Answer:
Peak-flow monitor.
Explanation:
Asthma may be defined as the medical condition the breathing airways becomes narrow and produces large amount of mucus. This hinders the normal process of breathing and causes sneezing, coughing.
Peak flow motor is the inexpensive and hand help portable medical device the air flow during one breathe. This can be used by the asthma patients at home. The specific plan for the asthma clients should be in right place and must know the symptom monitoring.
Thus, the answer is peak flow monitor.
The pharmacology instructor is talking about interferon. The instructor explains that agents such as interferons have more than one biologic function. What function is NOT associated with interferons?
Answer: Antiviral, immunomodulatory and anticancer
Explanation:
Interferons are the group of proteins secreated by the host cells in response to viral attack, requirement of modulation of immune system and for prevention of cancerous growth in the body.
In presence of several virus in the body the infected cells produce and release interferons to protect unaffected cells from the infection.
Interferons triggers protective defenses of the immune system that will help in eradicating the pathogens.
The immune system in the presence of interferon finds and kill the melanoma cells of cancer.
Final answer:
Interferons have multiple biologic functions, but tumor surveillance is not associated with interferons.
Explanation:
Interferons have multiple biologic functions, including inhibiting viral replication, signaling neighboring uninfected cells to destroy RNA and reduce protein synthesis, signaling neighboring infected cells to undergo apoptosis (programmed cell death), and activating immune cells. However, tumor surveillance is not a function associated with interferons. Tumor surveillance involves the detection and destruction of cancer cells by the immune system, which is primarily carried out by cytotoxic T cells and natural killer cells.
Who should advise a driver/operator who may be mentally or physically impaired to seek appropriate assistance?
Answer:
A Psychiatrist
Explanation:
A psychiatrist is a medical doctor (an M.D. or D.O.) who specializes in mental health, including substance use disorders.
According to the Yerkes-Dodson law, successful performance on a simple task requires __________, whereas successful performance on a difficult and complex task requires __________ .
a) low arousal; high arousal
b) moderate arousal; high arousal
c) low arousal; low arousal
d) high arousal; low arousal
Answer:
D - High Arousal; Low Arousal
Explanation:
The Yerkes Dodson law explains the relationship between arousal and performance. It was posited by Robert M. Yerkes and John Dillingham Dodson in 1908.
The law asserts that there is a direct relationship between arousal and performance. An increase in arousal up to a certain level will enhance performance, and once the optimal threshold is exceeded, performance will begin to decline.
Thus arousal should be kept at a midpoint as too little causes boredom, and too much causes hyperactivity, so moderate arousal is optimal.
A simple task requires higher arousal because it uses less cognitive function and brain power thus higher arousal is required to keep interest; while a difficult task requires low arousal since it requires higher cognitive function, it requires lots of focus and higher arousal is not good for intense focus as it causes hyperactivity.
The Yerkes-Dodson law states that the performance on simple tasks is best with high arousal, while complex tasks require low arousal for optimized performance.
Explanation:According to the Yerkes-Dodson law, successful performance on a simple task requires high arousal, whereas successful performance on a difficult and complex task requires low arousal. The correct answer is d) high arousal; low arousal. The Yerkes-Dodson law suggests that there is an inverted U-shaped relationship between arousal and task performance, meaning that moderate levels of arousal are optimal for task performance.
However, the peak of the curve shifts depending on the complexity of the task, with higher arousal being more beneficial for simple tasks and lower arousal levels being more advantageous for complex tasks. This is because high arousal can help maintain concentration on simple tasks, while it can be overwhelming and harmful to performance on complex tasks.
HIV has become an important source of mortality for humans. If AIDS persists as a major factor for humans for many generations in the future, natural selection theory predicts that _____.
Answer:
Any heritable traits that help humans survive and reproduce in the presence of AIDS should become more frequent over time.
Explanation:
The theory of natural selection is defined as the process whereby organisms better adapted to their environment tend to survive and produce more offspring. This means that, in this case, people who inherit a trait in their genes that allows them to resist the HIV virus, will be able to survive better and have children.
Unfortunately, there is no record of such a trait existing, and in this case, there is no kind of natural selection that can arise if every human becomes infected.
Natural selection theory predicts that continued exposure to AIDS could lead to an increased prevalence of genetic traits conferring resistance to HIV among the human population. Beneficial mutations and changes in behaviors could contribute to this resistance, with the potential for a noticeable evolutionary impact, especially in regions like sub-Saharan Africa where treatment access is limited.
Explanation:If AIDS persists as a major factor for humans for many generations in the future, natural selection theory predicts that there would be an increasing prevalence of genetic traits that confer resistance to the virus amongst the human population. This could manifest through various ways, such as the emergence of beneficial mutations that make it more difficult for HIV to infect helper T cells, or changes in sexual behavior and societal practices that reduce transmission rates.
Over time, these changes could result in a proportion of the population with a natural resistance, a concept referred to as evolutionary pressure. However, such a process takes a significant amount of time and the presence of medical interventions, like antiretroviral drugs, could alter the selective pressures by allowing those with the infection to survive and reproduce.
In sub-Saharan Africa, where the prevalence of HIV is highest and access to treatments is more limited, the evolutionary impact may be more distinct compared to regions with widespread access to effective medical care.
How does the environment play a part in building immunity?
Answer:
A study now finds that the environment may play a bigger role than genes do in revving up the immune system and shutting it down when the battle is over.
Explanation:
Environmental factors can influence immunity more than our genes do. And as people age, the environment’s impact on immunity grows stronger, the scientists now report.
Pessimism and other symptoms of depression can set the stage for negative life events, but at the same time negative life events can also lead to pessimism and other symptoms of depression. The uncertainty of the direction by which these relationships exist indicates the importance of remembering the principle of __________.
Answer:
Correlation virus causation.
Explanation:
The uncertainty of the direction by which these relationships exist indicate the importance of remembering the principle of correlation virus causation.
A form of exercise that incorporates both static and dynamic stretching is _____.
Answer:
Yoga
Explanation:
Dynamic stretching are commonly used as warm up before an exercise. They improve mobility by incorporating active movements while moving the joints and muscles through motion. They can also resemble the type of sport or exercise about to be performed
Static stretching are those stretches in which you maintain a single position for a stretch of time. It is usually done at the end of an exercise session. There is no mobility in static stretches and it is good for releasing stress, increasing flexibility and range of motion.
Yoga which has been confirmed as a form of exercise by experts incorporate both. Many formats of Yoga combine them by maintaining static stretches after which there are active movements of joints and muscles which is dynamic stretching
A nurse is teaching skin and basic care to the mother of a 6-month-old infant with eczema. Which statement indicates that the mother needs further teaching?
Answer: I'll have to be careful not to cut my baby's nails short.
Explanation:
Eczema is a medical condition. The cause of this condition is unknown or may be due to hyperactive allergic immune response seen in hay fever, dermatitis and asthma. This is related with symptoms like appearance of red patches on the skin, itchy and rough skin also the appearance of blisters. The scratching and itching must be avoided as the rupture of blister is likely to ooze out fluid which may cause infection to a large area appear in the form of patch.
According to the given situation, the mother needs further teaching as she should cut the baby's nail so that baby cannot scratch the blister this will prevent the increase in area of infection.
How can too much sodium affect people with high blood pressure?
A. It can cause the body to absorb iron.
B. It can cause the body to retain water.
C. It can cause the body to dissolve acids.
D. It can cause the body to reduce energy.
Answer:
b. it can cause the body to retain water.
Explanation:
Eating salt raises the amount of sodium in your bloodstream and wrecks the delicate balance, reducing the ability of your kidneys to remove the water. The result is a higher blood pressure due to the extra fluid and extra strain on the delicate blood vessels leading to the kidneys.
When Oregon realized its Medicaid budget was not large enough to provide comprehensive coverage for all of its poor citizens, it decided not to pay for which of the following because the funds could provide for prenatal care and delivery for 1,500 pregnant women?
Answer:
Organ transplant.
Explanation:
Organ transplantation may be defined as the medical procedure in which the organ of the body is transplanted from the donor's to the recipient's body. The damaged organ can be corrected by this method.
The organs that has been transplanted successfully are heart, kidney and lungs. The organ transplant requires the high budget and can not be easily afford by the poor people. The medicaid budget is not large enough top provide the organ transplantation to all the poor people of the citizen.
Thus, the answer is organ transplant.
Answer:
He did not pay for organ tranplant.
Explanation:
He said that the funds required for 34 transplants could provide prenatal care and delivery to 1500 pregnant women.
David has a new client in her 2nd trimester of pregnancy. How should he modify the overhead squat assessment for her?
Answer:
The answer is- The range of motion should be decreased
Explanation:
The options are:
a. The range of motion should be increased
b. The arms should be placed at the sides
c. The range of motion should be decreased
d. The heels should be elevated
The answer is C. The range of motion should be decreased.
The overhead test is a screening assessment used for obtaining general indication of dynamic posture and used periodically to know if exercise interventions are effective. It is a total-body squatting movement which helps to increase core strength and qualify muscle imbalance. It also reinforces proper squatting technique. It is one of recommended exercises for the 2nd Trimester of Pregnancy, they may however need to decrease their range of rotation as her pregnancy progresses.
It also predicts how well a client will do on the Fibromyalgia Syndrome (FMS) which is a chronic condition that causes pain and fatigue and also issues with memory, sleep and mood. Gaining weight and hormonal fluctuations during pregnancy can make symptoms worse.
In 3 sentences explain 2 things we can do to strengthen our circulatory system. Make sure you use details in your explanation. EXPLAIN your answer and use clear examples.
Answer:
The answer would be
Explanation:
If a person wants to improve their circulation:
- Stop smoking tobacco products
- Reduce intake of saturated fats
- Try not to sit still for long periods
Some tips, examples are:
1. Maintaining a healthy weight helps promote good circulation. If a person is overweight, it may negatively affect their circulation.
2. Regular cardiovascular exercise, such as jogging, supports the health of the circulatory system and improves circulation.
3. Eating oily fish
4. The antioxidants in tea promote cardiovascular health and may improve circulation. This is true for both black tea and green tea.
5. Iron is an essential mineral for the circulatory system. It is required to make hemoglobin, one of the major components of red blood cells, which is needed to carry oxygen.
Freud suggested that for those suffering a generalized anxiety disorder, the anxiety is ______.
Answer:
Free-floating anxiety.
Explanation:
Anxiety may be defined as as a type of the group of the mental disorders, illness or distress that can disturb the normal routine of the life. Anxiety can also be characterized by fear as well.
The emotional state of the chronic stress and the uncertainty arise the free floating anxiety. This is under the category of the generalized anxiety disorder. This is more dangerous as it is more complex and reactions are not focus in the particular.
Thus, the answer is free floating anxiety.
Answer: Free-floating anxiety
Explanation: Free-floating anxiety is a term used by Freud to describe a type of anxiety that is not attached to any specific object, situation, or event. Instead, it is a general feeling of unease and apprehension that can be difficult to identify and manage.
When new parents first bring their babies home from the hospital, they report the transition being difficult especially due to several things. Which of these is NOT one of the things they report being bothered by?
Options missing in the question:
a. relatives and friends visiting for hours on end
b. the baby’s interruption of their sleeping
c. how difficult it is to go places
d. hard to express themselves sexually
Answer:
A is correct: relatives and friends visiting for hours on end. The visit to family and friends doesn't make the parents concerned because their visit is for a short time. This factor can not sustain for long.
Explanation:
According to the developmental scientists, the transition to parenthood is a major transition in one's life. Parenthood changes everything such as emotions, behaviors, relationships, identities, etc. Likewise, constant demands of a new baby and sleeplessness cause hormonal changes.
Why other options are most relevant are due to following reasons:
B. It's hard to take enough sleep for new parents because the baby awakes up in short intervals(after every one or two hours) for milk. Sleeplessness makes new parents difficult to make their nerves strong to handle the transition.
C. Traveling with a newborn is not easy because their eating and sleeping routines can be disturbed. They cannot take proper sleep and start crying during traveling. A diaper change in a strange place is also a difficult task for many mothers (parents).
D. Sometimes parents have difficulty finding time for each other. They cannot express their love to each other as they should. This is because caring for a newborn takes all of their time. It is also because they have all of their attention to baby than each other. They are concerned about this one too.
While Eddie was working alone in the microcomputer lab, he noticed a strange, unpleasant smell and immediately went to report the incident. Eddie's behavior could be described as ____.
Answer:
Was not constrained by the bystander effect.
Explanation:
The bystander effect may be defined as the psychological effect that might discourages the individual from intervening in the situation. The individual take more positive action in case of crisis only.
The greater the chance of the bystander the lower the chance to get help in the distress. As described the situation in the question, Eddies' behavior is not controlled by the bystander effect as he immediately went to get help from the other people.
Thus, the answer is- not constrained by the bystander effect.
Consider this scenario: Ron has researched how to move into and hold several yoga poses. However, when he attempts poses, he is unable to manipulate his body into each pose, and has difficulty holding some poses. According to SCT, why does Ron have difficulty holding these poses?
Answer:
-Ron needs more behavioral capacity to perform the yoga poses
Explanation:
Ron is having difficulty holding these poses because he needs more behavioral capacity to perform the yoga poses.
SCT means Social Cognitive Theory. It describes the influence of individual learning experiences, reciprocal interaction, environmental factors on individual health behaviors. It provides opportunity for social support by instilling expectations, self-efficacy, reciprocal determinism, observational learning and behavioral capability to achieve behavior change
Behavioral capability or capacity means understanding and having the skill to perform a behavior.
In order for Ron to do yoga poses well he must know what to do and how to do it.
Consuming many different fruits and vegetables that provide a broad range of essential nutrients describes what diet planning principle?
Answer:
Variety
Explanation:
There are six Diet Planning Principles:
AdequacyBalanceCalorie controlModerationVarietyVariety refers to the consumption of a wide diversity of foods to ensure that the body is received many (if not all) the essential nutrients that are needed in a healthy diet.
In this case, the consumption of many different fruits and vegetables that provide a broad range of essential nutrients describes the variety principle of diet planning.
Increasing blood viscosity (thickness) can be caused by abuse of which ergogenic aid?
Answer:Synthetic Erythropoietin
Explanation:
EPO as mostly called increases the rate of erythropoesis, that is production of red blood cells.This increases oxygen supply in the body, especially to the muscles cells. it is mostly used by athletes to improve their performances.
However as much RBC is produced, the cells clog together making the blood thick or viscous .
This lead to circulatory load on the heart which exerted much force higher than normal cardiac pressure to pump into systemic circulation.
This may cause heart heart attack.
the accumulated aggregated RBC can also lead to clotting. if this blocked blood supply to the brain, it may lead to STOKE.
The most common symptoms of foodborne illness include all the following EXCEPT:______
A) diarrhea
B) vomiting
C) abdominal cramps
D) double vision
Answer:
D)Double vision.
Explanation:
The most common symptoms of foodborne illness include all the EXCEPT double vision.
What are the 5 major foodborne illnesses?
The top five germs that cause illnesses from food eaten in the United States are norovirus, Salmonella, Clostridium perfringens, Campylobacter and Staphylococcus aureus.
Thus, option "D" is correct.
To learn more about foodborne illness click here:
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You feel the pain of a sprained ankle when ________ relay(s) messages from your ankle to your central nervous system.
Answer:
Its the Sensory Nerves
Explanation:
You feel the pain of a sprained ankle when nociceptors relay(s) messages from your ankle to your central nervous system.
When you sprain your ankle, the pain is caused by the stretching or tearing of the ligaments that support the ankle joint. The pain is felt when sensors in the ankle send messages to the central nervous system (CNS).
The CNS is made up of the brain and spinal cord. It is responsible for interpreting sensory information and sending signals to the muscles to respond.
The sensors in the ankle are called nociceptors. Nociceptors are specialized cells that are sensitive to pain. When they are activated, they send messages to the CNS along nerve fibers. The CNS interprets these messages as pain.
The pain of a sprained ankle can be mild or severe. It can also be sharp or dull. The pain is usually worse when the ankle is moved. The pain may also be accompanied by swelling, bruising, and stiffness.
To know more about nociceptors:
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Adriana wants to keep her eyes healthy. What vitamin should she add to her diet?
Hello.
The answer is Vitamin A, Vitamin A helps play a big role in the eyes, like keeping the cornea clear.
Answer:
Vitamin A.
Explanation:
Vitamin A is a fat-soluble vitamin that is naturally present in many foods. Vitamin A is important for normal vision, the immune system, and reproduction. Vitamin A also helps the heart, lungs, kidneys, and other organs work properly. There are two different types of vitamin A.
A client is being prepared for peritoneal dialysis. which nursing action is taken first?
Answer: Predialysis care involving documentation of vital signs
Explanation:
The first nursing care carried out for a dialysis patient is usually a predialysis care and this involves documenting vital signs including temperature, blood pressure, (not forgetting orthostatic blood pressure), pulse rate, respiratory rate, and even lung sounds.
They are called baseline data and they help the fluid volume assessment of the patient. Other predialysis nursing care include weight measurements, fluids and dietary restrictions, and even explanations of the various procedures expected to be carried out and possible sensations that will be felt in the process
Answer:
Warm the dialysate
Explanation:
Dialysate should be warmed to body temperature in order to not disrupt tissue temperature; weigh patient before and after dialysis; dialysate is infused into peritoneal cavity and then drained from abdomen after prescribed amount of time.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) states, "I have had steady weight loss, and I am often too tired to eat." Which nursing diagnosis would be most appropriate for this client?
A. Fatigue related to weight loss secondary to COPD
B. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements, related to fatigue
C. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements, related to COPD
D. Ineffective breathing pattern, related to alveolar hypoventilation
Answer:D. Ineffective breathing pattern, related to alveolar hypoventilation
Explanation:
Chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases is a respiratory disorder of the lungs with difficulty with breathing , if an individual has either emphysema, refractory asthma, chronic bronchitis.
If the alveolar is damaged as in emphysema,oxygen can not be absorbed from the lungs, and it , stretched to take in oxygen. The lungs lost it elastic recoil and air is trapped in it
This leads to shortness of breath, and weakness. The weight loss is due to apoptosis of skeletal muscles, in limited oxygen supply.
Under the affordable care act, all of the folloowing are the required essential benefits except:________.
CORRECT QUESTION.
Which of the following statements about the Affordable Care Act is TRUE?
A) The health care law includes reforms to the affordability, availability, and quality of health insurance.
B) The health care law was passed by state legislation and only exists in certain states.
C) The Affordable Care Act is administered through Social Security.
D) The law was created specifically to provide affordable care for senior citizens.
Explanation and Answer;
The health care law includes reforms to the affordability, availability, and quality of health insurance.
Explanation:
The Affordable Care law signed into law by President Obama, March 23rd ,2010.It is usually refered to as the Obamacare.
The law formed the basis for the reformation of the health insurance in the United States for the citizens to be able to afford an improved and quality health insurance.
And aalso introduced measures for regulation of private and public health insurance companies.
A client with spinal cord injury is experiencing muscle spasticity. Which agent would most likely be ordered?
Answer:
Baclofen.
Explanation:
Spinal cord may be defined as the tube like structure consists of the nervous tissue that are extended towards the medulla oblongata. Brain and spinal cord together forms the central nervous system of the body.
Any injury in the spinal cord can cause injury in the muscle as well. Baclofen is a drug used for the treatment of the mascular spasm. This drug help in the relaxation of the muscle. The prescribed doasge is taken and the drug can be taken before or after eating the food.
Thus, the answer is baclofen.
Qualitative and quantitative codes for drug testing are found in which of the following CPT sections?
a) Pathology
b) Surgical
c) Anesthesia
d) Medicine
Answer:
A) Pathology
Explanation:
In a hospital there are different departments, but whenever a doctor needs a sample analysed, whether it is blood, urine, etc. it is sent to the pathology department.
The pathology department will analyse and test the samples they are given, and report back on any suspicious findings. Their are qualitative and quantitative codes for drug testing in this department.
provides nonsurgical treatment to detect, prevent, and treat heart and vascular disease.
Answer: To prevent: lifestyle modification
To Detect: Imaging like X-ray or Echocardiography
To Treat: Drugs
Explanation:
It all depends on the particular cardiovascular conditions in question but generally speaking, there are several non surgical options available.
To Prevent:
Prevention of cardiovascular diseases is practically done non surgically and this is because it’s usually a lifestyle modification and optimization and these includes regular exercises, eating healthy meals and minimizing cigarette smoking
To detect:
Detection of cardiovascular diseases can be carried out by several means amongst which includes Biochemical testing. Here, blood or urine samples can be tested in order to be sure of any ongoing cardiac pathology eg increase in c-reactive proteins.
Another method that can be used include imaging techniques. These include the all popular Xrays to more specific investigations like Echocardiography.
To Treat:
As for treatment, this largely depends on the particular ailment in question but severe drugs like cholesterol modifying medication, aspirin, beta blockers, calcium channel blockers and nitroglycerin can be used and are all non surgical approaches.
After teaching a group of students about the standard childhood immunizations given today, the instructor determines that the students need additional teaching when they identify which as a common disease for which immunizations are given?
A) Tuberculosis.
B) Poliovirus.
C) Diphtheria.
D) Pertussis.
Answer:
A. Tuberculosis
Explanation:
BCG vaccine (Bacillus of Calmette and Guérin) was created in 1921 by Léon Calmette and Alphonse Guérin. Protects against severe forms of tuberculosis, a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which mainly affects the lungs and, if untreated, can cause serious breathing problems, weight loss, weakness and even death. The vaccine is the only type of immunization against the disease and should be given as a single dose.
Pentavalent vaccine protects against 5 diseases: diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, poliovirus and infections caused by Haemophilus influenzae type b (meningitis, pericarditis, pneumonia, arthritis and osteomyelitis).
Diphtheria causes inflammation and injury to parts of the airway and may lead to the death.Pertussis may progress to severe conditions with pulmonary, neurological, hemorrhagic complications and dehydrationAnd polio in some cases causes paralysis, especially in the legs.Which of the following statements is not true?
1.Neoplasia is another term for cancerous cells.
2.Most cancers are hereditary.
3.Certain types of virus can cause cancer.
4.About half the people with cancer have a mutation in a p53 gene.
5.Melanomas are commonly caused by ionizing radiation.
Answer:A
Explanation:
Neoplasia denotes abnormal growth of cells... Some cells can grow without being cancerous that is there are just benign
Answer: Statement 1, statement 2 and statement 5.
Explanation: 1. Neoplasia is the formation and growth of abnormal tissue. It is an uncontrolled growth of cell not under physiologic control. While malignant neoplasms are cancerous cells, non malignant neoplasms are not cancers and thus, neoplasms cannot be another term for cancers.
2. There are people who are born with a genetic mutation, inherited, which predisposes them to be at a higher risk for cancers.
Scientists assets that inherited genetic mutation only factors in about 5-10% of all cancers which is still in the minority.
3. Yes. Viruses can cause cancers. Researchers have linked the cause of some cancers to several viruses for example, the human papilloma virus have been shown to cause cervical cancer, hepatitis B and C viruses have been shown to cause liver cancers and the Epstein Barr Virus to cause the nasopharyngeal cancers.
4. Yes. The p53 Gene is responsible for tumor suppression by coding for a protein regulating cell cycle. A mutation in p53 makes the gene unable to regulate cell cycle and proliferation and thus increases the risk of cancer in an individual.
5. Melanoma's are caused by a combination of factors. Although doctors speculate it to be because of several UV lights and radiations, the fact that melanoma can occurs in parts of the skin not exposed to sunlight and radiations counters that argument.
Although ionizing radiations can increase a person's susceptibility to melanoma, it is not the chief cause of it. The main cause of melanoma is not yet known.
After the release of the mature egg, it is guided by the fimbria into the ___________________. 1. uterus. 2. vagina. 3. fallopian tubes. 4. endometrium
Answer:
3. Fallopian tubes.
Explanation:
The uterine tubes, also known as oviducts or fallopian tubes, are the female structures that transport the ova from the ovary to the uterus each month.