Which would be a cause of distress?
What contribution did Florence Nightingale make to the medical field
Answer:
She is known as the founder of modern nursing for her valuable contributions both in hospitals in Britain and in field hospitals in wars
Explanation:
In 1853 she became a nurse supervisor at a charity hospital in London, where she introduced efficient technical and organizational innovations; With his work he began to overcome the traditional care model, based on good feelings and religious sectarianism, and replaced by scientific health care, which required a rigorous training of nurses.
In 1854-56 he became famous by organizing a nurses service for British soldiers of the Crimean War: in the field hospital of Usküdar or Escútari (Turkey) he achieved spectacular health improvements, facing the prejudices of military doctors and poverty means that the army used to treat soldiers. He regularly visited the wounded during the night, which earned him the nickname "the lady of the lamp."
Upon his return to England, he took advantage of that popularity to exert influence in the high spheres of power, obtaining the support of Queen Victoria I. He published an exhaustive report entitled Notes on health, efficacy and hospital administration in the British Army (1858 ), and, deploying a frantic activity, he achieved the reform of British military health, the progressive extension of his model to civil health, the introduction of health reforms in India and the creation of a nurses school (1860). Since 1861, however, he remained retired due to health problems, as a result of the effort made during the Crimean War.
Most people don't think about the dangers that may be in their home or work environments. What kinds of dangers can people encounter indoors? What can people do to prevent accidents at work or at home? << Read Less
Answer:
Actually, this is true, most of the people don't realize that indoors we encounter several risks that attempt against our health and life.
A big example of this is Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, which is from burned fuel from the kitchen, automobiles and house heating. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), CO poisoning is highly dangerous because its characteristics, odorless and colorless. So, basically, people don't realize that they are being poisoned.
The high risk of this, it's because indoors, all domestic activities we perform are based on fuel, like stove, lanterns, gas range, and others. The symptoms of CO poisoning are headache, dizziness, weakness, nausea and vomiting.
Supplemental oxygen without assisted ventilation would most likely be administered to patients: select one:
a. who are semiconscious with shallow respirations.
b. with difficulty breathing and adequate tidal volume.
c. who have accessory muscle use and slow breathing.
d. with rapid respirations and a reduced tidal volume.
Supplemental oxygen without assisted ventilation is most likely administered to patients with difficulty breathing but adequate tidal volume, as this suggests they can breathe independently but may be experiencing insufficient oxygen absorption. So, the correct option is b.
Explanation:Supplemental oxygen without assisted ventilation would most likely be administered to patients with difficulty breathing and adequate tidal volume (option b). This is because supplemental oxygen therapy is typically utilized for patients who have lung conditions that prevent adequate absorption of oxygen, but who still have a sufficient tidal volume, indicating their ability to breathe independently is relatively uncompromised.
Cases where the patient has shallow respirations or accessory muscle use suggest that assisted ventilation may be needed due to insufficient breathing capability, and patients with rapid respirations and a reduced tidal volume may also require additional assistance beyond simple oxygen supplementation.
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1. At least what percentage of children in a care home or facility must receive child care assistance or qualifly for free or reduced lunch to allow particpation in the Child and Adult Care Food Program
A. 10 %
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 25%
E. 50%
2. Picky eaters will learn to become more adventurous eaters with:
A. Meals from Home
B. Family style meals
C. Plated Meals
D. Menus planned to include only their favorite foods
E. Rewards for trying foods
3. Meat alternatives are NOT allowed in USDA food plans
A. True
B. False
4. A sponsoring organization is required:
A. For all child care facilities participating in the CACFP
B. For child care homes participating in the CACFP
C. For non-profits participating in the CACFP
D. Sponsoring organization are not required
E. For all-profit child care homes and facilities
5. Child care providers are not required to participate in the child and adult care food program.
A. True
B. False
6. Record keeping requirements for participation in the child and adult food program.
A. Menus
B. Attendance Records
C. Meal Count & Attendance Records
D. Menus & Cost Documentation
E. Menus, Meal Counts, Attendance records & cost documentation
7. Family Meal Style:
A. Discourage trying new foods
B. Increase food waste
C. Offer children a variety of learning opportunities
D. Works best in larger facilities
E. Require Adult size table and utensils
8. Infant meals are reimbursable:
A. Regardless of who provides formula or breast milk
B. If the caregiver provides formula
C. Only for formula fed babies
D. Only for breast fed babies
E. Only after infants begin solid foods
9. Children can practice manners and self-care skills in family-style meals.
A. True
B. False
10. Infants should begin solid foods when:
A. When they are 4 months old
B. When they are 6 months old
C. They are developmentally ready and parents indicate a desire to start solids
D. When they are 8 months old
E. When they are 2 months old
11. Centers not participating in food programs are not subject to food regulations
A. True
B. False
12. Pre-Plated Meals
A. Increase food waste
B. Decrease food waste
C. Slow meal preparations
D. Enable children to clean up
E. Increase children control over there meals
PLEASE HELP DUE TONIGHT
Final answer:
The Child and Adult Care Food Program (CACFP) requires at least 25% of children in a care home or facility to qualify for assistance to participate. Meat alternatives are allowed in USDA food plans and sponsoring organizations are needed for child care homes. Additionally, record-keeping, learning opportunities through family meal styles, the timing of introducing solids to infants, food regulations applicability, and benefits of pre-plated meals are discussed.
Explanation:
The subject is related to Child and Adult Care Food Program (CACFP) regulations, healthy eating practices for children, and the nutritional policies relevant to child care facilities. The correct answers to the multiple-choice questions are as follows:
1.For a care home or facility to participate in the Child and Adult Care Food Program, at least 25% of children must receive child care assistance or qualify for free or reduced lunch (Option D).
2.Picky eaters can learn to become more adventurous eaters with family-style meals (Option B), as this approach encourages trying new foods.
3.Meat alternatives are allowed in USDA food plans (Option B False).
4.A sponsoring organization is required for child care homes participating in the CACFP (Option B).
5.Child care providers are not required to participate in the Child and Adult Care Food Program (Option A True).
6.Record-keeping requirements for participation in the CACFP include menus, meal counts, attendance records, and cost documentation (Option E).
7.Family Meal Style offers children a variety of learning opportunities (Option C).
8.Infant meals are reimbursable regardless of who provides formula or breast milk (Option A).
9.Children can practice manners and self-care skills in family-style meals (Option A True).
10.Infants should begin solid foods when they are developmentally ready and parents indicate a desire to start solids (Option C).
11.Centers not participating in food programs are still subject to food regulations (Option B False).
12.Pre-Plated Meals enable children to clean up after themselves (Option D).
In the game of table tennis a legal serve must bounce on the server's side before it bounces on the other side of the table.
The rules of service in table tennis align with the physics concepts of gravity and momentum, influencing the ball to primarily bounce on the server's side before landing on the opponent's end. The placement of the racket's stroke also significantly impacts the ball's velocity and direction.
Explanation:In table tennis, a legal serve necessitates that the ball must first bounce on the server's side before bouncing on the opponent's side. This behavior can be explained by the physics concepts of gravity, momentum and rotational motion. When the ball is served, it follows an upward arc, rises, then falls onto the server's side due to gravity. Its motion is then carried forward due to momentum, causing it to bounce over the net and land on the opponent's side.
Additionally, how the racket strikes the ball affects the ball's motion. If hit at the racquet's 'sweet spot', the ball gets more velocity due to minimized vibrations and impact. Hitting the ball further down the racquet can result in a forward force on the hand, changing the direction and speed of the ball's path.
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if you tilt your head to the right and put your left hand on the right side of your jaw and your right hand on your left temple and push with both hands could you break your neck?
Why does the Dietary Guidelines for Americans include food safety information?
A. to change the kinds of food in your diet
B. to encourage more hand washing
C. to eliminate food spoilage
D. to prevent food-borne illnesses
Please explain your answer! :)
I'd say D). as well.
Handling food safely is very important not only for you physically but for your body health wise.
Thus can lead to Illness, Food-Borne Illness.
Just an Information quote.
Dietary Guidelines are the advice that is designed to ensure healthy eating habits. The guidelines for Americans include food safety information to prevent food-borne infections.
What are dietary guidelines?Dietary Guidelines are the procedures or approaches that inform people about their healthy eating patterns, dietary quality, and the amount of nutrient intake. This information is used to design the food based on the nutrients.
It also ensures that the food prepared and consumed is in good and proper sanitized conditions so that its consumption does not lead to any diseases or illnesses to the person consuming it.
Therefore, food safety information is included to option D. to prevent food-borne illnesses.
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A person who is _______ is 15 to 20 percent below ideal body weight
Which of these strategies are used to prevent substance use and abuse? Check all that apply. barriers refusal negotiation decision making developing a plan
To prevent substance use and abuse, strategies such as creating barriers, teaching refusal skills, using negotiation, fostering decision making, and developing a plan are effective. These methods address underlying issues that contribute to substance use.
Explanation:To prevent substance use and abuse, several strategies can be employed. These include establishing barriers to prevent access to substances, teaching individuals refusal skills to empower them to say no to substance use, utilizing negotiation skills to find healthier alternatives when pressured to use substances, guiding them in decision making to weigh the consequences of substance use, and helping them in developing a plan for how to avoid substance use and how to cope with challenging situations that may trigger substance use. These strategies can be beneficial in overcoming potential barriers such as childhood trauma, family dysfunction, and other underlying issues that contribute to substance use and abuse.
Final answer:
Effective strategies to prevent substance use and abuse encompass creating barriers to access, enhancing refusal skills, and promoting informed decision making. Additionally, developing a clear and structured personal plan can help individuals avoid substance use. Negotiation is not commonly a prevention strategy, but may be involved in treatment discussions.
Explanation:
Strategies used to prevent substance use and abuse include various approaches that target individual behavior, as well as environmental and social influences. Some effective strategies are:
Barriers: Creating obstacles that prevent or reduce access to substances, such as strict drug policies and limited availability.Refusal: Empowering individuals with the skills to say no to substance use when offered.Decision making: Educating individuals on making informed choices concerning substance use and understanding the consequences.Developing a plan: Having a structured approach to avoid situations that may lead to substance use, and setting personal goals to maintain sobriety.Case management may also include goal setting and addressing barriers related to personal trauma or family dysfunction to enable individuals to overcome obstacles to recovery. Strategies such as negotiation are not typically listed as primary methods for preventing substance use and abuse, although they may play a role in treatment or recovery conversations.
All of the following are learned in world languages except
Culture
Study of the language
Informal slang
History
Answer: The answer is informal slang.
All of the following are learned in world languages informal slang.
Explanation: Slang refers to an informal language used between people who are familiar with one another and belong to the same social group. It can offend people if it is used outside the social group of people who know one another. Slang is used rather than writing. Slang changes quickly with time and its words and expressions can disappear from the language.
What does ty stand for in beanie babies\?
Rex has fitted an alarm door for his differently abled child. How does the device help with his child?
Answer:
A. It would help Rex know if his child tries to venture out.
Explanation:
In which of the following places do more accidents occur?
A.
Grocery store
B.
Home
C.
School
D.
Shopping mall
If cross-contact is made with an allergen in the kitchen, the kitchen staff should cut off the portion of food where contact was made.
Discarding the entire contaminated food item is necessary when there's cross-contact with an allergen to ensure food safety and prevent allergic reactions. Practices like cleaning surfaces, washing hands, and separating different types of foods are essential to prevent cross-contamination.
If cross-contact is made with an allergen in the kitchen, it is not sufficient to simply cut off the portion of the food where contact was made. Instead, to maintain food safety and prevent allergic reactions, the entirely contaminated food item should be discarded. Cross-contamination occurs when bacteria or other harmful microorganisms are unintentionally transferred from one substance to another, with potentially serious consequences for food safety.
To prevent cross-contamination, kitchen staff must practice stringent food safety protocols:
Clean surfaces often and wash utensils after each use.Wash hands with warm water and soap before and after handling different food products, especially raw meat, poultry, seafood, and eggs.Separate foods by using different cutting boards for produce and for raw meat, poultry, seafood, and eggs.Do not allow food to sit at room temperature for more than 2 hours.Dispose of food that has fallen onto the floor as it is no longer considered food grade.All food must be covered if removed from the food lab or while being stored in the kitchen.Regularly check food temperatures with thermometers to ensure that food is stored and cooked at safe temperatures.In summary, strict adherence to cleanliness and separation during food preparation is critical to avoiding the dangers of cross-contamination and ensuring the safety of those with food allergies.
Which describes the way one should think about dressing to exercise outdoors?
To reduce the achievement gap and lay a foundation for later school success, most states have developed ____ standards.
content
performance
learning
ethical
Answer:
C. learning
Explanation:
To reduce the achievement gap and lay a foundation for later school success, most states have developed learning standards.
And plus I put learning on my test and got it correct.
Which are characteristics of eating disorders? Check all that apply. They are associated with serious emotional and physical issues that can be life-threatening. They are associated with elevated suicide risks. They are associated with low self-esteem or low self-confidence. They are curable by home remedies. They are not choices or lifestyles.
Final answer:
Eating disorders are serious mental health conditions with characteristics including life-threatening emotional and physical issues, elevated sui_cide risks, and associations with low self-esteem. They are not choices or lifestyles and cannot be cured by home remedies, but many can recover with professional treatment.
Explanation:
Eating disorders are complex mental health disorders characterized by abnormal eating habits that negatively impact an individual's physical and emotional health. Some of the characteristics that apply to eating disorders include:
They are associated with serious emotional and physical issues that can be life-threatening.They are associated with elevated sui_cide risks.They are associated with low self-esteem or low self-confidence.They are not choices or lifestyles.Eating disorders are not curable by home remedies and require formal medical and psychological treatment to address the complexity of the condition.
Major eating disorders, such as anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, and binge eating disorder, can have life-threatening health consequences. Treatment options for these disorders can include mental health counseling, medications, nutritional counseling, and sometimes hospitalization. Many who receive appropriate treatment can recover effectively.
Cultural factors, environmental influences, and biological predispositions all contribute to the development of eating disorders. They are especially prevalent in females and typically manifest during teenage and young adult years.
In 2006, which state had the highest number of drunk driving fatalities?
ANSWER:
Texas
EXPLANATION:
Texas is America's second-most crowded state. What's more, regardless of having a great many fewer occupants than populace pioneer California, the state has reliably positioned at the plain best for in general rush hour gridlock fatalities and alcohol-related activity fatalities. The government National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) keeps yearly records of the quantity of Americans who pass on in engine vehicle mishaps on both an across the nation and state-by-state premise. In 2006, Texas had the most astounding number of alcoholic driving fatalities.
Which of the following people is least susceptible to food poisoning?
a woman who is pregnant with her second child
a 72-year-old grandfather who loves fried chicken
a healthy 18-year-old college student who lives on pizza
a 42-year-old cancer patient who is undergoing chemotherapy
Which of the following is a reason to abstain from sexual activity?
A. You may experience a loss of self-esteem.
B.You may experience legal consequences.
C.There are physical and emotional risks to teen pregnancy.
D.All of the above.
Sixteen-year-old Leon wants to improve the speed of his tennis serve. Which of the following activities would help him improve the appropriate skills? running sprints hitting baseballs dribbling a basketball playing dodgeball
A fracture in the area of the wrist at the distal radius is known by the eponym ____________ fracture.
Which action will reduce the risk of injury on a motorcycle
What is a "set" in weight training? (3 points) A fitness area with weights A group of weights A group of reps A form of strength
Which of the following is NOT true about storage body fat? A. Storage body fat acts as an insulator to the body. B. Storage body fat helps increase the effects of aging. C. Storage body fat reduces the impact to internal organs during falls. D. Storage body fat is converted to energy when needed. Please select the best answer from the choices provided.
Answer: The correct answer is B; "Storage body fat helps increase the effects of aging." The human body is made up of two kinds of fats, they are storage body fats and essential body fat. The storage fat is found in the belly, in most people. Exercise and diet are needed to rid the body of this type of fat. The essential fats are needed for the body for nerves, internal organs, etc.
Answer: B. Storage body fat helps increase the effects of aging.
Explanation:
The storage fat is also called as the non-essential fat. It exhibit three main functions in the body of the organism like an insulator to retain the body heat, it act as a energy substrate during exercise and rest and it makes up a thick cover or pad over the internal organs which helps in preventing the trauma such kind of fat tissue make up the visceral fat but the storage fat beneath the skin is called as the subcutaneous fat.
Older people tend to have less storage fat as compared to young people. Thus the statement B is incorrect.
Ian came to his dentist because he broke a tooth. Which staff member will Ian be seeing initially? A. A general dentist B. An endodontist C. A prosthodontist D. A dental hygienist
Compared to the number of teens who binge drank, the number of teens who drove with teens who had been drinking is
A. much smaller.
B. about the same.
C. significantly greater.
D. impossible to determine.
A certified nurse-midwife places a neonate under the radiant heat unit for the nurse's initial assessment. The initial assessment includes heart rate 110 beats/minute and an irregular respiratory effort. The neonate is moving all extremities and his body is pink. He also has a vigorous cry. The nurse notes copious amounts of clear mucus present both orally and nasally. Based on these assessment findings, what should the nurse do next
Answer:
The nurse should record an Apgar score of 9 for this newborn and should start an aspiration to remove mucus from the nasal and oral cavities and to improve the newborn's breathing.
Explanation:
In order to assess newborn vitality, the Apgar test was created in 1952 by US anesthetist Virginia Apgar and became popular worldwide as an easy and reliable method for determining early infant care. The test is based on five assessment criteria: heart rate, respiration, muscle tone, reflex readiness and skin color, which individually can score from 0 to 2, with a total of 10 points.
Since the baby shown in the above question is pink in color, cries vigorously, moves all extremities, has a heart rate of 110 beats / minute, and has an irregular breathing effort, he should receive a score of 9 on the Apgar test.
Babies who have an Apgar score between 8 and 10 are considered healthy, fit, and not suffocated.
However, the baby shown in the question has mucus in the nasal and oral cavities and is breathing irregularly. This indicates that the baby needs to have an aspiration to solve these problems.
which is the following statements is true about diuretics?
they can make you gain weight
they can make you nauseated
they can weaken your immune system
they can cause water loss
The statement which is true about Diuretics is they can cause water loss. Thus, the correct option is D.
What are Diuretics?Diuretics may be defined as a class of drugs or chemical substance which increases the production of urine.
Diuretics include the process of forced diuresis. Examples of diuretics are Zaroxolyn, Aldactone, Esidrix, etc. All such drugs alter the function of the nephron to retain the water.
Therefore, the correct option is D.
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