Uniden's condition is an X-linked recessive trait in the Redialer population. The trait allele F has a frequency of 0.005 in this population; that is. the frequency is the same in the male and female populations. Individuals with this trait have a strong desire to use land-line phones. Note, the trait gene is in Hardy Weinberg Equilibrium (HWE) for the female Redialer population. An man with the trait and an woman without the trait have a son. What is the probability that the son has Uniden's condition? (Use the HWE equation to determine the most likely genotype in the woman). 0.0 0.25 0.005. 0.5 1E-05.

Answers

Answer 1

The probability that the son has Uniden's condition is 0.5 or 50%.

The trait allele F has a frequency of 0.005 in the Redialer population.

The trait is X-linked recessive.

The trait gene is in HWE for the female Redialer population.

A man with the trait and a woman without the trait have a son.

Step 1: Determine the genotype of the woman.

Since the trait is X-linked recessive, the woman without the trait must be homozygous for the dominant allele (XX).

Genotype of the woman: XX

Step 2: Determine the genotype of the man.

Since the man has the trait, he must be hemizygous for the recessive allele (XF).

Genotype of the man: XF

Step 3: Calculate the probability of the son having Uniden's condition.

The son inherits one X chromosome from the mother (X) and one X chromosome from the father (XF).

The probability of the son having Uniden's condition (XF) is 0.5.


Related Questions

Which accessory eye structures function to produce the tears that cleanse and protect the eye?
a. lacrimal glandsb. conjunctivac. Meibomian glandsd. medial canthi

Answers

Answer:

a. lacrimal glands

Explanation:

Lacrimal glands are paired, almond-shaped exocrine glands, situated at each eye. Their main function is to secrete the aqueous layer of the tear film.This lacrimal gland  produce the tears that flow into canals that connect to the lacrimal sac. and also cleanse and protect the eye. They can be located at the upper lateral region of each orbit, in the lacrimal fossa of the orbit formed by the frontal bone.

The major function of the conjuctiva is to Produce mucus to prevent the eyes from drying out.

Meibomian glands are holocrine type exocrine glands, along the rims of the eyelid inside the tarsal plate. They produce meibum, (an oily substance).This oily substance prevents evaporation of the eye's tear film.

Medial canthi is the  corner of the eye where the upper and lower eyelids meet.

This basic explanation clearly depicts that the Lacrimal glands is the correct answer.

Small vesicles containing pigment inside of pigmented fish epidermal cells aggregate or disperse in response to treatment with certain chemicals. When nocodazole is added to cells in which the pigment granules have been induced to aggregate, the granules cannot disperse again. Small vesicles containing pigment inside of pigmented fish epidermal cells aggregate or disperse in response to treatment with certain chemicals. When nocodazole is added to cells in which the pigment granules have been induced to aggregate, the granules cannot disperse again. Pigment granules can either aggregate or disperse. Once aggregated the granules cannot disperse again, and vice versa. Intermediate filaments have a large effect on the pigment granule dispersal process and can stabilize resulting aggregates. Pigment granule dispersal is a microtubule-dependent process.

Answers

Answer:

Pigment granule dispersal is a microtubule-dependent process.

Final answer:

The question discusses how nocodazole, by disrupting microtubules, prevents the dispersion of pigment granules in fish epidermal cells, demonstrating the role of microtubules and intermediate filaments in pigment granule movement.

Explanation:

The question pertains to the behavior of pigment granules in pigmented fish epidermal cells in response to chemical treatment. Nocodazole, a chemical inhibitor that disrupts microtubules, prevents the dispersion of pigment granules once they have aggregated. This indicates that pigment granule dispersal is a microtubule-dependent process. Furthermore, the question notes that intermediate filaments significantly impact the dispersal and stabilization of these pigment granules.

This process is akin to those observed in eukaryotic cells, where microtubules, actin filaments, and intermediate filaments form the cytoskeleton and play a critical role in various cellular functions, including intracellular transport and cell division. Observations like this are often visualized using fluorescent dyes, highlighting specific cellular structures under a fluorescence microscope.

How does the balance of populations in the ecosystem change when the rattlesnake population increases? Choose the two correct answers. A. The bison population increases. B. The grasshopper population increases. C. The grasshopper population decreases. D. The blue jay population increases. E. The prairie dog population decreases.

Answers

Answer: The correct options are C and E.

Explanation: When the rattlesnake population increases, the population of grasshopper and prairie dog are also decreases.

Both grasshopper and prairie dog are herbivores and eaten by rattlesnake. When rattlesnake population increases they feed on grasshopper and prairie dog and decrease occurs in their population.

Human hair color is a classic, if oversimplified, example of recessive epistasis. Red hair is caused by a recessive allele r. However, if an individual has a dominant R allele, they may have either brown or blonde hair depending on whether they have a dominant B allele (which causes brown hair), or are homozygous for a recessive b allele (which causes blonde hair). The B and R loci are on located on different chromosomes. If a couple with genotypes Bb; Rr and bb; rr have children, what hair colors and in what proportions are expected among their children?

Answers

Answer:

1 Brown: 1 Blonde: 2 Red

Explanation:

According to the given information, the recessive allele "r" gives red color to hair but is epistatic to alleles B and b. Therefore, the genotype with two copies of the "r" allele would have red-colored hair. The genotypes with at least one copy of "B" and “R" alleles each would have brown hair while the "R" allele would give blond hair in presence of allele "b".

Therefore, a cross between BbRr and bbrr would produce progeny in following phenotype ratio= 1 Brown: 1 Blonde: 2 Red

Final answer:

Human hair color is a polygenic trait influenced by multiple genes. For a couple with genotypes Bb; Rr and bb; rr, a Punnett square predicts their children will have an equal chance of brown, blonde, or red hair in a 1:1:1:1 ratio.

Explanation:

Hair color in humans is an example of a polygenic trait influenced by multiple genes. Individuals with certain combinations of alleles for these genes will display various hair colors such as black, brown, blonde, or red. In the scenario provided, where one parent has the genotype Bb; Rr (capable of brown or blonde hair with a possibility of red) and the other parent has the genotype bb; rr (red hair), we can predict the possible hair colors of their offspring using a Punnett square to combine their genotypes.

Since red hair requires two recessive r alleles and the second parent provides only recessive r alleles, all the offspring must carry at least one r allele, ensuring the possibility of red hair. Also, as brown hair is dominant over blonde and requires at least one B allele, which only one parent carries, we can expect some children to inherit brown or blonde hair depending on whether they inherit the B allele from the first parent.

Combining these alleles from both parents would yield a 1:1:1:1 ratio of the following phenotypes: Brown (Bb; Rr), Blonde (bb; Rr), Red (Bb; rr), and Red (bb; rr).

_______________ occurs when coal is burned and sulfur oxides are released into the atmosphere, causing acid-forming particles to accumulate.

Answers

Answer:

Acid rain

Explanation:

So2 +H2O = HSO3+

In guinea pigs, the gene for black fur, B, is dominant over the gene for white fur, b. Complete the Punnett square below to show the results of one possible cross between two guinea pigs with black fur.

Answers

Answer:

In guinea pigs, the gene for black fur, B, is dominant over the gene for white fur, b. Complete the Punnett square below to show the results of one possible cross between two guinea pigs with black fur.

BB X Bb = BB, Bb, BB, Bb

Explanation:

From the analogy shown, it is obvious that both parents are gene with black fur. During such crossing, the offspring are two homozygous dominant black fur and two heterozygous dominant black fur

HIV is classified as a retrovirus because _____.

(A) it reverts to an inactive form when it infects B lymphocytes
(B) this virus is composed of two cells surrounded by a lipoprotein coat
(C) it makes a DNA copy of its RNA once inside the host cell
(D) it infects only cells with a CD4 receptor
(E) it causes the production of HIV antibodies

Answers

Answer: C

Explanation:

HIV is classified as a retrovirus because its genetic material is composed of single-stranded RNA nucleotide. And also Retroviruses have the enzyme reverse transcriptase, which is capable of making a DNA copy of its RNA once inside the infected host cell

Answer:

The answer is C; it makes a DNA copy of its RNA once inside the host cell

Explanation:

HIV is called a retrovirus because common to all retroviruses, they store their genetic information using RNA instead of DNA, and they need to ‘make’ or convert their RNA to DNA when they enter a human cell in order to make new copies of themselves.

Why do you believe you need, or should receive, financial assistance, such as a Houston Livestock Show and Rodeo Scholarship to attend the college/university of your choice? This should include details about family situations such as:

a. care of family members,
b. medical situations,
c. family financial burdens and/or how important it will be for you to work while in college.

Answers

C because it is and will be.

Houston Livestock Show and Rodeo Scholarship to attend the college/university of your choice because it is and will be.

What is Houston Livestock?

One of the most lucrative professional rodeo events for the regular season is included. Since 2003, it has been held at NRG Stadium in Houston, Texas, with the exception of 2021 because of the COVID-19 pandemic's effects.

The Astrodome served as the previous venue.  Similar to Mardi Gras in New Orleans, the Texas State Fair in Dallas, Comic-Con in San Diego, and New Year's Eve in Times Square in New York City, it is regarded as the city's "signature event."

A record-breaking 2,611,176 attendees and 33,000 volunteers showed up in 2017. The rodeo was dubbed "the year of the volunteer" in 2007.

Therefore, Houston Livestock Show and Rodeo Scholarship to attend the college/university of your choice because it is and will be.

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During DNA replication
A.each strand can act as a template for the replication of the moleculeB.the two strands of the original DNA molecule must be separatedC.enzymes facilitate all the steps involvedD.each of the original two strands of DNA will wind up in a different chromatid

Answers

Answer:

The answer is A: Each strand can act as a template for the replication of the molecule

Explanation:

During DNA replication, each of the two strands that make up the double helix serves as a template from which new strands are copied. The new strand will be complementary to the template or parent strand.

Ringing in the ears is called:
a. otitis externa.
b. Meniere's syndrome.
c. tinnitus.
d. otosclerosis.

Answers

Answer:

c. tinnitus

Explanation:

Tinnitus (a hearing impairment) is a form of  hearing of sound when no external sound is present Which is often described as a Ringing,Tinnitus may also sound like a clicking or roaring. i.e usually unclear voices or music are heard. The sound may be soft or loud, low or high pitched, and appear to be coming from one or both ears. Ranging from one person to another, the sound may causes depression or anxiety and can interfere with concentration.

Otitis externa is a condition that causes inflammation , the inflammation also covers  (redness and swelling) of the external ear canal, i.e the tube between the outer ear and eardrum.

Meniere's disease popularly called (MD), is a disorder of the inner ear that is characterized by episodes of feeling like the world is spinning (vertigo), hearing loss, and a fullness in the  ear. The cause of MD involves both genetic and environmental factors. Some of the factors include constrictions in blood vessels, viral infections, and autoimmune reactions.

Otosclerosis is a condition where one or more foci of irregularly laid spongy bone replace part of normally dense enchondral layer of bony otic capsule in the bony labyrinth. This condition affects one of the ossicles (the stapes) resulting in hearing loss, vertigo or a combination of symptoms.

Therefore from the foregoing we can conclude that Tinnitus is the correct anwser.

Answer: option C

Explanation:

Ear ringing and strange ear noises is medically called tinnitus. People who have tinnitus hear buzzing and roaring sounds which are actually absent.

Tinnitus can be caused by problems in any of the four areas which are responsible for hearing: the outer ear, the middle ear, the inner ear, or in the brain.

Most vaccines currently administered are delivered by intramuscular injection. Yet the pathogenic organisms these vaccines aim to protect against usually enter the body by a different route. For instance, many viruses infect us via the respiratory tract, and many bacterial pathogens infect via the gastrointestinal tract. One major advantage of delivering vaccines against these organisms via their normal route of infection would be______________.

Answers

Answer: It is essential  for influencing immune responses at the initial site where pathogen first invaded the organism thus stimulating rapid  immune response against the pathogen.

Explanation:

This is because the route of vaccination is essential for influencing immune responses at the initial site where pathogen first invaded the organism. It is known as mucosal vaccine strategies. This is the most effective point of protection against the pathogens and the resolution of infection (state such as reduction of inflammation) at the initial point of pathogen entry. In addition; it  also activate local innate immune response.

Answer:

It is essential  for influencing immune responses at the initial site where pathogen first invaded the organism

Explanation:

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How Light Bleaches Rhodopsin

For this exercise, you will take a scenario of bleaching occurring within the rod cells and rank the steps in the process from beginning to end.

Rank the order of the bleaching process from beginning to end.

1 - Vitamin A from the bloodstream replenishes what is lost. The vitamin A returns to its original shape and gets reincorporated into rhodopsin.

2 - Rhodopsin absorbs light, and the vitamin A changes shape.

3 - Vitamin A detaches from the rhodopsin, and some vitamin A is lost.

4 - Light travels to the macula within the retina.

5 - Light enters the eye through the cornea.

Light contacts the eye.--------------- Light-absorbing capabilities of proteins are regenerated

Answers

Answer:

Salut!

Light enters the eye through the cornea.Light travels to the macula within the retina.Rhodopsin absorbs light, and the Vitamin A changes shape.Vitamin A detaches from the rhodopsin, and some vitamin A is lost.Vitamin A from the bloodstream replenishes what is lost. The vitamin A returns to its original shape.

Explanation:

Retina is the part of the eye that contains photosensitive cells that capture light and produce the electrical signals that the brain perceives as images. These photosensitive cells are of two kinds:

RodsCones

Rods contain the photosensitive pigment, rhodopsin that is needed for vision at night or in dim light. Cones function in bright light.

Rhodopsin Bleaching:

Vision in bright or excessive light requires a process called rhodopsin bleaching which is the degradation of rhodopsin upon exposure to light. Upon contact with light, rhodopsin goes through structural changes characterized by the conversion of a pigment derived from Vitamin A, 11-cis retinal to all trans retinal. This chemical conversion initiates a photo-transduction reaction (reaction in which a photon of light is converted into electrical signals) that produces the electrical signals that travel to the brain via the optic nerve. The brain converts the electrical signals to images. This is followed by rhodopsin regeneration in the dark in which all trans retinal is converted back into 11 cis retinal.

What forms blood clots in an artery that supplies blood to the myocardium courseherp?

Answers

Answer: Blood clot in the coronary arteries( arteries of the heart), called Coronary thrombosis is caused mostly by deposits and build up of  low density cholesterol, fibrous tissues, and inflammatory cells. on the walls of the artery. Smoking, sedentary life style(lack of exercise),and hypertension are other causes..

Obesity is another causative condition for coronary thrombosis.

These deposits and build up coalesces in different parts  of the coronary  arteries; to form structures called  plaques. The latter may break down at this  arterial segments which leads top formation of blood clot. (thrombosis)

The clot results in the blockage of the arteries that  supplies    the affected site,  with blood containing  oxygen and nutrients. This leads to tissue hypoxia(lack of oxygen) to the cardiac muscles cells   of the myocardium  and therefore myocardial infraction.(HEART ATTACK)

In some cases  these clots are pumped out  of the heart to the cerebral arteries, due to proximity of the brain to the heart. In this case this can lead to stroke,

Explanation:

Blood clots in coronary arteries form when plaque ruptures, causing platelets to clump together. This can narrow or block the arteries, leading to angina or heart attacks. Atherosclerosis is the primary cause of this condition.

Plaque begins the process of forming blood clots in the coronary arteries, which carry blood to the myocardium. Atherosclerosis, a condition that causes the coronary arteries to narrow over time, is caused by plaque, which is composed of cholesterol deposits. At the point when an area of plaque bursts, it causes platelet sections known as platelets to adhere to the injury site and bunch together, shaping blood clumps. These blood clots may cause severe conditions like angina (chest pain) or a heart attack by further narrowing the coronary arteries and significantly reducing blood flow. Now and again, the blood coagulation may totally hinder the conduit, altogether influencing the oxygen supply to the heart muscle and causing myocardial localized necrosis (cardiovascular failure).

What organisms are responsible for decomposing organic matter? Why are they essential? A. heterotrophs; they return biotic material to the abiotic component of the Earth B. social insects; they carry out fertilization of many crops C. decomposers; they return biotic material to the abiotic component of the Earth

Answers

Answer: Option C - decomposers; they return biotic material to the abiotic component of the Earth

Explanation:

Decomposers are also known as SAPROPHYTES. They feed on and break down dead and decaying remains of plants and animals, thus enabling the release of certain compounds like ammonia, methane gas etc into the environment that then enrich/improve the soil fertility.

Final answer:

Correct option is C. Decomposers, mainly bacteria and fungi, are responsible for decomposing organic matter and are essential for recycling nutrients back into the ecosystem, supporting the stability of food webs.

Explanation:

Organisms responsible for decomposing organic matter are known as decomposers, which include bacteria and fungi. These decomposers are essential because they are involved in the process of breaking down dead materials and waste products, thereby recycling nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorus back into the environment. Without decomposers, nutrients would remain locked within dead organic matter, preventing them from being accessible to living organisms that require them for growth.

Decomposers carry out the crucial task of returning biotic material to the abiotic component of the Earth, which ensures the stability of ecosystems. They break down organic substances, which are then termed as biodegradable, into inorganic nutrients that can be utilized by primary producers like plants. This cycle is fundamental to the maintenance of the food web and the overall health of the ecosystem.

You are interested in two traits in rabbits, each of which is controlled by a separate gene with two alleles:

a) coat color (brown, B, is completely dominant to white,

b) and tail (tailed, T, is completely dominant to tail-less,

c) You cross a brown, tailed rabbit that is heterozygous at both loci with a white, tail-less rabbit and produce a large number of offspring.

Among the offspring you find only two phenotypes in equal proportions: brown, tailed and white, tail-less.

Answers

Answer:the scenario here with the brown tailed rabbit RrTt

The white tailess rabbit is rt.

Crossing both yields the below offsprings possibilities;

For colour: Rr or rr

For tail: Tt or tt

That means they would produce equal numbers of Brown tailed & white tailess rabbits.

Explanation:

The major advantage of using artificial chromosomes such as YACs and BACs for cloning genes is that

plasmids are unable to replicate in cells.
only one copy of a plasmid can be present in any given cell, whereas many copies of a YAC or BAC can coexist in a single cell.
YACs and BACs can carry much larger DNA fragments than ordinary plasmids can.
YACs and BACs can be used to express proteins encoded by inserted genes, but plasmids cannot.
all of the above
H. Simply inserting an entire eukaryotic gene into a prokaryotic expression system will most likely not work for the following reason.

Prokaryotes lack promotors
Prokaryotes lack introns
Prokaryotes lack polymerase
Prokaryotes lack repressors

Answers

Question is a multiple choice question.

Answer:

Question 1. The major advantage of using artificial chromosomes such as YACs and BACs for cloning genes is that:

Answer:

(C)

Explanation:

YACs and BACs can carry much larger DNA fragments than ordinary plasmids can.

Question 2. Simply inserting an entire eukaryotic gene into a prokaryotic expression system will most likely not work for the following reason.

Answer:

(B)

Explanation:

Prokaryotes lack introns

Red-flowering snapdragons are homozygous for allele R1. White-flowering snapdragons are homozygous for allele R2. Heterozygous plants (R1R2) bear pink flowers. What phenotypes should appear among F1 offspring of the crosses listed below? What are the expected probabilities for each phenotype?

Answers

Answer:

a) 1/2 red, 1/2 pink; b) all pink; c) 1/4 red, 1/2 pink, 1/4 white; d) 1/2 white, 1/2 pink

Explanation:

The flower color trait in snapdragons shows incomplete dominance: the heterozygous genotype produces an intermediate phenotype between the two different homozygous genoytpes.

The possible genotypes and phenotypes are:

R1R1 : redR1R2: pinkR2R2: white

a. R1R1 X R1R2

The R1R1 individual only produces R1 gametes. The R1R2 parent produces 1/2 R1 gametes and 1/2 R2 gametes.

For that reason, the F1 will be:

1/2 R1R1 (red)1/2 R1R2 (pink)

b. R1R1 X R2R2

The R1R1 individual only produces R1 gametes. The R2R2 parent only produces R2 gametes.

For that reason, the F1 will be :

100% R1R2 (pink)

c. R1R2 X R1R2

Both parents are heterozygous. This is a monohybrid cross, and from Mendel's Laws we expect the following offspring:

1/4 R1R1 (red)2/4 R1R2 (pink)1/4 R2R2 (white)d. R1R2 X R2R2

The R1R2 parent produces 1/2 R1 gametes and 1/2 R2 gametes. The R2R2 individual only produces R2 gametes.

For that reason, the F1 will be:

1/2 R2R2 (white)1/2 R1R2 (pink)

An outbreak of salmonellosis occurred after an epidemiology department luncheon, which was attended by 485 faculty and staff. Assume everyone ate the same food items. Sixty-five people had fever and diarrhea, five of these people were severely affected. Subsequent laboratory tests on everyone who attended the luncheon revealed an additional 72 cases.
The ratio of severe cases to other clinically apparent cases was:

A. 65/485
B. 5/60
C. 72/485
D. 65/72
E. 5/65

Answers

Answer:

72/485

Explanation:

this question was just on my bio test i took

Day-to-day choices can help reduce the risk of heart disease. One of the major risk factors for development of heart disease is elevated LDL, which can be affected by the types and amounts of dietary fat consumed as well as other dietary factors. Read the statements below and select all of the correct statements regarding how various dietary fats affect LDL cholesterol levels. Select all that apply. a. Typically, the higher your consumption of unsaturated fats, the higher the LDL cholesterol levels in your blood. b. Trans fats are worse for heart health than saturated fats because they raise LDL cholesterol and lower HDL cholesterol. c. Increasing intake of plant foods may be one of the easiest ways to decrease LDL cholesterol. d. Typically, the higher your consumption of saturated fats, the higher the LDL cholesterol levels in your blood. e. Dietary cholesterol does not affect blood cholesterol levels.

Answers

Answer:

b. Trans fats are worse for heart health than saturated fats because they raise LDL cholesterol and lower HDL cholesterol.

c. Increasing intake of plant foods may be one of the easiest ways to decrease LDL cholesterol.

d. Typically, the higher your consumption of saturated fats, the higher the LDL cholesterol levels in your blood.

Explanation:

Generally, the consumption of saturated fat increases the amount of LDL cholesterol in the blood system while the consumption of unsaturated fat can reduce the amount of LDL cholesterol in the blood system. In addition, the consumption of plant food can reduce the amount of LDL in the blood system. Trans fats are more harmful to one's heart than saturated fat because they can increase the amount of cholesterol in the blood system.

Answer:b,c,d

Explanation:a. Unsaturated fats are mostly beneficial to health, e.g- omega 3 fatty acids, and are not known causes of LDL increase.

b. Trans fats are known to increase LDL cholesterol while also decreasing HDL cholesterol levels. We do not find this in saturated fats which are known to only increase LDL cholesterol.

c. Plants possess "soluble fiber" that drastically help to reduce cholesterol levels. They are known to be very low in saturated fats, and also free of cholesterol.

d. Saturated fats are common causes of elevated LDL in blood stream.

e. Dietary cholesterol as opposed to serum cholesterol are fats found in our diets(food) that may contain high levels of cholesterol that increase LDL levels in blood.

Integrated pest management requires Select one:

a. a complete genetic make-up of pests.
b. a complete knowledge of the pest's life history.
c. extensive application of pesticides.
d. All of these are correct.

Answers

Answer:

Option B

Explanation:

Integrated pest management is a method to control the pest through some common sense practices.  

In this method, in depth study of pest’s life cycle along with interaction of pest with the environment must be done. This knowledge is then combined with the available knowledge of pest control methodologies in order to deal with pests in a most economically and  environment friendly way.  

Hence, option B is correct

Which of the following statements about viruses is FALSE?a. Vaccines are available to prevent several diseases caused by viruses. b. If a virus mutates, the immune system may not recognize the virus. c.The widespread use of antibiotics has led to resistant strains of viruses. d. People can get colds and flus again because the viruses are constantly mutating.

Answers

Answer: option C - The widespread use of antibiotics has led to resistant strains of viruses.

Explanation:

Antibiotics are substances (usually drugs) that can destroy or inhibit the growth of BACTERIA and similar microorganisms.

Do note that viral infection DO NOT respond to antibiotic treatment.

So, it is FALSE to say that the widespread use of antibiotics has led to resistant strains of viruses

Final answer:

The statement C-  'The widespread use of antibiotics has led to resistant strains of viruses.' is false. Antibiotics are used for bacterial infections, not viral ones.

Explanation:

The statement that is FALSE among those given about viruses is: c. The widespread use of antibiotics has led to resistant strains of viruses. Antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections, not viral infections. While bacteria can indeed develop resistance to antibiotics, viruses do not. This is due to the different nature of bacteria and viruses. Vaccines do help prevent diseases caused by viruses (a), and it's also true that the immune system may not recognize a mutated virus (b), and that constant mutation is the reason why people can get colds and flus more than once (d).

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Indicate at which step of the replication-transcription-translation process each type of RNA first plays a role.During which step of the replication-transcription-translation process does each type of RNA first play a role?replication?translation?transcription/ rna processing?

Answers

Answer:

Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) is used in the translation process

Messenger RNA (mRNA) is produced during the transcription process and is used in the translation process

Transport RNA (tRNA) is used in the translation process

and if you count the RNA produced by RNA primase than that is used in the replication process.

 

Answer:

that answer is correct

Explanation:

The calcium carbonate (CaCO3) stones located on the maculae are called:
a. ampullae
b. stereocilia
c. ossicles
d. ottoliths

Answers

Answer:

d. ottoliths

Explanation:

An otolith is a calcium carbonate structure in the saccule or utricle of the inner ear, majorly in the vestibular system of vertebrates.

The otolith organs is chiefly made up of the saccule and utricle

Choose the key terms listed below with the phrase that is the best match for it.a. Reinforcement b. Cryptic species c. Biological species concept d. Morphospecies concept e. Species f. Phylogenetic species concepti. The smallest evolutionarily independent unit. ii. Distinguishing species based on their phenotypes. iii. Distinguishing species based on whether or not they interbreed regularly with each other and are reproductively isolated from other such groups iv. Distinguishing species by finding the smallest monophyletic group on a phylogeny v. Species that are evolutionarily independent from each other, but ARE NOT distinguishable based on morphology vi. Selection for reproductive isolation by means of reduced fitness of hybrids

Answers

Answer:

a) Reinforcement - Selection for reproductive isolation by means of reduced fitness of hybrids.

b) Cryptic species - Species that are evolutionarily independent from each other, but ARE NOT distinguishable based on morphology.

c) Biological species concept - Distinguishing species based on whether or not they interbreed regularly with each other and are reproductively isolated from other such groups.

d) Morphospecies concept - Distinguishing species based on their phenotypes.

e) Species - The smallest evolutionarily independent unit.

f) Phylogenetic species concept - Distinguishing species by finding the smallest monophyletic group on a phylogeny.

Explanation:

Species is a group of organisms which are closely related and very similar to each other. It is the smallest evolutionarily independent unit that are able to interbreed and produce fertile offspring.

The inability of related species to breed due to behavioral, geographical, morphological or genetic differences is known as reproductive isolation. When two populations have come back into contact after being separated, the complete reproductive isolation between them results in speciation and the incomplete reproductive isolation causes the production of hybrids, which are of low fitness or sterile.

The process of speciation in which natural selection increases the reproductive isolation between two populations of species by acting against the production of hybrids of low fitness is known as reinforcement.

Cryptic species are the species which are evolutionarily independent from each other, but are morphologically indistinguishable and cannot interbreed.

The different species concept are; biological species concept, ecological species concept, morphospecies concept, phylogenetic species concept, evolutionary species concept etc.

Biological species concept is a concept of species in which the individuals of a group can interbreed and create fertile offspring, but cannot breed with other groups (reproductively isolated).

Morphospecies concept  or morphological species concept distinguish species based on the differences in their phenotypes (morphological characters).

Phylogenetic species concept distinguish species by finding the smallest monophyletic group (group of all organisms that are the descendants of a common ancestor) on a phylogeny (evolutionary history of genetically related group of organisms or species). This group have a shared and unique evolutionary history because they are descended from a common ancestor.

If the normal nucleotide sequence was TACGGCATG, what type of gene mutation is present if the resulting sequence becomes TAGGCATG?A. additionB. deletionC. substitutionD. inversion

Answers

Answer:

B. Deletion

Explanation:

the 3rd letter (C) is missing (deleted)

In the normal nucleotide sequence C is missing. So, the type of mutation is deletion. Thus, option B is correct.

What is mutation?

The term mutation is defined as a change in the normal sequence of DNA at a particular gene locus and mutations are seems to be harmful as it results into serious life taking disorders such as cancer.

Mutation also affect the function and division of cell that causes cancer and other serious disorders. Mutation in a single gene causes the body to produce thick and sticky white substance known as mucus that blocks lungs and digestive organs.

There are mainly three types of DNA mutations and these are deletions, insertions, and base substitutions.

By nature mutation is recessive but in some condition it can be dominant and these are harmful for the individual. It is random and recurrent event.

Therefore, the normal nucleotide sequence C is missing. So, the type of mutation is deletion. Thus, option B is correct.

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U937D cells express high levels of creatine kinase (CK‑B) mRNA but do not translate the mRNA into protein. Ribosomes bind the 5' end of the CK‑B mRNA; however, translation into protein is repressed in these cells. U937D cells synthesize the CK‑B enzyme when researchers introduce numerous short segments of RNA containing 3' UTR consensus sequences into the cells. The total amount of CK‑B mRNA does not change after adding RNA containing 3' UTR sequences. Introducing short RNA segments without the 3' UTR consensus sequences does not stimulate CK‑B synthesis. Which of the statements explains how the introduction of short RNA containing 3' UTR sequences allows CK‑B translation in U937D cells?.Explain how the introduction of short segments of RNA containing the 3'UTR sequences might remove the inhibition.

Answers

Answer:

Basically the translation of CK-B protein is inhibited in the U937D cells, despite the fact that the CK-B protein is bounded to the ribosomes. This is because(mechanisms) the translation is inhibited by the binding of translational repressors to the 3’UTR of the CK-B mRNA rather than the actual CK-B mRNA 3'UTR.

Furthermore, the soluble protein inhibitions is due to the reaction of the U937 cells to the short RNA sequences with the 3’UTR.

The introduction of these sequences(shot segement of RNA) into the U937D cells leads to CK-B synthesis. This makes 3’UTR sequences to bind to the translational repressor proteins, thus preventing them from binding to the CK-B mRNA .

COMPLETED QUE.

A common feature of many eukaryotic mRNAS is the presence of a rather long 3' UTR, which often contains consensus sequences. Creatine kinase B (CK-B) is an enzyme important in cellular metabolism. Certain cells—termed U937D cells—have lots of CK-B mRNA, but no CK- B enzyme is present. In these cells the 5’ end of the CK-B mRNA is bound to ribosomes, the mRNA is apparently not translated. Something inhibits the translation of the CK-B mRNA in these cells. Researchers introduced numerous short segments of RNA containing only 3’UTR sequences into U937D cells. As result, the U937D cells began to synthesize the CK-B enzyme, but the total amount of CK-B mRNA did not increase. The introduction of short segments of other RNA sequences did not stimulate the synthesis of CK-B; only the 3’UTR sequences turned on the translation of the enzyme. Based on these results, purpose a mechanism for how CK-B translation is inhibited in U937D cells. Explain how the introduction of short segments of RNA containing the 3'UTR sequences might remove the inhibition.

Explanation:

Two large populations of horses are being systematically crossed (mares from one population bred to stallions of the other and vice versa). Coat color is not a factor in determining which animals are selected and which individual matings are made (random matings). Frequencies of coat color genes at the C locus for population 1 are.85 for Cand.15 for c. Frequencies for Care.6 and care.4 for population 2. Given these values, what are the gene and genotypic frequencies of the F1?

a. p=0.725, q = 0.275: P=0.51, H=0.43, Q=0.06
b. p=0.725.q = 0.275; P=0.06. H=0.56, Q=0.51
c. p=0.4.q = 0.6: P=0.12. H=0.56, Q=0.32
d. p=0.725.q = 0.275: P=0.34. H=0.57. Q=0.09

Answers

Answer:

a. p=0.725, q = 0.275: P=0.51, H=0.43, Q=0.06

Explanation:

Let state our given parameters from the question:

Frequencies of coat color genes at the C locus for population 1 are .85 for C

This implies that the Allelic frequency C for population p1 =0.85

Frequencies of coat color genes at the c locus for population 1 are .15 for c

This implies that the Allelic frequency c for population q1 = 0.15

Frequencies for Care .6 i.e p2= 0.6

Frequencies for care .4 i.e, let that be q2= 0.4

The table below shows a diagrammatic representation of the above expression:

Alllelic Frequency                      C                                          c

Population 1                        (p1)   0.85                              (q1)   0.15

Population 2                       (p2)   0.6                               (q2)   0.4

Now, from above: let think of the table as a punnet square and then cross it together;

                                            (p1)  = 0.85                              (q1) =  0.15

p2 = 0.6                               p1p2                                       p2q1

                                            = 0.6 × 0.85                           = 0.15 × 0.6

                                            = 0.51 (P)                                = 0.09 (H)              

                                                                                                   

q2 = 0.4                               p1q2                                       q1p2

                                            = 0.85 × 0.4                           = 0.4 × 0.15

                                            =0.34 (H)                                = 0.06 (Q)

From the above table, the heterozygous are represented by (H)

Frequency of heterozygous can be calculated as:

= 0.09 + 0.34

= 0.43

Thus, we can conclude that the progeny F1 genotypic frequencies are:

P= 0.51

H= 0.43

Q= 0.06

Now, let us calculate the allelic frequencies, p and q in F1

p = P + 1/2 × (H)

= 0.51 + (1/2 × 0.43)

= 0.51 + 0.215

= 0.725

q = Q + 1/2 × (H)

= 0.06 + (1/2 × 0.43)

= 0.06 × 0.215

= 0.275

Hence, p=0.725, q = 0.275: P=0.51, H=0.43, Q=0.06 , This makes option a the correct answer.

The presence of circular dna in mitochondria and chloroplasts suggests that these organelles evolved from ___.

Answers

Answer:

Bacteria.

Explanation:

These are DNA that formed closes loops.

They have no ends.

A typical example is plasmids of bacteria., circular bacteria chromosomes,

In viruses example are ccc DNA (circular closed circular DNAf) formed by viruses.

Final answer:

Mitochondria and chloroplasts evolved from prokaryotes through endosymbiosis.

Explanation:

The presence of circular DNA in mitochondria and chloroplasts suggests that these organelles evolved from prokaryotes. Circular DNA is a characteristic feature of prokaryotic cells, such as bacteria, and is not typically found in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells. This indicates that mitochondria and chloroplasts were likely once free-living prokaryotic organisms that were engulfed by a larger host cell through a process called endosymbiosis. Over time, these organelles became integrated within the host cell and established a mutually beneficial relationship.

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You cross a true breeding tomato plant with large fruits to a true breeding plant that has small fruits. All of the F1 offspring have medium sized fruits, with a variance in fruit size of 0.06 cm2 . When you create F2 plants, the variance in fruit size is 0.60 cm2 . What is the broad sense heritability (H2 ) of fruit size?

Answers

Answer:

H² = 0.9

Explanation:

Phenotypic variance (VP) = genetic variance (VG) + environmental variance (VE)

The observed VP in the F1 is composed only of VE, because the parents were true breeding (thus VG=0).

The F2 variance is due to both genetic and environmental variation. If the tomato plants are in the same environment, the VE wil be the same, and then we can calculate VG as:

VG = VP - VE

VG = 0.60 cm² - 0.06 cm²

VG= 0.54 cm²

Broad sense heritability is calculated as: H² = VG/VP. It is used to describe how much of the observed phenotypic variation is due to genetic variation (comprised by additive, dominance and epistasis variance).

In this case,

H² = VG/VP

H² = 0.54 cm² / 0.60 cm²

H² = 0.9

Final answer:

The broad sense heritability (H^2) of fruit size in the cross breeding experiment involving tomato plants with large fruits and small fruits is 0.90.

Explanation:

The question is about determining the broad sense heritability (H2) of fruit size in a cross breeding experiment involving tomato plants with large fruits and small fruits. Broad sense heritability (H2) is a statistic used in genetics to estimate the proportion of the phenotypic variance in a population that is due to the genetic variance. It is given by the formula:

H2 = VG/VP

Where, VG is the genetic variance, and VP is the phenotypical variance. The phenotypic variance is made up of genetic variance (VG), environmental variance (VE), and possibly the interaction between genetic and environmental variance (VGxE).

In this case, we need to find out the VG and VP to find H2. Since the F2 variance (VF2) is provided (0.60 cm2) and the F1 variance (VF1) is provided (0.06 cm2), we can assume that the F1 variance represents the environmental variance (VE) and the F2 variance minus the F1 variance gives the genetic variance (VG) since F1 was produced by crossing two true breeding plants. Hence:

VG = VF2 - VF1

VG = 0.60 cm2 - 0.06 cm2 = 0.54 cm2

Substituting the values in the formula:

H2 = VG/VP = 0.54 cm2/0.60 cm2 = 0.90

So, the broad sense heritability of fruit size in this experiment is 0.90.

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A) Prof. Robo is studying skin color of Banana Slugs. He has isolated 8 recessive mutants that are white instead of yellow. He performs the following complementation analysis. (+) indicates yellow color (-) indicates white color. Based on complementation analysis, how many genes affect skin color? Place the various mutants in the different complementation groups.

Answers

Answer:378

Explanation: 378

have been cloned and

The other 207 loci have been mapped out, the true gene identities have yet to be determined.

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