When are lung transplants performed? What are the risks of lung transplants? Explain

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

A lung transplant is a surgery that removes a person’s diseased lung.

The diseased lung is replaced with a healthy lung from a deceased donor.

Explanation:

Answer 2

Lung transplants are typically performed when a person's lungs have irreparable damage and his or her life is in jeopardy.

What is lungs transplantation?

When a person's lungs are irreparably damaged and his or her life is in danger, lung transplantation is usually performed.

While it can be a life-saving procedure, there are some risks involved, and patients must weigh the benefits against the risks.

Close monitoring and follow-up care are required after the transplant to prevent and manage any complications that may arise.

Lung transplants are typically performed when a person's lungs have irreparable damage and his or her life is in jeopardy.

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), pulmonary fibrosis, cystic fibrosis, emphysema, and other severe lung diseases are common reasons for lung transplantation.

When all other treatment options have been exhausted and the patient's quality of life is severely impacted, a lung transplant is considered.

Thus, these are some of the risks of lung transplants.

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Related Questions

The was a massive scientific undertaking meant to identify and sequence all of the genes found in a human cell. this is just one example of , the bran

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This is an example of Human Genome Project. It was a global logical research extend with the objective of deciding the arrangement of nucleotide base matches that make up human DNA, and of recognizing and mapping the greater part of the qualities of the human genome from both a physical and a practical point of view.

The professional organization that brought together physicians, physical educators, and physiologists interested in physical activity and health was the

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The American College of Sports Medicine is the organization that is being described above as they are focused in the study of sports and are usually composed of the physical educators, coaches, physicians, medical doctors, athletic trainers and physiologist who are all involve and have interest in physical activities.

___________ ozone is harmful, damaging plants and human health while ozone at the _________ level screens out mutagenic ultraviolet radiation.

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TROPOSPHERIC ozone is harmful, damaging plants and human health while ozone at the STRATOSPHERE level screen out mutagenic ultraviolet radiation. Ozone is principally found in two areas of the earth atmosphere, at the troposhere and at the stratosphere. The ozone found at the troposheric level is about 10% of the total ozone and is harmful to living organisms while the ozone found at the stratospheric level contributes about 90% of the total ozone and helps to screen out harmful ultraviolet radiations.

The process by which water enters deep into the geosphere is condensation evaporation infiltration transpiration

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Infiltration would be the correct answer
Infiltration is the correct answer. Have a nice day and good luck.

Because the majority of cell differentiation occurs during the ____ phase, this is the time when exposure to teratogens can do the most damage.

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Because the majority of cell differentiation occurs during the EMBRYONIC phase, .................. The embryonic stage of pregnancy is the period after implantation during which all the important organs and structures in the growing fetus is formed. Tetratogens are factors that caused malformation of embryo. Exposure to tetratogens during embryonic stage cause most destructive damages.

In 1996, a cloning experiment produced the sheep named dolly. contrary to the more traditional method of cloning by embryo splitting, dolly was produced by which procedure?

Answers

The procedure where involves somatic cell and reproductive cell. The nucleus is taken from somatic cell of Sheep A. Then, the cell membrane is taken from the reproductive cell from Sheep B which is female. Both nucleus and cell membrane is joined by electric shock. and then the cell will have meiosis process repeatedly. And then, it will put the cell into another sheep, called surrogate mother or much easier Sheep C. Then, the sheep inside the sheep c will have all the characteristics of the sheep A because we take the nucleus from the sheep A.

Why is nitrogen fixation important to all organisms?

It breaks down dead organisms.

It converts nitrogen gas into a usable form for plants.

It converts energy from the sun into a usable form for plants.

It produces much of Earth's oxygen.

Answers

It's because it converts nitrogen gas into a usable form for plants. Most organisms can't use nitrogen gas (N₂) as-is because it doesn't react easily with other compounds (due to the triple bond between the nitrogen atoms). Nitrogen has to be fixed (into ammonia (NH₃)) before it is accessible.

A cell goes through cellular respiration and produces ATP which it then uses to move a molecule across the cell membrane. How does the energy in the original glucose molecule change during this process?

Answers

The answer to your question is : the glucose in the kinetic energy is stored in potential energy in the ATP. After the kinetic energy would be released when the molecule moves across the cell membrane.

Hope this helps you!

Answer: Cellular respiration is a metabolic process that involves the oxidation of biological fuel (glucose) in presence of inorganic electron acceptor ( oxygen) in order to release large amount of energy in the form of ATP( adenosine triphosphate) that is upto 38 molecules.

CO₂ and H₂O are produced as waste products. The energy from ATP is utilized for various cellular activities.

The energy from glucose is changed to ATP through a series of metabolic reactions that occur in three phases that is glycolysis, kreb cycle, and electron transport chain.

One function of glial cells is to

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Glial cells are found in the central nervous system. They are non-neuronal cells, also referred as Neuroglia or supporting cells. As their name says, one of the functions of the glial cells s to physically support neurons and to insulate them. Some other function are: to supply neurons with nutrients and oxygen and to destroy pathogens and remove dead neurons.
Final answer:

Glial cells are essential for the proper function of the nervous system. They guide developing neurons, buffer harmful ions and chemicals, produce myelin sheaths around axons, and protect the nervous system against infections. Various types of glial cells including astrocytes, oligodendrocytes and microglia each play specific roles in these processes.

Explanation:

One function of glial cells is to provide support to the nervous system in various ways. These include guiding developing neurons to their destinations, buffering ions and chemicals that could harm neurons, and producing myelin sheaths around axons to enhance communication between neurons. Of note, the different types of glial cells such as astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, and microglia each play a specific role within the central and peripheral nervous system.

Astrocytes, abundant in the central nervous system, contribute to various functions including the regulation of ion concentration in spaces between cells, intake and breakdown of some neurotransmitters, and the formation of the blood-brain barrier which separates the brain from the circulatory system. Oligodendrocyte cells and Schwann cells play significant roles in the production of myelin in the central and peripheral nervous system respectively, enhancing the speed and efficiency of electrical signals along neurons.

While supporting and protecting neurons, microglia also play an important role in safeguarding the nervous system against infections. All these functions underline the fact that glial cells are critical for the proper functioning of the nervous system.

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The definition that offers the broadest range of substances that can be considered acids is the:

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The broadest definition of acid was given by G. N. Lewis in 1923. He described that an acid (Lewis acid) is any substance, such as the H+ ion, that can accept a pair of non-bonding electrons. In simple words, the definition of Lewis acid is a substance which accepts an electron-pair.

Answer:

Lewis definition or Lewis acid


Explain the connection between the beginning of life and the universal genetic code

Answers

The connection between the beginning of life and the universal genetic code is that they all started with a simple one celled molecule. The Universal genetic code is a common language for almost all organisms to translate nucleotide sequence of deoxyribonucleic acid that is DNA and ribonucleic acid that is RNA to amino acid sequences of proteins. All living Organisms have a genetic code generally represented by the sequence of nucleotides in their DNA.

A genetic code shared by many different organisms provides important evidence for the origin of life on Earth.

What is genetic code?

The genetic code is composed up of basically a three-letter nucleotide combinations referred to as codons, each and every of which corresponds to a different amino acid or stop signal.

Francis Crick and his colleagues pioneered the concept of codons.

Even when organisms do not use the standard code, the differences are minor, such as a change in the amino acid encoded by a specific codon.

A genetic code shared by a variety of organisms provides crucial evidence for the origin of life on Earth.

To direct the synthesis of proteins from amino acids, all known living systems use nucleic acids and the same three-base codons.

In all cells of all organisms, the mRNA codon UUU, for example, codes for phenyl alanine. As a result, genetic code is universal.

Thus, this is the basic connection between beginning of life and the universal genetic code.

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if you were drilling core samples in the ocean basin and the core samples you brought uo has lower levels of biogenic sediment, but all of the upper levels were composed of inorganic sediments, what could you conclude

Answers

Final answer:

If core samples from drilling in the ocean basin have lower levels of biogenic sediment and all upper levels are composed of inorganic sediments, it indicates a shift in environmental conditions over time.

Explanation:

If the core samples brought up from drilling in the ocean basin have lower levels of biogenic sediment but all of the upper levels are composed of inorganic sediments, we can conclude that there has been a shift in environmental conditions over time. Biogenic sediments, such as remains of microorganisms like foraminifera, are typically found in greater abundance in the upper layers of the sediment due to their contribution to the sediment through time. Inorganic sediments, on the other hand, can result from physical erosion or chemical weathering of rocks.

This shift in sediment composition may indicate changes in the prevailing environmental conditions, such as variations in nutrient availability, biological productivity, or current patterns within the ocean basin. These changes could be influenced by factors like climate change, shifts in ocean currents, or even tectonic activity. Additional analysis of the core samples, including chemical and microfossil analysis, can provide further insights into the specific environmental changes that may have occurred.

The nurse questions a health care provider’s decision to not tell the patient about a cancer diagnosis. which ethical principle is the nurse trying to uphold for the patient?

Answers

The ethical principle that the nurse is taking uphold in regards with the patient is autonomy. It is being referred to freedom in which a person has a will of having to make a decision in which he or she disregards other factors that will disrupt his or her decision. When a nurse is having respect in the client's autonomy, the nurse would likely respect the wishes of the client and keep it confidential.

By applying the rules of probability to a Tt × Tt cross, determine the probability of the offspring being heterozygous (Tt). 25 percent 50 percent 75 percent

Answers

The answer is 50 percent

Answer:

50 percent

Explanation:

hope this helps

A healthy immune system depends on an adequate supply of proteins that bind to and neutralize harmful invaders. what are these proteins known as?

Answers

A healthy immune system depends on an adequate supply of proteins that bind to and neutralize harmful invaders. These proteins are known as complements and are composed of 25% plasma proteins. The complements are inactive, unless there is an invader. Invaders activate the protein and PTH (parathyroid hormone) is created between the invader and the protein. 
Final answer:

The proteins that bind to and neutralize harmful invaders in the body are known as antibodies or immunoglobulins. The complement system, consisting of about 20 types of proteins, works alongside these antibodies to destroy pathogens. Neutralization, a process resulting from the action of antibodies, prevents pathogens from infecting cells.

Explanation:

The proteins that bind to and neutralize harmful invaders, generally referred to as pathogens, are known as Antibodies or Immunoglobulins (Ig). These proteins are produced by plasma cells, a type of B cells, in response to an antigen, which is a chemical structure on the surface of the pathogens. Antigens bind to T or B lymphocyte antigen receptors, therefore activating B cells and leading to them differentiating into cells producing antibodies.

Another type of proteins that contribute to the immune response are the ones forming the Complement system. Comprising approximately 20 types of proteins, this system functions in harmony with the adaptive immune system to destroy extracellular pathogens. The complement proteins bind to the surfaces of microorganisms and are particularly attracted to pathogens already marked by antibodies.

The process in which antibodies disable pathogens or toxins is known as Neutralization. It prevents them from attaching to cells, therefore inhibiting potential infections. The neutralizing antibodies play a crucial role in the protective effects of vaccines as they help the body develop immunity against diseases.

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How does rough er differ from smooth er

Answers

Rough er= Rough endoplasmic reticulum ,has ribosomes on the surface ,membranes that contain ribosomes and helps to make proteins  
Smooth er= Smooth endoplasmic reticulum,no ribosomes on surface

parasympathetic and sympathetic refer to the two branches of the

Answers

Parasympathetic and Sympathetic refers to two branches of the Autonomic Nervous System (ANS).

The Parasympathetic Nervous System (PNS) has a general function of controlling bodily functions such as homeostasis and the body's response during rest.

The Sympathetic Nervous System (SNS) on the other hand refers to the body's response to perceived danger.

Each of these result in different bodily responses.  In the case of the PNS these include: a decreased heart rate, bronchial tube constriction, relaxation of muscles and the constriction of th pupils.  When it comes to the SNS, these responses include: increased cardiovascular contraction (leading to an increased heart rate), dilation of the bronchial tubes, contraction of muscles and dilation of the pupils/ 

  
Final answer:

Parasympathetic and sympathetic are two branches of the autonomic nervous system. The sympathetic division prepares the body for 'fight-or-flight' during stress, while the parasympathetic aids 'rest and digest' during calm periods. They jointly maintain homeostasis.

Explanation:

Parasympathetic and sympathetic refer to the two branches of the autonomic nervous system. The sympathetic division prepares the body for stressful situations, invoking a 'fight-or-flight' response, and the parasympathetic division is activated in restful periods, often associated with 'rest and digest.' These systems work in tandem to maintain the body's homeostasis or balance, controlling internal organs and functions that are generally not under voluntary control. An example of their cooperative operation is seen in heart rate regulation - the sympathetic system increases heart rate, while the parasympathetic system decreases it.

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Give example of different ways in which observation are used in scientific inquiry

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You can note color, height, length, width, diameter, shape , and texture.

Two fruit flies produce the following generation: 33 flies with recessive vestigial wings (ww) and 87 flies with normal wings (WW or Ww). What can you conclude about the parents of this generation?

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The ratio of flies with recessive vestigial wings to normal wings is about 1:3, so the conclusion about the parents is that they both have normal wings, but are both Ww.

Why do a chicken embryo and a cow embryo look very similar even though the adults do not

Answers

The answer is : They are distantly related so their development is similar. They have different genetic materials.

Answer:

Embryonic development is the initial stage in organism's  life. Many animal and birds species shows similar embryonic growth. This indicates that they are evolved from a common ancestor. Differences in features and structures in adulthood is because of genetic information present in the embryo and the process of subsequent adaptations for the purpose of evolution.

The sea breeze effect happens because:
a. there’s nothing to block wind on the open ocean
b. the land heats up faster than the ocean
c. the ocean cools faster than the land
d. when the wind reaches land, it may be blocked by tall buildings or mountains

Answers

B.
The land heats up faster than the water 

Comment on the fact that at present in South Africa it is legal for big game hunters to shoot rhinos as trophies.

Answers

It is true that in South Africa (and also Namibia) it is still legal for big game hunters to shoot rhinos for trophies but this allowance is strictly limited to 5 rhinos per year for both countries and these are only for old, post-reproductive bulls. This small quota is most likely related to the fact that 3 out of 5 rhino species is on the critically endangered species list. 

According to the text, the work of _______ revolutionized our understanding of sexual anatomy and sexual responding.

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The work of MASTERS AND JOHNSON revolutionized our understanding of sexual anatomy and sexual responding. The Masters and Johnson research team are the first group to carry out research about the nature of human sexual response and the diagnosis and treatments of sexual disorders. 

The tube leading from the bladder to the outside of the body is the:

Answers

I believe it's called the urethra

Which of the following would present the strongest evidence in a commercial promoting a new pain reliever?

A:Testimony of more than three users endorsing the drug
B:
Mention of the magazines that have published details of the drug
C:
 Introduction by a famous doctor who claims the drug works
D:
Details of testing conducted by an unbiased group of scientists

Answers

Answer: D: Details of testing conducted by an unbiased group of scientists

Explanation:

People are more likely to listen and beleive a commercial that provides the results of testing that was conducted by scientists that aren't biased, which means they aren't one sided and are trying to prove that what they are trying to sell is authentic.

The option that would present the strongest evidence in a commercial promoting a new pain reliever is the details of testing conducted by an unbiased group of scientists. Thus, the correct option is D.

What is a Pain reliever?

A Pain reliever may be defined as a medication that declines or relieve headaches, sore muscles, arthritis, or other aches and pains very effectively.

A commercial promotion involves detailed testing which is significantly conducted by an impartial group of scientists to present the strongest evidence.

Therefore, the correct option for this question is D.

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By gaining weight slowly and steadily, you add less body fat and more ____________________.

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When you gain weight steadily and slowly, you add less body fat and more muscles. It is because if fat lessens, the one who will replace or takes place of the fat that has been lessen will be the muscles. That is why people who undergo to trainings in gym or having to conduct exercise will likely burn fat and these fats will be replaced by muscles.

What determines the strength or weakness of a muscle contraction?

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Muscle contraction involves the activation of the tension generating sites in the muscle fibers. The strength and weakness of a muscle contraction is determined by the degree of motor unit recruitment, the degree of muscle cross sectional area and muscle stretch, the force of the contraction and the velocity of the contraction. 

Final answer:

The strength of muscle contraction is primarily determined by the number of muscle fibers that contract, the number of cross-bridges formed between myosin and actin, and the optimal overlap of thick and thin filaments within sarcomeres.

Explanation:

The strength or weakness of a muscle contraction is determined by a few key factors. First, the number of muscle fibers that contract influences the strength of the muscular force. When each sarcomere (the functional unit of a muscle fiber) shortens, the muscle fiber contracts. This all-or-nothing response means that a muscle fiber is either contracted fully or not contracted at all. Therefore, when more fibers contract simultaneously, the generated force is greater.

Furthermore, the strength of contraction is affected by the number of cross-bridges formed between actin and myosin within the muscle fiber. The formation of cross-bridges is essential for the sliding mechanism that causes muscle contraction. The overlap between the thick (myosin) and thin (actin) filaments in each sarcomere dictates the maximum number of myosin heads that can form cross-bridges, influencing the overall tension and strength of the contraction. Optimal strength is achieved when this overlap is at its greatest, facilitating the highest number of cross-bridges.

The length of the muscle fiber also plays a role in the force generation of a muscle. The length-tension relationship indicates that there is an optimal sarcomere length where the force produced is maximal. When a muscle is either overly stretched or compressed, its ability to generate maximum force is compromised.

Cam plants are adapted to live in hot, dry environments because they __________.

Answers

they are desert plants that don't need lots of water.
 

CAM plants are adapted to hot, dry environments by utilizing nocturnal CO₂ uptake and storing it as an acid, which allows them to perform photosynthesis during the day without opening their stomata, thus conserving water.

CAM plants are adapted to live in hot, dry environments because they only open their stomata at night to minimize water loss. This process, known as Crassulacean Acid Metabolism or CAM photosynthesis, allows these plants to take in CO₂ at night and store it in the form of acid within the central vacuole. During the daytime, when the stomata are closed to conserve water, the stored CO₂ is released from the acid and utilized in the Calvin cycle to produce sugars.

Some examples of CAM plants include cacti, pineapples, epiphytic bromeliads, sedums, and the "ice plant", all of which are well-suited to survive in environments with high daytime temperatures, intense sunlight, and low soil moisture. Unlike C3 and C4 plants, CAM plants reduce the risk of photorespiration by fixing carbon dioxide at night, which is a key adaptation for survival in arid conditions.

Biological organization extends beyond the organism to include which of the following?

A.populations,communities, and ecosystems

B. DNA,RNA , and protein

C. Cells, tissues, and organs

Answers

The answer is C trust me i know 
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Answer:

the right answer is (populations, communities, and ecosystems)

Explanation:

Most starch digestion and breakdown of disaccharides occurs in which section of the gi tract?

Answers

Final answer:

Most starch digestion and the breakdown of disaccharides occur in the small intestine, involving various enzymes, with monosaccharides absorbed into the bloodstream.

Explanation:

Most starch digestion and the breakdown of disaccharides occurs primarily in the small intestine. Initially, in the mouth, salivary amylase starts the breakdown of starch into maltose and dextrins. The digestion of starch then continues in the small intestine. The pancreatic juices, which contain pancreatic amylase, further break down starch and glycogen into maltose. Enzymes such as maltase, sucrase, and lactase, located in the brush border of the small intestinal wall, cleave these disaccharides into monosaccharides like glucose, fructose, and galactose, which are then absorbed into the bloodstream.

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