Answer: The most effective treatments for schizophrenia are currently antipsychotics.
Explanation:
Schizophrenia is a serious mental disorder characterized by the interpretation of reality abnormally. The causes for which a person can have schizophrenia are unknown but research shows that genetic factors play an important role when it comes to developing a disease.
Schizophrenia has no cure, treatments are focused on helping to improve the patient's quality of life. That is, the person can control the symptoms of the disease. For many years various medications have been used for the treatment of schizophrenia. Antipsychotics are the most used due to the improvements that people present.
There are the first generation antipsychotics, such as:
- Chlorpromazine
- Fluphenazine
- Haloperidol
- Perphenazine
These antipsychotics have very frequent and very significant side effects such as sedation, drowsiness, dizziness, and symptoms similar to those that a person with Parkinson's disease can have such as stiffness, tremors, and involuntary muscle contractions. The advantage that these medicines offer is their low cost.
There are also second-generation antipsychotics, such as:
- Clozapine
- Olanzapine
- Risperidone
- Ziprasidone
- Iloperidone
These antipsychotics take advantage of the first generation because the side effects are less risky, but their cost is higher.
Myasthenia Gravis:_______.A- chronic condition where nerve impulses are not properly transmitted to the musclesB- leads to progressive muscular weakness and paralysis, if it affects respiratory muscles, it can be fatalC- cause is unknown, but thought to be autoimmuneD- no cure, treatment is supportive
Answer:
B- leads to progressive muscular weakness and paralysis, if it affects respiratory muscles, it can be fatal
Explanation:
Myasthenia Gravis is a term originated from Greek word and Latin word, With Myasthenia coming from a Greek word which is further slipt into two: 'Mys' meaning muscle and 'astheneia' meaning weakness. 'Gravis' on the other hand is a Latin Word meaning serious.
Myasthenia Gravis is an autoimmune neuromuscular disease that affects the skeletal muscles leading to muscle weakness and paralysis, it effect is relative which can vary from mild to severe(fatal). It is capable of affecting the muscles of the eyes, face (by the emergence of droopy eyelids and mouth) and respiratory muscles.
This is because the muscles of the respiratory system (specifically the diaphragm (is a thin skeletal muscle that sits at the base of the chest and separates the abdomen from the chest)) participate actively in inhalation and exhalation by assisting in expansion and contraction of the thoracic cavity (chest cavity).
It can be treated by a medical practitioner with medication (drugs) or by surgery.
Hence, from the aforementioned, Myasthenia Gravis leads to progressive muscular weakness and paralysis, if it affects respiratory muscles, it can be fatal.
While working at a local food processing plant, a flying object penetrates an employee's right eye. The employee is admitted to an emergency department. After administering pain medication, which question is most important for the nurse to ask?
1."Does the company provide worker's compensation?"
2."Do you wear glasses?"
3."Did you have visual problems before the injury?"
4."Are you afraid?"
Answer:
Do you wear glasses?
Explanation:
The proper safety requirement must be provided to the employee for the prevention of any injury at the work place. The employee safety should be considered one of the most important factor at the work place.
The employees that are working at food processing plant must be cautious and should protect them from the chemicals and machine equipment. The employees should have given medication after the injury in right eye. The nurse must known known whether the employee wear glasses or not as the glasses protect the eye and proper power of glass should be given to the employee.
Thus, the correct answer is option (2).
Volleyball helps people reach their fitness goals by __________.
a. using team work to win.
b. improving balance and agility.
c. improving spiritual health.
d. encouraging competition.
Answer:b
Explanation:
Heavy reliance on the use of technology in diagnosis and treatment is a characteristic of the __________ healing system.
Answer: Western Biomedicine
Explanation:
Western Biomedicine which is also called the following; conventional medicine, mainstream medicine, allopathic medicine and orthodox medicine is a modern Western scientific approach with a sum total of knowledge, skills and practices used for the diagnosis and treatment of illnesses.
This system is used by medical doctors and health professionals (like pharmacists and nurses) to treat diseases using medicines, surgery or radiation.
In the preindustrial period, what was the main role of dispensaries
Answer:
"Dispensaries provide a basic medical care to ambulatory patients."
Explanation:
A place or room where something is dispensed. A room specifically designed for the dispensing of drugs; a pharmacy. An institution that dispenses medical supplies and advice. A dispensary is an workplace in a institute, hospital, industrial plant, or other group that distributes capsules, medical supplies, and in about cases even medical and dental conduct. In a traditional dispensary set-up, a pharmacist dispenses medication as per prescription or order form.
Increased appetite and thirst may indicate that a client with chronic pancreatitis has developed diabetes melitus. Which of the following explains the cause of this secondary diabetes
Answer:
Dysfunction of the pancreatic islet cells .
Explanation:
The normal homeostasis maintenance is important for the normal physiology of the body. Pancreatitis means the infection in the pancreas that can affect the body homeostais.
The insulin and glucagon hormone is released from the alpha and beta cells of the pancreas. The irregular secretion of the insulin hormone can cause diabetes mellitus. This condition arises when the beta cells of the pancreas are not functioning properly.
Thus, the answer is dysfunction of the pancreatic islet cells .
Final answer:
Chronic pancreatitis can lead to secondary diabetes mellitus due to the damage and dysfunction of the beta cells in the pancreas, resulting in inadequate insulin production. This leads to increased appetite and thirst as symptoms of high blood glucose levels.
Explanation:
When a client with chronic pancreatitis develops diabetes mellitus, it is considered secondary diabetes. Secondary diabetes refers to the development of diabetes as a result of another medical condition or factor. In the case of chronic pancreatitis, the cause of this secondary diabetes is the damage and dysfunction of the pancreas, particularly the beta cells that produce insulin.
The beta cells in the pancreas are responsible for producing insulin, which helps regulate blood glucose levels. However, chronic pancreatitis can lead to the destruction or dysfunction of these beta cells, resulting in inadequate insulin production. Without sufficient insulin, blood glucose levels increase, leading to symptoms such as increased appetite and thirst.
During a weightlifting event, a participant suffered a painful injury involving a connective tissue pad on the lateral border of his left knee. Which structure is most likely the one that got damaged?
Answer:
The correct answer would be - the lateral meniscus.
Explanation:
The lateral meniscus is the band or the pad of connective tissues that are fibrocartilaginous in nature. These tissues are located on the lateral side of the knee.
The lateral meniscus is one of two, the other one called the medial meniscus, menisci of the knee. The lateral meniscus is the larger menisci than the other and covers a larger area of the articulate surface.
Thus, the correct answer is - The lateral meniscus.
In the context of behavior change strategies, what aims to change a client's thoughts and attitudes?
Answer:
d. cognitive strategies
Explanation:
Cognitive strategies are general domain processes for the control of the functioning of mental activities, including the techniques, skills and abilities that the person uses consciously or unconsciously to manage, control, improve and direct their efforts in cognitive aspects, such as processing, attention and execution, in learning. They are critical in the acquisition and use of specific information and interact closely with the content of learning. Cognitive strategies are self-management skills that the student (or person) acquires, presumably over a period of several years, to govern their own process of attending, learning, thinking and solving problems.
In general, cognitive strategies are understood as all those sequential behaviors and procedures, planned and oriented by rules, that make it easier for a person to learn, think and be creative, in order to make decisions and solve problems.
1. what role do municipal governments often play in facility management
a. selling tickets
b. partially funding facility construction
c. ensuring patron safety
d. providing event security
2. what is the job title of the person responsible for managing a venue?
a. general manager
b. venue owner
c. facility manager
d. grounds crew
3. what is the main source of profit for venues hosting special events?
a. stadium rental fees
b. seat licensing fees
c. ticket sales
d. advertising revenues
I need an answer within 24 hours
Answer:1. B. Partially funding facility construction
2. C. Facility manager
3. A. Stadium rental fees
Explanation:
Partially funding facility construction is done by municipal governments in facility management. Hence, option B is correct.
What is management?The process of completing the labor or task necessary for accomplishing an organization's goals in an effective and efficient way is referred to as management. The management functions are implied by the process. Planning, organizing, staffing, directing, and managing are therefore involved.
Management styles can be divided into three major categories: autocratic, democratic, and laissez-faire. There are particular subtypes of management styles that fall under these categories, each with advantages and disadvantages. Any organization needs managers to accomplish its objectives. They serve as the foundation of any business and are responsible for making sure everything works properly
The facility manager is the person responsible for managing a venue. Hence, option C is correct. Ticket sales is the main source of profit for venue hosting special events. Hence, option C is correct.
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Samantha learns that after suffering a traumatic brain injury, her brother Tobias has significant injury to his thalamus. What can we anticipate will be the impact on Tobias in the future?a. Tobias will not be able to speak but will understand what is being said to him.
b. Tobias will be conscious but is likely to have long-term memory loss.
c. Tobias will most likely suffer from irreversible brain death.
d. Tobias will likely make a full recovery, but will have problems with impulse control.
Final answer:
Tobias, with an injury to his thalamus, is likely to be conscious but may experience long-term memory loss, along with difficulties in sensory perception, motor functions, and emotional responses. So the correct option is b.
Explanation:
We can anticipate that Tobias, who has suffered significant injury to his thalamus after a traumatic brain injury, may face a range of challenges. The thalamus plays a critical role in processing and relaying sensory information to the appropriate areas of the cerebral cortex, as well as in the regulation of consciousness, sleep, and alertness. Damage to the thalamus could result in difficulties with sensory perception, problems with motor functions, disruptions in consciousness, and issues with memory and emotional responses. Therefore, the impact on Tobias in the future is most likely to be:
Tobias will be conscious but is likely to have long-term memory loss.While recovery outcomes can vary based on the severity of the injury and the treatment administered, injuries to the thalamus typically involve complex cognitive and sensory-processing deficits rather than irreversible brain death or impulse control problems alone.
The school nurse is presenting a lecture to adolescents to teach them how conception occurs. Which statement by the nurse would accurately describe this process?
Answer:
-"Conception usually occurs when the ovum is in the outer third of the fallopian tube."
Explanation:
Conception is the process of fertilization of ovum and sperm forming a zygote. The sperm cells from male determines the sex of the fetus. An ovum carries an X chromosome, whereas, the sperm may carry either X or Y chromosome. If an X chromosome fertilizes with the ovum, a female child is born and if a Y chromosome fertilizes with the ovum, a male child is born. Conception occurs when the ovum is in the outer third of Fallopian tube and aids the fusion with sperms coming up into the Fallopian tube.
Answer:
Right answer: Conception usually occurs when the ovum is in the outer third of the fallopian tube
Explanation:
The first option is wrong: "Human life begins with the union of two cells: the zygote and the sperm." Because human life begins with the union of the ovum and the sperm which is then called zygote. The second option is wrong: "At the time of conception, the ovum determines the sex of the baby." Ii is actually the sperm what determines the sex. The third option is wrong too: "The ovum carries the Y chromosome, and the sperm carries an X or Y chromosome." Actually the ovum carries X chromosome.
In a psychological experiment, the experimental factor that is manipulated by the investigator is called the ________ variable.
Answer: independent Explanation:
The manipulated factor in a psychological experiment is the independent variable, which is changed by the researcher to measure its effect on the dependent variable.
In a psychological experiment, the experimental factor that is manipulated by the investigator is called the independent variable. The independent variable is the situation created by the experimenter through experimental manipulations.
It is the factor, property, or condition that is purposely changed in the experiment to determine its impact on the dependent variable, which is the outcome that is measured. For a clear experiment, other variables (control variables) are held constant to isolate the effects of the independent variable alone.
__________ causes are not an origin of mental retaration. A. Organic B. Environmental C. Adaptive D. Unknown Please select the best answer from the choices provided A B C D
Answer:
c - adaptive
Explanation:
Phenylketonuria children are advised to avoid specific foods containing phenylalanine due to a dysfunction in the degradation of amino acids that contain:
ANSWER:
Phenylketonuria children are advised to avoid specific foods due to a dysfunction in the degradation of amino acids that contains phenylalanine.
Explanation:
Phenylalanine is one of the amino acids that can be found in specific foods like protein diet. Phenylalanine ought to be broken down in a form that the body can use for its normal activity. A dysfunction by the body to breakdown phenylalanine results in elevated levels which results in the condition known as phenylketonuria. Phenylketonuria is a genetic disorder that can be inherited, in which the body lacks an enzyme known as phenylalanine hydroxylase that is responsible for the break down of phenylalanine.
Children with Phenylketonuria (PKU) avoid phenylalanine-containing foods due to a deficiency in the phenylalanine hydroxylase enzyme, which leads to an inability to metabolize this amino acid properly, resulting in possible severe health consequences. Thus, there is dysfunction in the degradation of amino acids that contain sequence to form phenylalanine hydroxylase enzyme.
Children with Phenylketonuria (PKU) are advised to avoid foods containing phenylalanine because they have a dysfunction in the degradation of amino acids, specifically due to a mutation in the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH).
PKU is an inherited metabolic disorder where individuals cannot metabolize phenylalanine effectively. This leads to a build-up of phenylalanine in the body, which can cause severe symptoms such as intellectual disability, seizures, and poor bone strength. PKU is generally diagnosed through newborn screening tests, and managing the condition involves following a strict diet that limits phenylalanine, found commonly in high-protein foods and certain artificial sweeteners like aspartame.
The special diet for individuals with PKU focuses on restricting phenylalanine intake, often requiring the elimination of foods high in protein and certain diet products. In addition to nutritional restrictions, supplementation with tyrosine is often recommended, as tyrosine is normally synthesized from phenylalanine, which cannot be processed properly in those with PKU.
"That person is anxious." "How do you know they are anxious?" "Because they have anxiety disorder." "How do you know they have an anxiety disorder?" "Because they are anxious!" This is an example of ___________.1. Mentalistic explanation of behavior2. Circular Reasoning3. Experimental Analysis of Behavior4. Nominal Fallacy
Answer: 2). Circular Reasoning.
Explanation:
Circular reasoning is a logical fallacy and is said to occur when the end of an argument comes back to its origin without haven proven itself. That is, when a claim is stated and reworded again as the reason for the claim without any detailed explanation.
Women who masturbated to orgasm during adolescence generally have less difficulty reaching orgasm during intercourse than women who have never masturbated.True / False.
To ensure he gets the most he can out of his cruise vacation, night after night Toby stays up late. He tries to sleep during the day, but his cabin is too noisy and he suffers from REM sleep deprivation. Toby can expect to experience REM _____ during his first several nights back home.
Answer:
REM REBOUND
Explanation:
REM deprivation boosts drive-related behaviors like hyperplasia and raises baseline arousal. Neurotransmitter levels, as well as physiological and psychological processes, are also impacted. Unknown mechanisms may be at play in these alterations.
What are the REM sleep deprivation?Numerous research on both people and animals demonstrate that REM sleep deprivation affects memory development.
However, because these frequently co-occur, memory issues linked to REM sleep deprivation may instead be caused by general sleep disruption.
Over time, your body will adjust to the routine, making it easier for you to fully enter the light, deep, and REM stages of sleep. You could even discover that waking up is less difficult. To relieve stress, find artistic outlets.
Therefore, while sleep deprivation lasting more than 96 hours led to considerable REM rebound sleep, sleep deprivation lasting 12 to 24 hours boosted both REM and NREM sleep.
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A psychologist develops a test to measure individual differences in social anxiety. She obtains social anxiety scores from a large group of participants, then tries to predict how those scoring high on the test will act in a social situation as compared to those scoring low. This psychologist probably would be identified with which approach to personality?
Answer:
Trait Approach
Explanation:
Trait Approach -
It refers to the method adapted in order to study the personality of the human being , is referred to as trait approach.
The traits under consult are the pattern of behavior , emotions and thoughts .
This method is helpful to study a human being , with respect to the behavior and emotions.
Hence , from the given information of the question,
The correct term is trait approach.
Because Keza is a college student, people expect her to spend a lot of time studying. The expectation that college students should study a lot is a ______.
College students face high academic expectations regarding studying time and achievement.
Explanation:High academic expectations are a social norm associated with college students. These expectations include dedicating ample time to studying, completing coursework, and graduating successfully. Students are also expected to exhibit self-discipline and focus on their educational goals.
The protection from infection received when individuals susceptible to a particular disease live in a population where many individuals are immune is referred to as__________.
Answer:
The correct answer is herd immunity.
Explanation:
Herd immunity is the resistance against a contagious disease provided by the immune individuals which makes the major part of the population to few susceptible individuals in the community.
So as most of the population is immune to the disease therefore that disease is not able to overpass these immune individuals and the susceptible person is protected indirectly from that contagious disease. By vaccinating most of the people against a disease we can gain herd immunity. So the right answer is herd immunity.
Children at the ______ morality stage of Piaget's moral reasoning view justice and rules as unchangeable and not under the control of people.
Answer:
The correct answer is - heteronomous stage.
Explanation:
Heteronomous stage is the stage of the Piaget's theory of moral development of the child. It is a stage which is characterized by the approximately at age of of 6 to 10 years of age.
In the stage of heternomous stage the child develop the morality with the rules as unchangable and not under the control of people.
Thus, the correct answer is - heteronomous stage.
You have the following known facts: Smoking causes accumulation of materials in the lungs, thereby decreasing oxygen-absorbing capability of the lungs. Long-term smoking causes more accumulation of materials in the lungs. Decreased lung capacity increases the workload of the heart. Which of the following hypotheses can you make from these observations?
A. Stopping smoking eliminates heart problems within two years.
B. Stopping smoking eliminates lung problems within two years.
C. New smokers have poorer heart health than long-term smokers.
D. Long-term smokers have poorer heart health than non-smokers.
E. People who never smoke will never develop lung problems.
Answer:
D
Explanation:
According to the details, long term smoking causes more accumulation of materials in the lungs, which increases the workload of the heart. So, D is the correct answer.
A pregnant woman at her first prenatal visit asks the nurse if it is safe to have sex during her pregnancy. Which client statement alerts the nurse to the need for further teaching?
Answer:
Can you put the choices?
Explanation:
_____ diagnosis represent those situations in which the client does not have a problem but is at a point where one can attain a higher level of health.
Answer:
The correct answer is - wellness nursing diagnosis.
Explanation:
Wellness nursing diagnosis or the health promotion diagnosis is the clinical representation of the situations the client have no health or clinical problem but he or she he still want to promote or increase his/ her level of the health to a higher level.
It can be understand as one's own judgment to be more healthy by motivating and desiring without having any health issue. It can include a community, family or individual level.
Thus, the correct answer is - wellness nursing diagnosis.
Answer:
Wellness Nursing Diagnoses.
Explanation:
The nursing diagnosis may be defined as the process of the diagnosis of the human health. The diagnosis involves at the level of the community, health, individual or might for the group.
Health promotion diagnoses is also known as the wellness nursing diagnoses in which the individual do not have any health problem. This diagnoses is mainly done for the client to develop moral support and can raise the hope in the client to attain the better health.
Thus, the answer is wellness Nursing Diagnoses.
High school sophomore Lilly is concerned about getting proper meals during the summer. What should she do? Sign up for WIC (Women, Infants, and Children). Join a summer sports league. Contact the Let's Move! Initiative. Sign up for the summer lunch program.
Answer:
Sign up for the summer lunch program or just go to any school that is offering free lunch and go during the times designated.
Explanation:
Because it is brodda
You hear a news report about a new asthma treatment. What would you want to know before you asked your doctor if this treatment was right for you?
Answer:
I would want to know how randomly the clinical trial test was done and how effective it is.
Explanation:
Asthma is a life threatening disease, a chronic one at that, it causes difficultly in breathing. Asthma is caused by respiratory infections.
Although Asthma can not be cured hundred(100) percent, it still has medications for the management of the disease. These medications provide quick and fast relief towards Asthma attacks. One of the important Medications is the corticosteroid which is usually inhaled through nebulizers. As some of these medications can be inhaled some can also be taken as injections or as pills. The medications are to prevent inflammations.
If i am in the condition, as an Asthmatic patient and I heard about the new treatment, I WOULD WANT to know if it is not a trick to MAKE PEOOLE WITH THE CONDITION to go for it and take their money, and I would also like to know how effective the new treatment is
If the results of many studies and much data support the original explanation about a relationship between caffeine intake and behavior, a ____________ is formed.
Answer:
Theory
Explanation:
If the results of many studies and much data support the original explanation about a relationship between caffeine intake and behavior, a theory is formed.
A theory is formed when experiments have been held and the data collected has been observed and tested on. After testing the hypothesis and conducting experimentation, a theory is formed which can later be converted into a scientific law.
A client has recently been diagnosed with cancer. The client says, "What did I do wrong to get such a disease?" Which nonverbal processes, along with the client's statement, would convey a congruent message? Select all that apply.
a) A sad facial expression
b) An erect, confident posture
c) A cheerful expression
d) A fearful tone of voice
e) A sarcastic tone of voice
Answer:
A. a sad facial expression
You have been called to attend a birth and are the only healthcare provider responsible for the management of the newborn in the room. When should you first call for additional help?
A) Before birth, when you have identified the presence of a perinatal risk factor that increases the likelihood of requiring neonatal resuscitation.
B) After birth, when you determine the baby requires positive-pressure ventilation.
C) After birth, when the obstetrician or labor nurse suggests you need additional help.
D) After birth, when you determine the baby requires intubation.
Answer:
Before birth, when you have identified the presence of a perinatal risk factor that increases the likelihood of requiring neonatal resuscitation.
Explanation:
The parturition may be defined as the acts of the giving birth to the child. The fully developed fetus is taken out from the mother's womb and the parturition is controlled by the hormone as well.
After the birth of the child, proper health care and medical prescription of the infant is done by the health care provider. In case of any emergency or the medical situation before the birth the child must require the neonatal resuscitation.
Thus, the correct answer is option (A).
In emergency neonatal care, it's best to call for additional help before birth when you've identified perinatal risk factors that increase the likelihood of resuscitation. Waiting until after birth may cause critical delays in the baby's care.
Explanation:In emergency newborn care and resuscitation, timing and identifying likely problems are essential. Therefore, the best time to call for additional help is before birth, when you have identified a perinatal risk factor that increases the likelihood of requiring neonatal resuscitation (Option A). Recognizing signs of potential complications, such as maternal infection, preterm labor, or fetal distress, allows you to activate additional support channels in advance. Holding off till after birth could lead to critical delays especially as newborns can deteriorate rapidly. Your additional help in the form of a team can then be ready to assist with the proper tools for resuscitation procedures like positive-pressure ventilation or intubation if needed immediately after birth.
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A building is said to be suffering from Sick Building Syndrome (SBS) when what percentage of the occupants complain of a general array of symptoms that abate after leaving the building?
Answer:
20%.
Explanation:
SBS (Sick Building Syndrome) may be defined as the medical condition in which most of the individual of the building shows symptoms of illness without unknown reason.
Any building to be categorized as SBS require the some percentage of the individuals should show the symptom. This percentage is atleast 20% of the occupants of the building. These symptoms might gone away after the people leave the building.
Thus, the answer is 20 %.