The doctor prescribe to time is Pituitary hormone replacement therapy.
What is Pituitary gland?When the pituitary gland produces one or more of its hormones insufficiently or at levels below normal, the disease is known as hypopituitarism.
Typically, these hormones encourage the production of other endocrine glands' hormones. For instance, the thyroid gland does not function properly if the pituitary gland does not produce the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).
All endocrine glands are produced by the pituitary gland, which is situated near the base of the brain. In pituitary hormone replacement therapy, the patient receives hormones to replace those that the pituitary gland is unable to make.
Therefore, The doctor prescribe to time is Pituitary hormone replacement therapy.
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A clinical finding that is consistent with a diagnosis of adrenocortical insufficiency is:________.
Answer: Hyponatremia(low serum sodium level)
Explanation:
This is a condition where the sodium serum Level drops to less than 136mEqL.Sodium regulates electrolyte water balance of the body by regulating the amount of water that enter the cells.Therefore when it level drops water concentration rises increasing the water potential surrounding the cells(extracellular) but not of the intacellular fluids
.Less water is reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule(PCT) of tthe Nephon. Since low sodium is available little will be reabsorbed by the PCT for reabsorption of water.
it is cause by liver diseases,diarrhoea, intake of large or too much water,hormonal imbalances etc
Symptoms
Headache, confusion, nausea, vomiting.and coma.
Treatment.
Controlled or moderate water intake
Treatment of related diseases.
Necessary precautions during intense activities.
Which of the following choices lists the ways that you can show intellectual honesty in scientific communication.
a) Do not let your personal beliefs interfere with the truth; do not omit facts even if they contradict your hypothesis or your goals; avoid bias; do not make up data; do not plagiarize; give credit to others if you cite their work.
b) Use your personal beliefs to draw your conclusions; make up data to fit the desired results; omit data when necessary; only give credit to others sometimes.
c) Only experiments that fit your original hypothesis should be communicated; cite some of the work you used; data can be left out if needed to fit the hypothesis.
d) It is not important to show intellectual honesty in scientific communication.
Answer:
The correct option is A) Do not let your personal beliefs interfere with the truth; do not omit facts even if they contradict your hypothesis or your goals; avoid bias; do not make up data; do not plagiarize; give credit to others if you cite their work.
Explanation:
Ethics and scientific research go hand in hand. If intellectual honesty and ethics are not maintained during scientific research, then this field could raise many ethical concerns.
Modifications in results are strictly against ethics during scientific research. A scientist should never try to manipulate the results so that it supports their hypothesis. Cheating or stealing other peoples work is also not acceptable in the scientific world. A scientist should always be modest.
Read the excerpt from the writings of Andrew Carnegie and answer the question.
How did the argument presented by Carnegie compare to his business practices?
Group of answer choices
Carnegie argued in the excerpt that only businesses run by the wealthy are likely to succeed, but as a business owner he promoted employees based solely on performance rather than background.
While Carnegie outlined the importance of philanthropy in the excerpt, he utilized monopolistic strategies as a business owner that negatively impacted small business and consumers.
As noted in the excerpt, Carnegie was a strong proponent of philanthropy and as a businessman he worked to keep prices low for his products for the benefit of average Americans.
The excerpt details Carnegie's belief that immigrants and the poor are often among the most hardworking individuals in a society, yet asa business owner he implemented restrictive hiring processes.
Answer:
Option C, As noted in the excerpt, Carnegie was a strong proponent of philanthropy and as a businessman he worked to keep prices low for his products for the benefit of average Americans.
Explanation:
Carnegie strongly believed that within the society exists wealth inequality and in order to curb this issue all wealthy businessmen must use their surplus income for the betterment of others. He urged all the rich business men to carefully use their wealth to reduce the stratification between the rich and poor and hence it is the responsibility of businessmen to curb this difference by keeping the price of their commodities at a lower price.
Hence, option C is correct
Argument are made so as to pass out some vital information. The argument presented by Carnegie compare to his business practices is that while Carnegie outlined the importance of philanthropy in the excerpt, he utilized monopolistic strategies as a business owner that negatively impacted small business and consumers.
The gospel of wealth was written by Andrew Carnegie. It was firsed callled “Wealth”. It was published in the North American Review in June 1889.
Andrew Carnegie’s believed so much in giving wealth away during one’s sojourn on earth and the book above includes some of his famous quotes.
His messages still rings a bell and inspire people all over the world. It pushes people to always give and not be greedy.
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The Susquehanna River, which runs through the states of New York, Pennsylvania, an Maryland , received the title- America's most Endangered River in a 2005. One of the rivers problem's results from the large number of sewage overflow sites that are found along the course of the river. These sewage overflow sites are a direct result of an increase in human population. What effect do you predict this will have on the biodiversity on the river ecosystem?
Final answer:
Increased sewage overflow along the Susquehanna River due to human population growth is expected to negatively impact the river's biodiversity, creating dead zones and disrupting the ecosystem similar to the decline witnessed in the Chesapeake Bay and other altered U.S. river systems. Damming and habitat modification have been shown to reduce fish and amphibian populations by altering natural flow and habitat access.
Explanation:
The Susquehanna River, titled America's most Endangered River in 2005, has been impacted by sewage overflow sites resulting from increased human population. This situation is likely to have significant negative effects on the river's biodiversity. Increased sewage can lead to nutrient overload in the water, which may result in algal blooms that deplete oxygen levels, creating dead zones that are not suitable for many aquatic organisms. Additionally, the introduction of pathogens and chemicals from sewage can directly harm wildlife and disrupt the river ecosystem. Comparatively, the decline of the Chesapeake Bay ecosystem, largely due to nutrient runoff, is a case study of the complex issues arising from human activities affecting aquatic ecosystems. The decline of fish species due to habitat loss and modifications, such as damming, overwhelmingly impacts biodiversity, as it interferes with the flow regimes and access to the river, which many species are adapted to. Amphibians, which rely on both aquatic and terrestrial habitats, are at a greater risk due to loss of habitat or access between habitats.
Which human excretory structure aids in the maintenance of normal body temperature?
(1) sweat gland.
(2) liver.
(3) nephron.
(4) urinary bladder.
Answer:
Sweat glands
Explanation:
Humans sweat to cool down their bodies after an excess workout or activity.
The sweat gland aids in the maintenance of normal body temperature.
What is sweat gland?Sudoriferous or sudoriferous glands are other names for sweat glands.
The skin contains tiny, tubular structures called sweat glands. Sweat is created by sweat glands. They belong to the exocrine gland family.
What are types of sweat glands?Sweat glands come in two primary categories:
Nearly every part of the body contains eccrine glands. The palms and soles have the highest concentration of eccrine glands. All around the body, they are of varying densities.The majority of apocrine glands in the human body are located in the perineum and armpits. In humans, apocrine glands are not used for thermoregulation. In animals with hooves, such as cows, horses, camels, and donkeys, apocrine glands aid in thermoregulation.Thus, we can conclude option A is correct.
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Put the following events in the correct order. Rank the options below. a. A water-soluble hormone binds with a membrane-bound receptor.
b. Open choices for matching Enzymes that were already present are activated.
c. Enzymes that were already present are activated.
d. Open choices for matching cAMP molecules are synthesized. cAMP molecules are synthesized.
e. Open choices for matching G proteins are activated.
Answer:
a- water-soluble hormone binds with a membrane-bound receptor.
e. G proteins are activated.
b. Enzymes that were already present are activated.
d. cAMP molecules are synthesized.
Final answer:
The correct order of events when a water-soluble hormone binds to a cell's receptor is: hormone binds to receptor, G proteins activate, cAMP molecules are synthesized, and pre-existing enzymes are activated. This sequential process is essential for cellular communication and the resulting physiological response.
Explanation:
The sequence of events when a water-soluble hormone initiates a response inside a cell is a precise and coordinated process. The correct order of events is:
A water-soluble hormone binds with a membrane-bound receptor. This is the initial step where the hormone attaches to the receptor on the surface of the cell.
G proteins are activated. The binding of the hormone triggers a change that activates G proteins associated with the receptor.
cAMP molecules are synthesized. The activated G proteins then stimulate the enzyme adenylate cyclase to convert ATP into the second messenger cAMP.
Enzymes that were already present are activated. cAMP functions as a second messenger and activates enzymes known as protein kinases which in turn will regulate other cellular functions, often by phosphorylating other enzymes.
Plasmids are used as vectors in both plant and bacterial recombinant DNA technology. However, there is a major difference in the fate of genes introduced into bacteria on most bacterial plasmids and into plants on Ti plasmids. What is this difference?
Answer:
DNA carried on bacterial plasmids are generally not integrated into the genome. The DNA carried on Ti plasmids are usually integrated into the plant genome, meaning the genes are stably expressed
Explanation:
A single strand of the T-DNA from the Ti plasmid enters the plant cell through a transport channel and into the nucleus, where it is integrated into the plant's DNA. In contrast, the DNA introduced into bacteria on bacterial plasmids remains extra-chromosomal
Impulses originating in the part of the brain called the medulla would most directly affect which body structure?
The question is incomplete. The complete question is:
Question: Impulses originating in the part of the brain called the medulla would most directly affect which body structure?
a. A leg muscle
b. A ligament
c. An arm bone
d. The heart
Answer:
d. The heart
Explanation:
The medulla oblongata contains a number of reflex centers for regulating vital body functions such as heartbeat, breathing, and vasoconstriction. The medulla contains several nuclei, a collection of neuronal cell bodies.
For example, impulses originated in the cardiovascular center regulates the rate and force of the heartbeat and the diameter of blood vessels. Impulses from the cardiovascular center flow along sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons. An increase in sympathetic stimulation from the cardiovascular center of medulla increases heart rate and contractility while a decrease in sympathetic stimulation decreases heart rate and contractility.
Proteins denature at low pH. What characteristic of acidic environments interferes with protein folding?
A. The lack of protons in the solution breaks covalent bonds in the protein
B. The excess protons in the solution break covalent bonds in the protein
C. The lack of protons in the solution breaks hydrogen bonds in the protein
D. The excess protons in the solution break hydrogen bonds in the protein
Answer: D. The excess protons in the solution breaks hydrogen bonds in the protein
Explanation: When adding acid it adds protons so it messes with the charges causing them to unfold.
The characteristic that interferes with protein folding in an acidic environment is D. The excess protons in the solution break hydrogen bonds in the protein.
Proteins are chains of amino acids with side chains. They fold due to the interaction between the hydrogens, which form hydrogen bonds. The denature occurs when the chain is unfolded.
Low pH means:
There is an excess of protons.The pH is below 7.The excess of protons interacts with the hydrogens that form the hydrogen bonds. As a consequence, the protein unfolds and losses its function.
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What term refers to an abnormal condition of all or part of the body that makes the body incapable of carrying on normal function?
Answer:disease
Explanation:disease is a deviation of the normal function of the body.
This is evident to due abnormal physiological functioning of the body thereby causing symptoms of the disease.the organs system,organs, tissues and cells can no longer carry out their activities in the body.
A disease can be caused by microorganisms such as bacteria or virus.disease which are contagious can also be contacted from a sick person.
A woman with a long history of rectocele and perineal scarring from multiple episiotomies develops a rectovaginal fistula with perineal body relaxation. She has transperineal repair with perineal body reconstruction and plication of the levator muscles. What are the CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes reported for this procedure?
Answer:
N82.3
N90.89
Explanation:
In this case, the patient has a history(not current) of the rectocele
The first diagnosis is rectovaginal fistula(Alphabetic Index for Fistula/rectovaginal is N82.3).
The second diagnosis isperineal scarring(Alphabetic Index for Scar, scarring/vulva is N90.89)
Therefore, code N81.6 won't be reported since it's stands for a current rectocele
The CPT and ICD-10-CM codes for transperineal repair, perineal body reconstruction, and plication of levator muscles for a rectovaginal fistula depend on the specific clinical details and should be assigned based on current coding guidelines and manuals.
The transperineal repair with perineal body reconstruction and plication of the levator muscles in a woman with a rectovaginal fistula is a complex procedure that addresses complications arising from obstetric trauma, such as a long history of rectocele and perineal scarring from multiple episiotomies. The CPT (Current Procedural Terminology) and ICD-10-CM (International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision, Clinical Modification) codes for reporting these medical services are essential for billing and documentation purposes. Due to the complex nature of the procedure and the specific clinical details provided, the precise codes would depend on the individual case and the provider's clinical judgment. However, typically procedures like this could be coded under CPT codes for repair of rectocele and rectovaginal fistula and the proper ICD-10-CM codes denoting the presence of a fistula and related conditions. It would be advisable to consult the latest CPT and ICD-10-CM manuals or coding guidelines to ensure accurate coding.
Cilia and flagella are projections extending ____________ the cell. Projections extending from the cell that are usually found in cells in the respiratory passageways are ____________ . Projections extending from the cell that usually appear alone and help propel an entire cell are ____________ . The only example of a cell with a flagellum is ____________ .
Answer:
Cilia and flagella are projections extending from the cell.
Projections extending from the cell that are usually found in cells in the respiratory passageways are cilia .
Projections extending from the cell that usually appear alone and help propel an entire cell are flagella.
The only example of a cell with a flagellum is sperm/bacteria cell.
Explanation:
Cilia are organelles which are present in eukaryotic organisms which protrude outwards from the cell. They are of two types- Motile and Non Motile. The non motile cilia cannot move and have a role in sensory function. The cilia are present outside the respiratory tract and help flush microbes and debris out of the passage way.
Flagellum or flagella help in the locomotion many bacteria and eukaryotes. These are filamentous protein structures which come out of the cell body. Few examples of organisms having flagella is bacteria and in eukaryotes it is the sperm cell.
Answer:
Cilia and flagella are projections extending --from the cell. Projections extending from the cell that are usually found in cells in the respiratory passageways are --cilia . Projections extending from the cell that usually appear alone and help propel an entire cell are --flagella . The only example of a cell with a flagellum is --euglena .
The ara operon is an inducible operon that controls the production of the sugar arabinose. When arabinose is present in a bacterium it binds to the protein AraC, and the complex binds to the initiator site to promote transcription. In this scenario, AraC is a(n)
Answer:
When AraC binds to arabinose to initiate the process of transcription, then AraC is acting as an Activator.
Explanation:
Transcription is a process that help to produce messenger RNA from the DNA that is present in the nuceloids of bacteria cells. The production of these mRNA however, depends on the intracellular condition of the bacteria, for example, if there is a need for the protein coded for by the segment or not. In the case of this bacterium, the AraC can act as a repressor only when there is no arabinose sugar in the cell. In the scenario above, AraC will act as an activator because of the presence of the sugar arabinose.
Answer:
Activator
Explanation:
According to the lecture, hormone changes are often responsible for mood swings in teenagers.
A) True
B) False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Hormonal shifts can be a cause for mood swings, during teenage years the teens will experiment the production of estrogen (girls) and testosterone (boys) that will cause physical and emotional changes, as the time pass by these mood swing normally become less common as hormones reach an equilibrium.
I hope you find this information useful and interesting! Good luck!
Answer:
True
Explanation:
I got a 100 on the quiz
Affinity chromatography can be used to purify proteins such as growth factor receptors. The ligand of the growth factor receptor can be linked to resin, and then an extract containing membrane proteins can be poured over the resin. If a high concentration of free ligand were poured over the resin next, what would you expect to happen?
Answer:
If a high concentration of free ligand were poured over the resin next, the growth-factor receptor will be released from the resin since the excess ligand competes with ligand attached to the resin.
In affinity chromatography, adding a high concentration of free ligand would elute the protein from the column as it competes with the immobilized ligand for binding to the protein.
In affinity chromatography, a specific ligand for a protein of interest is covalently linked to an inert resin within the column. When a solution containing the protein is passed through the column, the target protein binds to the immobilized ligand due to specific affinity. If a high concentration of free ligand is poured over the resin next, one would expect the protein to be eluted from the column. This happens because the free ligand competes with the immobilized ligand for binding to the protein, reducing the affinity of the protein for the resin, allowing it to be washed out of the column.
Describe compliance with public health statutes:
(a) communicable diseases
(b) abuse, neglect, and exploitation
(c) wounds of violence
Compliance with public health statutes involves following regulations and guidelines to prevent the spread of communicable diseases, protect against abuse and neglect, and address wounds of violence.
Explanation:Compliance with public health statutes:
Compliance with public health statutes regarding communicable diseases involves following regulations and guidelines set by the government to prevent the spread of contagious illnesses. This may include reporting cases of communicable diseases, implementing quarantine measures, and promoting vaccination.
Compliance with public health statutes regarding abuse, neglect, and exploitation involves ensuring the protection and well-being of vulnerable individuals, such as children, elderly, or individuals with disabilities. It includes reporting suspected cases, providing necessary support and intervention, and promoting awareness and prevention.
Compliance with public health statutes regarding wounds of violence involves addressing the physical and psychological trauma caused by violent acts. This may include providing immediate medical care, documenting injuries, offering support services, and collaborating with law enforcement in the investigation and prosecution of the perpetrators.
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When Allison was completing her medical forms in the doctor's office, she was asked to indicate her race. What may be an appropriate reason for including the question on the forms?
Answer: Strong links between race and health
Explanation:
Certain medical conditions like SICKLE CELL ANEMIA have been confirmed to be prevalent among people of AFRICAN descent.
Also, CYSTIC FIBROSIS have been known to be common among people of EUROPEAN race.
Therefore, Allison is required to include her race in the medical forms SO AS TO reveal any strong links her race has to do with her health
How can a person stay healthy as an older adult? Choose exactly 3 answers that are correct.
A. Spend time with others.
B. Eat healthy.
C. Get regular medical care.
D. Exercise less.
Hey there!
The correct 3 answers are A. Spend time with others, B. Eat healthy and C. Get regular medical care
Hope this helps you!
God bless ❤️
xXxGolferGirlxXx
If a strand of DNA is GCGAGA what is the complementary mRNA code?
a. CGCTCT
b. TATGCG
c. CGCUCU
d. CCCUUU
Answer:
C.
Explanation:
G is C
C is G
A is U
U is A
in mRNA U is with A
High concentrations of solutes such as sugar or salt results in plasmolysis of cells due to the onset of which phenomenon. Select one: a. Cavitation b. High osmotic pressure c. Ultrahigh temperature d. Low lyophilization
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-B
Explanation:
Three types of solution are formed based on the concentration of the solute which are:
1. High solute concentration- Hypertonic solution
2. Low solute concentration- Hypotonic solution
3. Equal solute concentration- Isotonic solution
When a cell contains a high amount of solute concentration and low concentration of water then it results in the generation of very high osmotic pressure.
If a cell is placed in an aquatic medium then due to high osmotic potential, the water will enter the cell which will lead to the rupture of the cell membrane. This process of rupture of the cell membrane is known as the plasmolysis.
Since the cell rupture due to the generation of very high osmotic potential, therefore, is the correct answer.
Place the following steps in order for motor control.
1. Upper motor neurons stimulate lower motor neurons.
2. Sensory information is relayed back to the cerebellum so movement can be modified if needed.
3. Upper motor neurons in the premotor cortex select a motor program.
4. Lower motor neurons stimulate a skeletal muscle to contract.
5. The basal nuclei enable the thalamus to stimulate upper motor neurons of the primary cortex.
A) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4
B) 2, 5, 3, 1, 4
C) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
D) 5, 3, 1, 4, 2
Answer:
3, 5, 1, 4, 2.
Explanation:
Neurons are the structural and the functional unit of the nervous system. Two main types of neurons on the basis of their function are sensory neurons and motor neurons.
The motor control in order body occurs in a sequential step. The motor program is selected by the pre motor cortex. This neuron is further stimulated by basal nuclei of the thalamus. This further stimulate the lower motor neuron. This causes the contraction in the skeletal muscle. This information is further move to cerebellum if movement is required.
Thus, the correct order is 3, 5, 1, 4, 2.
The IUCN's Red List is ________.a. a list of ecologically harmful invasive speciesb. a list of unidentified speciesc. a scorecard of international failures at conservationd. an updated list of species facing unusually high risk of extinctionan identification list of known species
Answer:
An updated list of species facing unusually high risk of extinction.
Explanation:
The IUCN red list of threatened species also called as red data list. It is defined as the most comprehensive global conversation status of both animals and plants species.
The IUCN is a criteria to identify the extinction risk of lots of biological subspecies, and species. These criteria are relevant to all regions of the word, and all the biological species.
A family has two children. M represents male, and F represents female.What is the sample space for the gender of the children?
A) {F, M}
B) {FM, FF, MM, MF}
C) {FF, MM}
D) {MF, FM}
Answer: There are four (4) possible outcomes; {FM, FF, MM, MF}
Explanation: Sample space can be defined as the set of all possible outcomes or results of an experiment or random trial. The size of the outcomes constitutes the number of elements present in the space and this is called Sample size.
Since the question involves two children, there are four possible outcomes for the gender. The two children of the family could be in the following formations;
1. Female - Male
2. Female - Female
3. Male - Male
4. Male - Female
Hence, the sample space will be {FM, FF, MM, MF}
Scarlet gilia (Ipomopsis aggregata) usually has red flowers in an inflorescence of up to 250 flowers. In certain populations in the Arizona mountains, however, the flowers range from red to pink to white. In early summer, most of the flowers were red. Six to eight weeks later, the same individual plants were still present; the flowers ranged from pink to white, and few red flowers were present. The major pollinators early in the season were two species of hummingbirds active during the day; they emigrated to lower elevations, and the major pollinator later in the season was a hawk moth (a type of moth). The hawk moth was most active at sunset and later, and it preferred light pink to white flowers after dark. When hummingbirds were present, more red flowers than white flowers produced fruit. When only hawk moths were present, more white flowers produced fruit (K. N. Paige and T. G. Whitham. 1985. Individual and population shifts in flower color by scarlet gilia: A mechanism for pollinator tracking. Science 227:315-17).
Refer to the paragraph on scarlet gilia. What is the significance of measuring fruit production?
A) It is a measure of pollination success.
B) It is an indication of predation on the seeds of the plants.
C) It is easier than counting flowers.
D) It is a measure of seed dispersal success.
Answer:
B) It is an indication of predation on the seeds of the plants.
Explanation:
Because the coloring of the flowers is linked with day and night which in turn is linked with the predator who is collecting seeds and pollinating flowers.
What is the idea developed by Charles Lyell stating that the geologic processes that shaped Earth in the past continue to operate today?
a. inheritance of acquired characteristics
b. catastrophism
c. uniformitarianism
d. descent with modification
Answer:
c. uniformitarianism
Explanation:
Uniformitarianism is a doctrine that was popularized by Charles Lyell in his book published in 1830. It is a school of thought that belief that slow, uniform geologic processes shaped the earth in the past and the processes are still in operation as of today. In other word, the past processes that shaped the earth can still be studied in the present.
The idea is in contrast to catatrophism, a belief that the present earth is shaped by sudden, short violent occurrence as compared to the past.
Descent with modification and inheritance of acquired character are related to evolution of living organisms.
The correct option is c.
The membrane has open K channels, and changing extracellular K concentration results in a change in membrane potential. Changing the extracellular Na concentration does not significantly change the membrane potential. What do your results suggest about the number or state (open or closed) of Na channels in the resting membrane of a neuron?
Answer: Closed
Explanation:
At resting membrane potential( RMP) sodium channels remained shut, this is because , previously in depolarisation,the voltage gated sodium channels were opened for sodium to diffuse into the Axon. However these channels closed after reaching their refractory period,s.
Therefore a change in the extracellular concentration of sodium will not open them
British authorities based their colonial commercial policies on the theory of ________.
A) feudalism
B) laissez-faire
C) mercantilism
D) federalism
E) republicanism
Answer: British authorities based their colonial commercial policies on the theory of MERCANTILISM.
Explanation: Mercantilism is the system whereby a country amass wealth for itself at the expense of another country. The prosperity of a nation depends upon its supply of capital, and that the global volume of trade is unchangeable. This is done by increasing export significantly and reducing imports. It was used by the British to significantly amass wealth by importing commodities to Africa in exchange for gold and other precious metals.
Will's coworkers go out to lunch every day, and they often ask Will to join them. However, Will always refuses because he is terrified of having others watch him eat. He worries that he will embarrass himself in front of his coworkers and they won't like him any longer. Will most likely will be diagnosed with __________________________.
Answer:
The correct answer is - social phobia.
Explanation:
A social phobia is a feature of the anxiety of social judgment, or being negatively judged or evaluated or rejected by the performance or social situation.
It is the social anxiety disorder which leads to embarrassment to do the certain activity so he would not have deal with the embarrassment or judgement. Will most likely will be diagnosed with social phobia.
Thus, the correct answer - social phobia.
Imagine that twins are separated at birth. One is raised speaking only English, whereas the other is raised in a bilingual household and speaks both English and Spanish. Years later, the twins meet and decide to learn French together. The bilingual twin has a remarkably easy time learning French, whereas the other twin struggles. This difference may be explained by
a. codominance.
b. incomplete dominance.
c. multiple-allele inheritance.
d. multifactorial inheritance.
e. polygenic inheritance.
Answer:
d. multifactorial inheritance.
Explanation:
Multifactorial inheritance also called "many factors" inheritance are involved in causing a birth defect or aftermath effect after birth. The factors are usually both genetic and environmental, where a combination of genes from both parents, in addition to unknown environmental factors, produce the trait or condition in an offspring.
In the case of the twins who was raised speaking only English, it was due to influence of environmental factors, had it been he/she was introduced to speaking English and french like the other twin raised from the bilingual household, it would have been easier for him/her learning French.
The difference in ease of language learning between the twins is best explained by d. multifactorial inheritance, which encompasses both genetic and environmental influences on complex traits, such as language acquisition skills.
The correct option that explains the ease of the bilingual twin in learning French compared to the other twin is d. multifactorial inheritance. This term refers to traits that are conditioned by a combination of multiple genes and environmental factors, as opposed to a single gene. In this case, the ease of learning a new language like French could be influenced by the brain's flexibility and linguistic structures developed during childhood, which might be more pronounced in individuals exposed to multiple languages at a young age.
In the field of genetics, variants like codominance and incomplete dominance relate to how specific alleles are expressed in an organism. Codominance occurs when both alleles for the same characteristic are equally expressed, such as in human MN blood groups. Incomplete dominance occurs when an intermediate phenotype is displayed, different from either homozygous phenotype. None of these strictly genetic phenomena directly explain the acquisition of language skills as described in the scenario. Therefore, learning a new language is not influenced by these genetic dominance patterns but rather by a complex mix of biological and environmental factors.
In eastern gray squirrels, Sciurus carolinensis, the allele for black fur (B) is dominant to the allele for gray fur (b). In a particular population of gray squirrels, 64% have black fur and 36% have gray fur. A researcher calculated the allelic frequencies to be B=0.4 and b=0.6. Five years later, the researcher returned to the location and determined the allelic frequencies within the squirrel population to be B=0.6 and b=0.4
Answer:
The correct answer is "The frequency of the B allele increased due to the selective pressures of the environment".
Explanation:
The missing part of the question is "Which of the following could best explain the increase in the frequency of the B allele in the population after five years?" at which the answer is "The frequency of the B allele increased due to the selective pressures of the environment".
In this study, the allelic frequency for black fur (B) in eastern gray squirrels Sciurus carolinensis changed from B=0.4 to B=0.6 within a lapse of five years. This increase is explained by the effect of selective pressures of the environment. For instance, is likely that new predators were more likely to detect squirrels with gray fur over black fur, or changes in the landscape benefited the black fur squirrels camouflage.
Allele frequency in a population is calculated by the division of the number of times an allele is observed by the total number of copies of all the alleles in a population.
The frequency of allele B increased due to selective pressures of the environment.
The allelic frequencies are used to calculate the number of times an allele in a population is observed. The allelic frequencies help to understand the gene flow in a population.
In the given research, the allelic frequency for Black fur is (B) changed from B = 0.4 to B = 0.6 within 5 years. The change in the allelic frequency can be due to selective pressure, such as producing offspring more than the environment can hold.
Thus, the new predator targeted the squirrels with gray fur and led to increasing the squirrels having black fur.
Thus, the allelic frequencies increased due to selective pressures in the environment.
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