Answer:
maternal mortality.
Explanation:
It's also called maternal death. When does it occur? It usually occurs during pregnancy or maximum 42 days after giving birth. There are many maternal deaths on the global level and some of the causes are: severe bleeding, infections, extremely high blood pressure during and after pregnancy, complications and last but not least, abortions with risks ( in the further months of pregnancy ).
A nursing home recently has had a significant number of nosocomial infections. Which measure might be instituted to decrease this trend? a. Mandating antibiotics for all nursing home residents b. Have written, infection-prevention practices for all employees c. Requiring all employees to have monthly screenings for skin flora d. Restricting visitors and community activities for residents
Answer: A
Explanation: Mandating antibiotics for all nursing home residents
This would help reduce the spread of diseases through the nursing home.
Which foods are most commonly associated with foodborne illnesses caused by Salmonella
Answer:
The correct answer is- Poultry and eggs
Explanation:
Salmonella is a gram-negative enteric bacteria and is involved in causing foodborne illnesses in humans called salmonellosis. This bacteria can easily be spread by food workers who prepare food especially poultry and meat products.
Humans can get salmonellosis by eating raw and undercooked poultry products. The symptoms of salmonellosis starts after 12-72 hour of consumption of food infected with salmonella.
Initial symptoms are diarrhea, stomach pain, and fever and in severe cases, symptoms like urine in blood, rash, and high fever are seen which can become fatal.
What percentage of the US population is estimated not to engage in 30 minutes of low-to-moderate physical activity?
Answer:
The estimated percentage is 75%.
Explanation:
It is very common for American people to have a sedentary lifestyle. This is especially true for people who are working in the managerial position. The availability of fast food everywhere is also one factor. It is said that 75% of the US population is estimated not to engage in 30 minutes of low-to-moderate physical activity. This estimation fluctuates according to age, gender and occupation. Another contributing factor to having less physical activity is the rate of unemployment. People who are unemployed find it hard to focus on exercise or physical activity. Instead, they divert their energy towards looking for work.
It is essential to have at least 30 minutes of low-to-moderate exercise 5 times a week in order to stay healthy. America's situation makes them more susceptible to chronic diseases such as diabetes, cancer and obesity.
The physical chemistry that existed when Linh and Bryan met was overwhelming for both of them. They enjoy the sexual energy in their relationship and are becoming more intimate. Neither one is discussing long-term plans or commitments, as they both wish to pursue their education and careers. Sternberg would characterize their love experience as
a. infatuation.
b. fatuous love.
c. empty love.
d. romantic love.
Answer:
its letter c
Explanation:
If a client exhibits arms falling forward during an overhead squat assessment, which activity should be avoided?
a. Versa climber
b. Elliptical trainer
c. Rowing machine
d. Treadmill
Final answer:
The client should avoid the Versa Climber as it requires significant shoulder mobility and stability, which could exacerbate the existing issue of arms falling forward during an overhead squat.
Explanation:
During an overhead squat assessment, if a client exhibits arms falling forward, it may indicate a lack of shoulder mobility or stability, tight anterior muscles (such as the pectorals), or weak upper back and scapular stabilizers. The client should avoid exercises that may exacerbate these issues until they have been addressed through a proper corrective exercise program.
In this scenario, the most appropriate answer is: Versa climber
As the Versa Climber requires significant shoulder mobility and stability. Using this equipment before correcting the dysfunctions could worsen the condition or result in injury. Instead, focus should be placed on exercises that improve shoulder mobility and strength, particularly for the upper back and scapular stabilizers.
Ruby performs self-myofascial release and static stretching on a client, following which she performs an overhead squat assessment. Which of the following, if observed, will indicate the need for active-isolated stretching of the client's rear hip?
a. The client's knees bow out
b. The client's knees fall in
c. The client's toes turn out
d. The client leans forward excessively
Answer: A. The client’s knees bows out
Explanation:
When Ruby is performing the self myofascial release and static stretching on the client, after which she performs an overhead squat assessment, the only option amongst the list that will indicate the need for active isolated stretching of the clients rear hip will be the first option “the client’s knees bows out”. This should be seen practically to fully understand it so take note when next you hit the gym
In an overhead squat assessment, if the client excessively leans forward, it is indicative of a need for active-isolated stretching of the client's rear hip. This is due to tight hip flexors and weak hip extensors which can be improved through active-isolated stretching.
Explanation:The overhead squat assessment is a tool used by fitness professionals to identify imbalances and weaknesses in the body that could potentially lead to injury. When Ruby assesses the client performing an overhead squat, she is looking for any abnormalities in the client's posture and movements.
If Ruby notes that the client excessively leans forward during the overhead squat, this indicates a need for active-isolated stretching of the client's rear hip. The forward lean is a sign of tight hip flexors and weak hip extensors which can be improved through active-isolated stretching. This type of stretching method specifically isolates the muscle to be stretched, in this case, the hip extensors (gluteus maximus, hamstrings), to allow for deeper and more efficient stretching. Thus, the correct answer is d. The client leans forward excessively.
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30 points! will mark brainliest
write in your own words!!
You have been infected with the H1N1 flu virus. Describe how this virus might have entered your body, how it works to make you sick, and what happens when you finally get better. List at least 7 different steps.
Answer: your start to feel dizzy and have nasal pain, it also makes you have a headache in your right temple.
When you feel better you are still a lil dizzy but the headache goes away,
Jimmy has been diagnosed with expressive language disorder. We would thus expect Jimmy A. to have problems in understanding what others say to him. B. to speak in simplified, sometimes incorrect, sentences. C. to have age-appropriate vocabulary. D. to respond atypically to the speech of others, almost as if he were deaf.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Expressive disorder is when an individual has an issue with written and spoken expression
Of the ten leading causes of death in the United States, diet plays a role in six of them. Drag the six leading causes of death in which diet plays a part to the box on the left. Drag the remaining causes of death (not related to food intake) to the box on the right.
Answer:
Diet plays an important role in the individual's life, Most of the disease might occur in the body due to the improper diet and diet includes the junk and oily food. Some of the disease has no consideration with the diet and occurs due to the genetic related problems.
Among the disease listed in the question, the disease that are related to the intake of the food are : cancer, diabetes, heart disease, kidney diseases , stroke and Alzheimer's disease. The disease that has no relation with the diet are accidents, self killing, influenza and respiratory disease.
What should the insured do if the insurer fails to send the correct forms, under the Claims Forms provision of a health policy?
Answer:
Submit the claim in any form.
Explanation:
Health insurance may be defined as the insurance that covers almost the partial or the whole risk of the person's medical expense. The routine finance structure is developed in the health policy.
Health insurance can be maintained by both the private and the government agencies. The monthly premium is specified to get the health insurance. If the insurer is failed to send the correct forms then he submit the insurance claim in any form.
Thus, the answer is submit the claim in any form.
A drug screening test performed on a urine sample can detect the presence of
Answer:
May detect amphetamines or methamphetamines, barbiturates, benzodiazepines, cocaine, marijuana, MDA-analogues (MDA or MDMA), opiates (codeine, morphine, 6-acetylmorphine [indicative of heroin use], hydromorphone, hydrocodone, oxymorphone, oxycodone), nicotine, or alcohol.
Explanation:
A drug screening test performed on a urine sample can detect numerous substances including glucose and cortisol. This is accomplished using urine test strips or through a common method known as urinalysis. Some substances the tests can detect are indicative of diabetes, bacterial infections, and kidney complications.
Explanation:A drug screening test performed on a urine sample can detect the presence of a number of substances. Like the use of urine test strips, other tests such as Benedict's test can be performed to detect and quantify the presence and quantity of glucose in urine, which correlates to diabetes in high quantities. Testing for other substances such as the adrenal hormone cortisol may require a 24-hour urine collection.
Regarding urinalysis, a simple and common urine test, it can detect various elements such as protein, glucose, pH, and even cellular elements including red and white blood cells. In the case of infections, specific tests are carried out to identify the type of bacteria, if present, or if kidney impairment is suspected, further extensive tests are conducted.
Urine test strips can be used to detect abnormal levels of certain components in urine, for instance, nitrites that point to certain bacterial infections, albumin indicating a kidney infection or kidney failure, high sodium concentrations suggesting kidney failure, and the presence of white blood cells and blood indicative of a urinary tract infection or other urinary system disorder.
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Which of the following overexpansion injuries can be characterized by chest pain, breathing difficulties, weakness, and cyanosis (blueness) of the lips and nail beds:
A - Rupture of Eardrum
B - Mediastinal Emphysema and Pneumothorax
C - Bends
D - Subcutaneous Emphysema
Answer: B. Mediastinal Emphysema and Pneumothorax
Explanation:
Mediastinal emphysema is a medical condition in which air surrounds the heart and blood vessels in the mediastinum. These air are usually as a result of traumatic lung injuries or other lung pathologies which permits the alveoli which are the air sacs to release their. These air released will definitely seek a place to go and will thereafter find space around mediastinum thereby preventing adequate heart contraction and disruption in blood flow.
Pneumothorax only the other hand is a condition whereby there is air linkage between the lung and chest wall.
This two conditions occurring concurrently can lead to clinical features such as chest pain, shallow breathing, cyanosis, respiratory failure and even unconsciousness.
Final answer:
The injury characterized by chest pain, breathing difficulties, weakness, and cyanosis is Mediastinal Emphysema and Pneumothorax (Option B).
Explanation:
The overexpansion injury that can be characterized by chest pain, breathing difficulties, weakness, and cyanosis of the lips and nail beds is B - Mediastinal Emphysema and Pneumothorax. Mediastinal emphysema, also known as pneumomediastinum, is the presence of air in the mediastinum which can lead to difficulty breathing and chest pain. A pneumothorax is a collapsed lung, which can also result in chest pain and breathing difficulties. The weakness and cyanosis are indicative of a decrease in oxygen delivery to tissues, which can occur with pneumothorax, as the lung's ability to exchange oxygen is compromised.
When Kristi, a vegetarian, combines foods such as beans and rice to consume the right amino acids, she is practicing:
Combining foods like beans and rice, known as complementary protein consumption, ensures Kristi gets all the essential amino acids, crucial for vegetarians because some essential amino acids are more common in animal products.
Explanation:When Kristi, a vegetarian, combines foods such as beans and rice to ensure she gets the right amino acids, she is practicing a concept known as complementary protein consumption. This is a way to get all the essential amino acids – the ones our bodies cannot synthesize – from plant-based diets. Beans and rice, for example, when eaten together, provide all of the essential amino acids that the body needs.
A healthy diet needs to include all of these essential amino acids, particularly for those on a vegetarian or plant-based diet, because certain crucial amino acids are most commonly found in animal products. Fortunately, by intentionally combining certain plant-based foods — like beans and rice — it's possible to get a full spectrum of the essential amino acids. Other food combinations to provide complete proteins are potatoes with beans, and hummus with whole wheat bread.
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Which of the following represents a good age to introduce solid foods to infants...a. Two weeksb. Two monthsc. Five monthsd. One year
Answer: c. Five months
Explanation:
The digestive system in infants is weak and is incapable of digesting solid foods in young age typically in one or two months after birth. According to the american academy of pediatrics. The infant must be fed with solid foods in 4-6 months. It also depends on how the infant responds when fed with different solid foods. The solid food must be in highly diluted form, like in a meshed form and must be boiled so that the infant can swallow and digest the food easily.
Which of the following is mismatched?
a. oncology: diagnosis and treatment of tumors
b. carcinoma: characteristic cell types found in benign tumors
c. mutation: changes in DNA involving substitutions, deletions, insertions, recombinations, and translocations
d. leukemia: cancer of the immune system affecting circulating cells
e. malignant transformation: gain of ability to form a cancer
Answer:
b. carcinoma: characteristic cell types found in benign tumors
Explanation:
A carcinoma is a cancer that occurs in the cells that lines the internal organs and the skin. This carcinoma is like other cancerous cell which can spread to other organs of the body and cause cancer in them which is the characteristic of malignant tumor.
Benign tumors do not have the ability to cause cancer because benign tumor does not spread to other organs. They remain at their position and do not cause more harm to the body like a malignant tumor. Therefore carcinoma is not a characteristic cell types found in benign tumors.
More than 30 diseases new to human medicine have emerged in the past 3 decades. researchers like carol jenkins, who worked in papua new guinea, believe that many of these emerged as a result of environmental destruction. which of the following is not one of these "new" diseases
a) legionnaire's diseaseb) tuberculosisc) lyme diseased) hIV/AIDS
Answer: Tuberculosis
Explanation:
It was first discovered by Dr, Robert Koch 1882.
but others were relatively new diseases.
A weightlifter is using heavy weights in short bursts for a competition. Because his muscle cells are not able to take in enough oxygen to make very much atp the weightlifter begins to get fatigue in his muscles. Which processes is most likely going on in the muscles of the weightlifter as he competes in his event?
Answer:
As the cells run out of oxygen they switch to anaerobic respiration, which allows the cell to make small amounts of •ATP in the absence of oxygen.
Explanation:
Anaerobic respiration is used by cells in the absence of ATP. This process converts sugars to alcohol and only creates a small amount of ATP compared to aerobic respiration.
Recent research indicates that the most effective treatment for adolescent girls with anorexia nervosa is___________.
Answer:
Family Therapy
Explanation:
There is a long tradition of association between anorexia nervosa with interactions and family circumstances, especially with problems of separation and individuation in adolescence. Any family therapy technique, both psychodynamic, as structural or systemic, has, in some way, its origin in the conflict to overcome this chronic and, in many cases, deadly pathology, and in the understanding of its mechanisms .
Contemporary family therapy techniques prefer a focus on the repercussions of anorexia nervosa on parents and siblings. In large part, they try to train them on how to deal with eating behavior and patient aspects related to it. They try to avoid exploring the possible participation of family relationships in the origin and maintenance of the pathology, among other causes not to accuse parents of being the cause of it and generate feelings of guilt in them .
There is empirical evidence that speaks of the link between individualization-separation difficulties and eating disorders
In family systems where the basic needs of affectivity, comfort and recognition and emotional support are not covered, these are avoided. They tend to manifest themselves in the form of more dysphoric states, which the individual has difficulty in differentiating and handling in their different forms. The intake or rejection of food can become the main mechanism for the regulation of affections. In families of "classic" anorexics, the expression of affection is usually combined with attempts to control and deny their different needs.
Systems with permeable intrafamilial links and close links between the family and the environment and high interpersonal control seem to tend to promote damage avoidance and a high dependence on reward, as Strober (1991) describes for anorexics. . The protection and control of the links between the individual and others and self-esteem are displaced to food intake and thinness, both visible inside and outside the family environment, and leading to anorexia nervosa.
A 24-year-old woman undergoing a premarital screening test is found to have elevated levels of AST, ALT, and IgG, but no antibody-specific markers for viral hepatitis. A liver biopsy reveals inflammation and cellular damage. Which of the following treatments is most likely to be effective for her?
A) Lamivudine
B) Peginterferon and ribavirin
C) Interferon alfa-2b
D) Corticosteroids and immunosuppressant drugs
Answer:
Corticosteroids and immunosuppressant drugs
Explanation:
The Woman is probably down with Autoimmune Hepatitis which may have been induced by genetic, or environmental factors ( possibly viral infection). Autoimmune hepatitis arises when the immune system of a person attack its own cells in this case the liver cell. This can lead to inflammation of the liver, scarring of the liver (cirrhosis) or possibly liver failure. People can be asymptomatic ( showing no symptoms) but in people with symptoms, jaundice (yellowness of the skin and eyes) pruritis (itching skin) and others is often seen.
Treatment will be administration of immunosuppressant drugs such as Azathioprine, in combination with corticosteriods (prednisone) to lower the immune system. Other immunosuppressive drug used in treatment include mycophenoate mofetil and cyclosporine. People may not to respond to treatment or might have complication due to toxicity of the drug in such case Liver transplant may be necessary if the damage is enormous. `
Answer:
Immunosuppressants drugs and Corticosteroids
Explanation:
Corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment and have been shown to produce remission.
At a meeting in Palmis Inc., the decision to launch a new product that prevents tooth decay was being debated. A product development specialist said "What a wonderful product! We have created a formulation that will help Americans protect their teeth. I don't know why those health critics are accusing us of introducing a potentially harmful product to the market. After all, our goal is to help people, not harm them. We want to do what is in the best interest of the public." Which of the following symptoms of groupthink does she demonstrate by this speech?
Answer:
A belief in the inherent morality of the group
Explanation:
Groupthink is generally evident when the sense of the concept “we” in a group is strong, so people want to have always good terms with the group. The objective is to maintain the group in a harmonic way and the individual thoughts are usually sacrificed for groupthink.
There are different items to take into account when analyzing groupthink, one of them is belief in inherent morality of the group, this means that it is thought whatever the group decides to do is the right thing to do since everybody knows what is right and what is not, sometimes, this situation makes them ignore consequences on their decisions .
Option C is correct. The product development specialist's speech exhibits the symptom of belief in inherent morality.
This symptom of groupthink involves the unquestioned belief that the group's decisions are morally superior. In this case, the specialist dismisses health critics' concerns and emphasizes the altruistic intention behind the product, asserting that the goal is to help people. This indicates a belief that their actions are inherently right and just, ignoring potential risks or negative consequences. The specialist does not entertain the possibility that the product could be harmful, illustrating a moral righteousness that aligns with the belief in inherent morality.
This kind of thinking can lead to overlooking valid criticisms and failing to critically assess the potential downsides of a product or decision. Unlike other symptoms such as illusion of invulnerability, self-censorship, or direct pressure on dissenters, which involve either overconfidence, withholding doubts, or coercing agreement, belief in inherent morality specifically relates to the unquestioned ethical stance of the group, as demonstrated by the specialist's statements.
The complete question is:
At a meeting in Palmis Inc., the decision to launch a new product that prevents tooth decay was being debated. A product development specialist said "What a wonderful product! We have created a formulation that will help Americans protect their teeth. I don't know why those health critics are accusing us of introducing a potentially harmful product to the market. After all, our goal is to help people, not harm them. We want to do what is in the best interest of the public." Which of the following symptoms of groupthink does she demonstrate by this speech?
A. Illusion of invulnerability
B. Self-censorship
C. Belief in inherent morality
D. Direct pressure on dissenters
When people who are allergic to pollen come in contact with pollen, their eyes begin to water and itch due to the release of?
Answer:
histamines from body cells
Explanation:
._.
Although food labels are designed to inform people about how to make healthy food choices, a recent survey found that approximately _____of people have difficulty understanding them.
Answer:
more than 50%
Explanation:
More than half of the population over 40 do not understand the nutritional information that appears on food labeling, according to recent studies
Ignorance of labeling may be one of the reasons why society does not feed properly.
The most natural, easiest, safest and least expensive form of aerobic exercise is_____.
The majority of cases of vasovagal syncope occur within which of the following time frames following vaccination?
a) 10 minutes
b) 15 minutes
c) 20 minutes
Answer:
The answer is letter A, 10 minutes.
Explanation:
Vasovagal syncope is also known as "neurocardiogenic syncope." This happens when a person faints due to some triggers following vaccination. The trigger could be the sight of blood or the body's blood pressure suddenly drops. Although this is not a serious condition, it should be monitored or treated.
The majority of cases of vasovagal syncope occur immediately within minutes of receiving the vaccine. It could happen during or after the vaccination. Thus, the answer is letter a, 10 minutes (since this is the shortest time frame).
Vasovagal episodes should be distinguished from anaphylaxis episodes. Anaphylaxis usually occur within 15 minutes to an hour of receiving the vaccine.
Vasovagal syncope causes some of the following symptoms: nausea, vomiting, cool clammy skin, hypotension, bradychardia, loss of consciousness, etc.
Answer:
10 minutes
Explanation:
I don´t really have an explanation but I have vasovagal syncope and have done my research on it, so I hope helped at least a little.
How does the body respond to a diet that is high in saturated fat?
A. It raises unsaturated fat levels.
B. It reduces calorie counts.
C. It produces more cholesterol.
D. It stores more amino acids.
Answer:
c. it produces more cholesterol
Explanation:
Eating foods that contain saturated fats raises the level of cholesterol in your blood. High levels of LDL cholesterol in your blood increase your risk of heart disease and stroke.
A client was given 400 mg ibuprofen PO at approximately 000 hours for the treatment of back pain. The client would most likely feel peak effects of the drug at which time?
Answer:
1:30
Explanation:
When it comes to ibuprofen, the first effects from it should be felt around 15-25 minutes later. The peak effect of the drug should be felt around 90 minutes later. On the other hand, the drug is not that strong, so a person would have to take it in the system every 4th or 6th hour. The limit of ibuprofen daily intake would be 6 times a day.
Which eating disorder involves eating a large amount of food and then purging? A overeating B bulimia nervosa C binge eating D anorexia nervosa
Answer:
Bulimia Nervosa is a eating disorder that involves eating a large amount of food and then purging, vomiting or other methods to avoid weight gain.
Explanation:
Emil mistakenly believed that a single intake interview in which he simply described his numerous symptoms to a therapist was a treatment for his distress. His immediate relief from many of his symptoms following this session best illustrates ____.
Answer:
The correct answer is - the placebo effect.
Explanation:
The placebo effect is a inert treatment or substance that has no effect or might have not affected by it till the time. It has no effect in reality however the patient or client feels like he/she get relief from the symptoms of the problems he/she suffering.
Thus, the correct answer is - the placebo effect.
Answer:
The placebo effect
Explanation:
The placebo effect is defined as a phenomenon in which some people experience a benefit after the administration of an inactive substance or sham treatment.
What term is used to describe the process that moves fluid and small particles out of the blood through the glomerulus and into the nephron tubule
Answer:
Filtration.
Explanation:
Urine formation occurs in three steps: filtration, reabsorption, and secretion. Filtration involves the transfer of water, and waste (soluble components) from the blood into the glomerulus, and glomerular is defined as the small group of intertwined capillaries within nephrons of the kidney which helps to filter the blood to make urine.
During the filtration process, blood enters the arteriole than flow into the glomerulus where water, and nitrogenous waste (filterable blood components), will move inside of the glomerulus, and cells, and serum albumins (non-filterable components) will exit from the arteriole. To form the glomerular filtrate, filterable components accumulated in the glomerulus.
In the United States, people who live in urban areas have a life expectancy ______ years longer than those who live in rural areas.
Answer: 2.0 years
Explanation:
NOTE:
17% of the U.S. population lives in rural areas, while 83% in urban areas.
During the past 40 years, there is a consistent overall increase in U.S. life expectancy from 70.8 years in 1970 to 78.7 years in 2010. However, a decade ago, a study reveals the rural-urban gap widening from 0.4 years in 1969 through 1971 to 2.0 years in 2005 through 2009.
Study showed that 70% of the overall rural-urban gap in life expectancy and 54% of the life expectancy gap between the urban rich and rural poor in 2005 to 2009 are caused by accidents, cardiovascular disease, COPD and lung cancer.
A combination of factors likely accounts for this disparity. Compared to urban areas, rural areas have higher rates of both smoking and lung cancer, plus obesity, yet reduced access to health care services. Also, rural dwellers have a very low median family income, higher poverty rate and very few have college degrees.
Answer:
The correct answer for: In the United States, people who live in urban areas have a life expectancy ______ years longer than those who live in rural areas. Is: 3.5%
Explanation:
All right, to understand this question we need to recall 2005-2009 rural and urban census information. According to that study, the urban population lived 3.5% more than people in rural areas. To be honest this is not a very big gap. However, it was declared that most of the difference was because people who live in rural areas have less access to healthcare emergency services. Thus, that results in a very small GAP.