Answer:
Between 5-8% of body water loss
Explanation:
Mild dehydration, naturally occurs from 3%, at this point most people can manage and cope with it, and its relatively easy to recover from. From 5% decrease, fatigue and dizziness creeps in, which are good factors for heat cramps and heat exhaustion. Finally, any loss above 10% is regarded as sever, exceeding 15% can lead to death.
After educating a class of nursing students on culture and ethnicity, the instructor determines that the education was successful when the class identifies what as the same as ethnicity?
Answer:
Ethnic identity.
Explanation:
Ethnic identity may be defined as one of the important identity that are mainly associated with the racial and the ethnic group. This might results in the positive attitude of the individual.
Ethnic identity has the direct effect on the that could might surprise the different individuals. The ethnic identity plays an important role in the education. This might also increase the culture understanding among the students.
Thus, the answer is ethnic identity.
Answer:
Ethnic identity
Explanation:
Ethnic identity is defined as a sense of belonging based on one's ancestry, cultural heritage, values, traditions, rituals, and often language and religion.
11 children had been abducted, sexually assaulted and murdered, the government made a deal with the captured killer and paid him $10,000 for each body he had buried in order to recover the victims. The killer produced 10 bodies. When an outraged public became aware of this transaction the government was forced to recover the money.
Answer:
Arthur Shawcross
Explanation:
Arthur John Shawcross (June 6, 1945 – November 10, 2008), also known as the Genesee River Killer, was an American serial killer active in Rochester, New York. His first known murders were in 1972 when he killed a young boy and a girl in his hometown of Watertown, New York.
What term refers to the set of principles—underpinning Western medical systems and practices—that defines diseases objectively, in accordance with the presence of recognized symptoms, and holds that the healthy body can be restored through scientifically based medical treatment?
Answer:
The biomedical model of health.
Explanation:
The 'biomedical model of health' is purely concerned to the biological aspect rather than other environmental or social parts.It deals with the techniques and practices that have been performed to 'diagnose and treat' the heath diseases.A human body is an analogy to the machine, the performance of the human body can be increased by the better treatment and maintenance. So, this model of heath is related to the heath professional’s practice to detect and diagnose the heath disease in modern way.David has a new client in her 2nd trimester of pregnancy. How should he modify the overhead squat assessment for her?
Answer:
The answer is- The range of motion should be decreased
Explanation:
The options are:
a. The range of motion should be increased
b. The arms should be placed at the sides
c. The range of motion should be decreased
d. The heels should be elevated
The answer is C. The range of motion should be decreased.
The overhead test is a screening assessment used for obtaining general indication of dynamic posture and used periodically to know if exercise interventions are effective. It is a total-body squatting movement which helps to increase core strength and qualify muscle imbalance. It also reinforces proper squatting technique. It is one of recommended exercises for the 2nd Trimester of Pregnancy, they may however need to decrease their range of rotation as her pregnancy progresses.
It also predicts how well a client will do on the Fibromyalgia Syndrome (FMS) which is a chronic condition that causes pain and fatigue and also issues with memory, sleep and mood. Gaining weight and hormonal fluctuations during pregnancy can make symptoms worse.
Oats are eaten by humans as oatmeal or rolled oats, and as feed for livestock such as cattle. In order for an oat plant to make the part we eat (the seed), it must flower and be pollinated. Typically, oat plants flower when days are lengthening (i.e., late spring to early summer). What is the best classification for oat plants
Answer:
The answer is Short night.
Explanation:
Oat is an example of a short night plant. Short night plants are also called long day plants, their flowering is induced by long days. Their plants flower when they are exposed to day length longer than the critical minimum requirement (i.e the days are longer than the critical day length). They usually flower in the spring or early summer. Their flowering can also be induced if the plants are exposed to short light period with still shorter dark period. Some other examples include; Barley, lettuce, wheat.
The pharmacology instructor is talking about interferon. The instructor explains that agents such as interferons have more than one biologic function. What function is NOT associated with interferons?
Answer: Antiviral, immunomodulatory and anticancer
Explanation:
Interferons are the group of proteins secreated by the host cells in response to viral attack, requirement of modulation of immune system and for prevention of cancerous growth in the body.
In presence of several virus in the body the infected cells produce and release interferons to protect unaffected cells from the infection.
Interferons triggers protective defenses of the immune system that will help in eradicating the pathogens.
The immune system in the presence of interferon finds and kill the melanoma cells of cancer.
Final answer:
Interferons have multiple biologic functions, but tumor surveillance is not associated with interferons.
Explanation:
Interferons have multiple biologic functions, including inhibiting viral replication, signaling neighboring uninfected cells to destroy RNA and reduce protein synthesis, signaling neighboring infected cells to undergo apoptosis (programmed cell death), and activating immune cells. However, tumor surveillance is not a function associated with interferons. Tumor surveillance involves the detection and destruction of cancer cells by the immune system, which is primarily carried out by cytotoxic T cells and natural killer cells.
Mr. Daniel continues to speak fluently and grammatically following a brain injury. However, what he says makes absolutely no sense. Mrs. Clemens has trouble speaking fluently though she has no problem understanding the speech of others. Mr. Daniel appears to be suffering from ___________. Mrs. Clemens appears to be suffering from _________.
Answer:
1. Wernicke's aphasia
2. Broca's aphasia
Explanation:
Aphasia is the condition associated with the use and understanding of the words which trouble the ability to communicate. The aphasia condition is caused due to brain tumours, trauma and some injury to the part of the brain. Different type of aphasia can be categorized on the basis of part of the brain affected.
In the given question when the person speaks fluently but what he says has no sense, the aphasia is known as fluent aphasia or Wernicke's aphasia. In this aphasia, the person the connection of words in speech is not impaired but the meaning of the spoken word is impaired.
The condition when the lady is not able to speak fluently but the understand the words is known as Broca's aphasia.
Thus, Wernicke's aphasia and Broca's aphasia are correct.
Increasing blood viscosity (thickness) can be caused by abuse of which ergogenic aid?
Answer:Synthetic Erythropoietin
Explanation:
EPO as mostly called increases the rate of erythropoesis, that is production of red blood cells.This increases oxygen supply in the body, especially to the muscles cells. it is mostly used by athletes to improve their performances.
However as much RBC is produced, the cells clog together making the blood thick or viscous .
This lead to circulatory load on the heart which exerted much force higher than normal cardiac pressure to pump into systemic circulation.
This may cause heart heart attack.
the accumulated aggregated RBC can also lead to clotting. if this blocked blood supply to the brain, it may lead to STOKE.
After the release of the mature egg, it is guided by the fimbria into the ___________________. 1. uterus. 2. vagina. 3. fallopian tubes. 4. endometrium
Answer:
3. Fallopian tubes.
Explanation:
The uterine tubes, also known as oviducts or fallopian tubes, are the female structures that transport the ova from the ovary to the uterus each month.
Who should advise a driver/operator who may be mentally or physically impaired to seek appropriate assistance?
Answer:
A Psychiatrist
Explanation:
A psychiatrist is a medical doctor (an M.D. or D.O.) who specializes in mental health, including substance use disorders.
Freud suggested that for those suffering a generalized anxiety disorder, the anxiety is ______.
Answer:
Free-floating anxiety.
Explanation:
Anxiety may be defined as as a type of the group of the mental disorders, illness or distress that can disturb the normal routine of the life. Anxiety can also be characterized by fear as well.
The emotional state of the chronic stress and the uncertainty arise the free floating anxiety. This is under the category of the generalized anxiety disorder. This is more dangerous as it is more complex and reactions are not focus in the particular.
Thus, the answer is free floating anxiety.
Answer: Free-floating anxiety
Explanation: Free-floating anxiety is a term used by Freud to describe a type of anxiety that is not attached to any specific object, situation, or event. Instead, it is a general feeling of unease and apprehension that can be difficult to identify and manage.
A form of exercise that incorporates both static and dynamic stretching is _____.
Answer:
Yoga
Explanation:
Dynamic stretching are commonly used as warm up before an exercise. They improve mobility by incorporating active movements while moving the joints and muscles through motion. They can also resemble the type of sport or exercise about to be performed
Static stretching are those stretches in which you maintain a single position for a stretch of time. It is usually done at the end of an exercise session. There is no mobility in static stretches and it is good for releasing stress, increasing flexibility and range of motion.
Yoga which has been confirmed as a form of exercise by experts incorporate both. Many formats of Yoga combine them by maintaining static stretches after which there are active movements of joints and muscles which is dynamic stretching
provides nonsurgical treatment to detect, prevent, and treat heart and vascular disease.
Answer: To prevent: lifestyle modification
To Detect: Imaging like X-ray or Echocardiography
To Treat: Drugs
Explanation:
It all depends on the particular cardiovascular conditions in question but generally speaking, there are several non surgical options available.
To Prevent:
Prevention of cardiovascular diseases is practically done non surgically and this is because it’s usually a lifestyle modification and optimization and these includes regular exercises, eating healthy meals and minimizing cigarette smoking
To detect:
Detection of cardiovascular diseases can be carried out by several means amongst which includes Biochemical testing. Here, blood or urine samples can be tested in order to be sure of any ongoing cardiac pathology eg increase in c-reactive proteins.
Another method that can be used include imaging techniques. These include the all popular Xrays to more specific investigations like Echocardiography.
To Treat:
As for treatment, this largely depends on the particular ailment in question but severe drugs like cholesterol modifying medication, aspirin, beta blockers, calcium channel blockers and nitroglycerin can be used and are all non surgical approaches.
A client with spinal cord injury is experiencing muscle spasticity. Which agent would most likely be ordered?
Answer:
Baclofen.
Explanation:
Spinal cord may be defined as the tube like structure consists of the nervous tissue that are extended towards the medulla oblongata. Brain and spinal cord together forms the central nervous system of the body.
Any injury in the spinal cord can cause injury in the muscle as well. Baclofen is a drug used for the treatment of the mascular spasm. This drug help in the relaxation of the muscle. The prescribed doasge is taken and the drug can be taken before or after eating the food.
Thus, the answer is baclofen.
Michelle, a seventy-year-old woman, was a very composed and gentle person. For the past eight months, she has been behaving in a very impulsive and violent manner. She has been experiencing memory problems too. She also exhibits other symptoms of neurocognitive disorder. Michelle is most likely suffering from
Answer:
Pick's disease
Explanation:
Harry was hospitalized and in a coma for 6 months. When does proof of loss for this claim have to be submitted?
Answer:
C.
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that the proof of loss for this claim must be submitted within 1 year, unless he suffers legal incapacity. Usually this must be done within the 90 days of the loss, or the fastest possible time, but the limit for submission is 1 year and must not exceed that time frame. Since Harry was in a coma for 6-months, there was no way that he could meet the 90 days of the loss and therefore has 1 year.
What is the most effective method used to monitor clients with asthma that they can use at home?
Answer:
Peak-flow monitor.
Explanation:
Asthma may be defined as the medical condition the breathing airways becomes narrow and produces large amount of mucus. This hinders the normal process of breathing and causes sneezing, coughing.
Peak flow motor is the inexpensive and hand help portable medical device the air flow during one breathe. This can be used by the asthma patients at home. The specific plan for the asthma clients should be in right place and must know the symptom monitoring.
Thus, the answer is peak flow monitor.
A 70-year-old female was recently discharged from the hospital following a total hip replacement. Today, she presents with restlessness, tachycardia, and a blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg. Her skin is hot and moist. You should be MOST suspicious that she is experiencing:__________A. Decompensated shock.B. Pump failure.C. Septic shock.D. A local infection.
Answer:
Septic shock.
Explanation:
After the medical surgery the patient requires the proper medical attention and treatment. The immune system becomes weak and the patient is more prone to the infection.
Septic shock may be defined as the medical condition that might damage the tissue or the organ against the infection. This septic shock is characterized by the low blood pressure, high body temperature and tachycardia. This can be caused by the bacteria.
Thus, the correct answer is option (C).
The symptoms presented by the 70-year-old female who recently had a hip replacement are most likely indicative of septic shock, a severe infection that results in low blood pressure and organ dysfunction.
Explanation:The symptoms that the 70-year-old female recently discharged from the hospital following a total hip replacement is showing such as restlessness, tachycardia, and a blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg, along with hot and moist skin, are suggestive of a body's systemic response to an infection. Therefore, we can be MOST suspicious that she is experiencing C. Septic shock. Septic shock is a severe infection that results in low blood pressure and organ dysfunction. It often happens due to a spread of bacteria from a localized infection, such as post-surgical infection. It is definitely a serious condition and immediate medical attention is required.
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According to the Yerkes-Dodson law, successful performance on a simple task requires __________, whereas successful performance on a difficult and complex task requires __________ .
a) low arousal; high arousal
b) moderate arousal; high arousal
c) low arousal; low arousal
d) high arousal; low arousal
Answer:
D - High Arousal; Low Arousal
Explanation:
The Yerkes Dodson law explains the relationship between arousal and performance. It was posited by Robert M. Yerkes and John Dillingham Dodson in 1908.
The law asserts that there is a direct relationship between arousal and performance. An increase in arousal up to a certain level will enhance performance, and once the optimal threshold is exceeded, performance will begin to decline.
Thus arousal should be kept at a midpoint as too little causes boredom, and too much causes hyperactivity, so moderate arousal is optimal.
A simple task requires higher arousal because it uses less cognitive function and brain power thus higher arousal is required to keep interest; while a difficult task requires low arousal since it requires higher cognitive function, it requires lots of focus and higher arousal is not good for intense focus as it causes hyperactivity.
The Yerkes-Dodson law states that the performance on simple tasks is best with high arousal, while complex tasks require low arousal for optimized performance.
Explanation:According to the Yerkes-Dodson law, successful performance on a simple task requires high arousal, whereas successful performance on a difficult and complex task requires low arousal. The correct answer is d) high arousal; low arousal. The Yerkes-Dodson law suggests that there is an inverted U-shaped relationship between arousal and task performance, meaning that moderate levels of arousal are optimal for task performance.
However, the peak of the curve shifts depending on the complexity of the task, with higher arousal being more beneficial for simple tasks and lower arousal levels being more advantageous for complex tasks. This is because high arousal can help maintain concentration on simple tasks, while it can be overwhelming and harmful to performance on complex tasks.
True or False: The only predictable thing about a drug is that it will make you sick.1. True 2. False
Answer:
False
Explanation:
You can predict the symptoms and consequences of taking harmful drug. Medicinal drugs will help cure sickness not cause it.
A breastfeeding mother requires treatment for depression. Which drug would be safe to use if the mother wishes to continue breastfeeding the newborn?a. Fluoxetine
b. Paroxetine
c. Valproic acid
d. Methotrexate
Answer: B. Paroxetine
Explanation:
The answer to the question is Paroxetine and this is because there has been a series of researches conducted at different laboratories and found undetectable serum levels in infants and there were also no reports of short term adverse effects.
As for valproic acid, it is usually passed into the infant through breastfeeding and makes the infant susceptible to liver liver toxicity.
Methotrexate on its part is a drug with known harmful effects and though there are very few researches that can actually prove its harmful effects in infant, it is a drug that can be passed to infants in small amounts and this logically implies that it can be dangerous to infants breastfeeding.
As for Fluoxetine, there has been a lot of researches which proved colic, fussiness and drowsiness in infants breastfeeding from mothers taking the drugs
Under the affordable care act, all of the folloowing are the required essential benefits except:________.
CORRECT QUESTION.
Which of the following statements about the Affordable Care Act is TRUE?
A) The health care law includes reforms to the affordability, availability, and quality of health insurance.
B) The health care law was passed by state legislation and only exists in certain states.
C) The Affordable Care Act is administered through Social Security.
D) The law was created specifically to provide affordable care for senior citizens.
Explanation and Answer;
The health care law includes reforms to the affordability, availability, and quality of health insurance.
Explanation:
The Affordable Care law signed into law by President Obama, March 23rd ,2010.It is usually refered to as the Obamacare.
The law formed the basis for the reformation of the health insurance in the United States for the citizens to be able to afford an improved and quality health insurance.
And aalso introduced measures for regulation of private and public health insurance companies.
A child comes to the emergency room with a high fever, headache, and stiff neck. What diagnostic procedure would MOST LIKELY be performed?
Answer: Lumbar puncture
Explanation:
Meningitis is a condition of inflammation of the membranes that surrounds the brain and spinal cord. The symptoms of this condition includes fever, neck stiffness and headache. The cerebrospinal fluid can be used to detect meningitis. The lumbar puncture is the procedure which can be used to collect the cerebrospinal fluid from site of lumbar vertebra. The lumbar is punctured using injection syringe to collect the fluid.
In the given situation, lumbar puncture is the correct procedure to diagnose meningitis as the child is showing symptoms for the same.
One of the characteristics of a nutritious diet is that the foods provide enough of each essential nutrient, fiber, and energy. This principle of diet planning is called: Group of answer choices
1. variety.
2. balance.
3. moderation.
4. calorie control adequacy.
Answer: The options are enlisted incorrectly
1. variety
2. balance
3. moderation.
4. calorie control
5. adequacy
The correct answer is adequacy.
Explanation:
Nutrition adequacy can be defined as the sufficient intake of essential nutrients, that are required to fulfill the nutritional requirements for maintaining the optimal health. This involves the sufficient intake of each kind of food so that the body remains free from deficiency.
Other parameters of a diet includes:
Balance: Not too much intake of any kind of food.
Calorie control: Not too much intake of calories.
Moderation: Not too much intake of food containing sugar, salt and fat.
Variety: Intake of as many as different kind of food as possible or including in the diet plan.
Final answer:
The principle of diet planning that focuses on supplying enough essential nutrients, fiber, and energy through foods is known as adequacy. This principle is part of a healthful diet, which also includes balance, moderation, variety, and calorie control, ensuring that the diet is both nutrient-dense and complete.
Explanation:
The principle of diet planning that emphasizes foods providing enough of each essential nutrient, fiber, and energy is called adequacy. Adequacy ensures that a diet is complete by supplying all of the essential nutrients, sufficient fiber, and the calories necessary to maintain a healthy lifestyle. A diet that is adequate is nutrient-dense, meaning it provides a high amount of nutrients for the calories it contains, as opposed to foods that are considered 'empty-calorie' items like sugary drinks.
Contrasting with adequacy are other principles of a healthful diet, such as balance, ensuring that no nutrient is consumed at the expense of another, and moderation, which advises against eating too much or too little. These principles, alongside variety and calorie control, contribute to a nutritious and healthful diet that can support overall well-being and weight management. It's important to not only include a variety of foods within each food group but to also manage the quantity and quality of food consumed.
The most common symptoms of foodborne illness include all the following EXCEPT:______
A) diarrhea
B) vomiting
C) abdominal cramps
D) double vision
Answer:
D)Double vision.
Explanation:
The most common symptoms of foodborne illness include all the EXCEPT double vision.
What are the 5 major foodborne illnesses?
The top five germs that cause illnesses from food eaten in the United States are norovirus, Salmonella, Clostridium perfringens, Campylobacter and Staphylococcus aureus.
Thus, option "D" is correct.
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Qualitative and quantitative codes for drug testing are found in which of the following CPT sections?
a) Pathology
b) Surgical
c) Anesthesia
d) Medicine
Answer:
A) Pathology
Explanation:
In a hospital there are different departments, but whenever a doctor needs a sample analysed, whether it is blood, urine, etc. it is sent to the pathology department.
The pathology department will analyse and test the samples they are given, and report back on any suspicious findings. Their are qualitative and quantitative codes for drug testing in this department.
If a minor is caught driving with a BAC between .01% and .08%, he or she will _____.
If a minor is caught driving with a BAC between 0.01% and 0.08%, they would likely be in violation of the law. While the exact consequences can vary state by state, generally, any detectable level of BAC in underage drivers is considered illegal.
Explanation:If a minor is caught driving with a BAC (Blood Alcohol Concentration) between 0.01% and 0.08%, this is likely to be considered illegal by most laws and he or she may suffer penalties. This is because in many regions, any detectable level of BAC in underage drivers is unacceptable.
A point of note is that the National Minimum Drinking Age Act of 1984 set the minimum drinking age to twenty-one across the United States.
Some factors that contribute to alcohol intoxication include the social situation and the individual's personality. Generally, the legal intoxication limit is a BAC level of 0.08%, measured by blood or breath testing. However, for minors, the limit may be a lot lower based on state laws.
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After teaching a group of students about the standard childhood immunizations given today, the instructor determines that the students need additional teaching when they identify which as a common disease for which immunizations are given?
A) Tuberculosis.
B) Poliovirus.
C) Diphtheria.
D) Pertussis.
Answer:
A. Tuberculosis
Explanation:
BCG vaccine (Bacillus of Calmette and Guérin) was created in 1921 by Léon Calmette and Alphonse Guérin. Protects against severe forms of tuberculosis, a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which mainly affects the lungs and, if untreated, can cause serious breathing problems, weight loss, weakness and even death. The vaccine is the only type of immunization against the disease and should be given as a single dose.
Pentavalent vaccine protects against 5 diseases: diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, poliovirus and infections caused by Haemophilus influenzae type b (meningitis, pericarditis, pneumonia, arthritis and osteomyelitis).
Diphtheria causes inflammation and injury to parts of the airway and may lead to the death.Pertussis may progress to severe conditions with pulmonary, neurological, hemorrhagic complications and dehydrationAnd polio in some cases causes paralysis, especially in the legs.A client comes to the clinic with what appears to be a cold. What group of upper respiratory drugs cause local vasoconstriction, which decreases blood flow and shrinks swollen membranes to improve air flow?
Answer:
Topical nasal decongestants
Explanation:
Nasal decongestants are vasoconstricting substances (like: naphazoline, phenoxazoline, oxymetatazoline, phenylephrine, pseudoephredine) that provide almost immediate relief to breathe. They act making the vessels contract, blood flow slows, shrinks swollen membranes, mucus production is low, and people can breathe normally again because these substances improve the air flow.
Topical nasal decongestant treat nasal congestion to relieve symptoms in colds, nasal allergic conditions, and rhinitis. However, these medications can cause health problems due to improper and excessive use, and major adverse events arising from their use.
Consider this scenario: Ron has researched how to move into and hold several yoga poses. However, when he attempts poses, he is unable to manipulate his body into each pose, and has difficulty holding some poses. According to SCT, why does Ron have difficulty holding these poses?
Answer:
-Ron needs more behavioral capacity to perform the yoga poses
Explanation:
Ron is having difficulty holding these poses because he needs more behavioral capacity to perform the yoga poses.
SCT means Social Cognitive Theory. It describes the influence of individual learning experiences, reciprocal interaction, environmental factors on individual health behaviors. It provides opportunity for social support by instilling expectations, self-efficacy, reciprocal determinism, observational learning and behavioral capability to achieve behavior change
Behavioral capability or capacity means understanding and having the skill to perform a behavior.
In order for Ron to do yoga poses well he must know what to do and how to do it.