories from protein / Total calorie intake) * 100

Percentage of calories from protein = (280 / 2000) * 100

Percentage of calories from protein = 14% of Susan's diet is protein.

If no oxygen is available to a cell, then the net atp production resulting from the metabolism of a single glucose molecule is

Answers

If no oxygen is available to a cell, then the net atp productiion resulting from the metabolism of a single glucose molecule is Two ATP molecules. 

Which lunar phase comes directly before the full Moon phase?

Answers

Waxing Gibbous, I believe. 
The lunar phase known as waxing gibbous comes directly before the Full Moon phase.

Which of these actions causes a physical change?
a.burning a log
b.cooking an egg
c.rusting of a metal pipe
d.crushing an aluminum can?

Answers

Hi there, thanks for asking a question here on Brainly.

When you burn a log, cook an egg, or when a metal pipe rusts a chemical change takes place. The only action on the list that causes a physical change is crushing an aluminum can because it changes its physical state.

Answer: Letter D 

Hope that helps! ★ If you have further questions about this question or need more help, feel free to comment below or post another question and send the link to me. -UnicornFudge aka Qamar

The environment contains

Answers

Living and Non-living things that keep everything balanced.
Natural reasouces and items that create living means which go through a cycle and reformed until that object cannot be obtainable

Hope this helps

The organ that supports the plant body and carries nutrients between different parts of the plant is the

Answers

The answer is the Stem.

How would bark on a tree compare to our respiratory system?

Answers

I know it has something to do with the Xylem and Phloem of the tee.

How should you test a hypothesis

Answers

It depends on what your hypothesis is about. For example, if its about how you think a solar oven would work or whether you think it would work at all, then you could build your own solar oven and see if your hypothesis was accurate or not and this brings you to your conclusion.

Hope this helped you :)

The action potential propagates along the sarcolemma. as the action potential spreads down the t tubules of the triads, voltage-sensitive tubule proteins change shape. how does the shape change of these proteins lead to contraction?

Answers

Final answer:

The change in shape of voltage-sensitive tubule proteins initiates an action potential, leading to the entry of sodium ions (Na+) and the release of calcium ions (Ca²+) from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. These calcium ions bind to troponin, changing its configuration, and thereby revealing the binding sites for myosin on the actin filaments. This initiates the muscle contraction process.

Explanation:

The process leading to muscle contraction begins when the neurotransmitter, Acetylcholine, triggers an action potential within the sarcolemma. This action potential travels down the T Tubule, causing voltage-sensitive tubule proteins to change shape.

As the action potential reaches the membranes within the T Tubule, voltage-gated sodium channels open. This change leads to the depolarization of the membrane as sodium ions (Na+) enter the muscle fiber. This initiates excitation-contraction coupling, and the action potential spreads across the entire muscle fiber's membrane.

The change in voltage stimulates the release of calcium ions (Ca²+) from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, a calcium storage site within the cell. The calcium then binds to troponin, which alters its confirmation and moves tropomyosin off the active sites of actin, allowing the myosin heads to attach, leading to muscle contraction.

The contraction will continue as long as ATP is available to fuel the process, and calcium ions are present in the sarcoplasm.

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