Answer: Abnormal form of p-tau
Explanation: CTE is caused by repeated blows to the head. A conclusive diagnosis of CTE can only be made after death, when an autopsy ideally can be carried out to see if the brain changes associated with CTE are present.
CTE is a tauopathy characterized by tangles of an abnormal form of the protein tau (hyperphosphorytated tau) such as neurofibrillary tangles, astrocytes tangles in the brain.
These tangles appear around small blood vessels of the cortex and beta-amyloid plaques are only present in certain circumstances which are associated with age.
Roman is a loner. He lives in a cabin in the woods with no running water or electricity. While he manages to survive this way, living so far from the closest city makes it very hard for him to get and keep gainful employment. He is often unhappy with his situation, yet he feels that he can do nothing to change it and has lived this way for years. Which term could NOT be used to describe Roman's behavior?A. deviant
B. dysfunctional
C. dangerous
D. distressful
Answer:
in my opinion i think its A. deviant
All of the following are characteristics of anemia EXCEPT
a. lack of clotting factors in the blood
b. decreased RBC levels
c. reduced oxygen carrying capacity of RBCs
d. insufficient amount of hemoglobin
Answer:
All of the following are characteristics of anemia EXCEPT
lack of clotting factors in the blood
Explanation:
Lack of clotting factors in the blood is caused by vitamin K unlike anemia a total reduction in the amount of red blood cell in the body
Raj's friends are trying to get him to smoke cigarettes. Raj knows how bad smoking would be for his health. What type of barrier is Raj facing in this situation? cultural economic educational social
Answer:
The correct option is D) social
Explanation:
When an external factor is being applied for a person to stop the person from completing his/her goal, then such a restriction is known as a social barrier. In the scenario discussed in the question, Raj knows the circumstances of smoking and hence does not want to smoke. Raj's friends are the external factors who are forcing him to smoke. Hence, this is an example of a social barrier being used for a person to stop or manipulate him from achieving his goal
Answer:
D) Social
Explanation:
How and when to assess mental status baseline and complete mental status exam (what questions do we ask for a basic mental status exam)?
Answer:
Mental status examination is to assess the patient's mental alertness, thought process, dressing, appearance, speech etc
When: It is carried out when the Neurological Expert needs to assess a patient mental status.
see the explanation for further clarification
Explanation:
The mental status examination is an assessment of current mental capacity through through careful mental assessments. Baseline results are recorded, and the examination is repeated occasionally
The patient should be asked a question about the past, such as “What color suit did you wear on your wedding ceremony?"
Mental status examination is to assess the patient's mental alertness, thought process, dressing, appearance, speech etc
The patient is asked to do the following:
Follow a complex command that involves 3 body parts and discriminates between right and left (eg, “Put your right thumb in your left ear, and stick out your tongue”)
mention simple objects and objects part (eg, glasses and lens, belt and belt buckle)
reading, writing, and repetition simple phrases (if ther is a deparity in response, other tests of aphasia are to be carried out)
When
Mental status examination is done when a Neurological expert is not sure of a patients mental status, probably there is a neurological disorder
A mental status examination assesses a patient's cognitive, emotional, and psychological functioning through a systematic evaluation of appearance, thought processes, mood, intellectual functioning, and orientation.
Mental Status Baseline and Complete Mental Status Exam
A mental status examination is a crucial tool used to evaluate a patient's cognitive, emotional, and psychological functioning systematically. It is essential to assess a patient's mental status baseline during the initial interview and throughout the examination to gauge any changes over time.
How to Perform a Basic Mental Status Examination
The basic mental status exam typically includes questions and activities that assess several domains:
Appearance and Behavior: Observe grooming, dress, body posture, and general behavior.Thought Processes and Content: Look for disorganized speech or thought, false beliefs, and delusions by asking questions such as "Can you tell me about your day?" or "Do you ever feel that people are out to get you?"Mood and Affect: Determine if the individual feels hopeless, anxious, or elated. Questions like "How are you feeling today?" can be helpful.Intellectual Functioning: Assess speech, memory, and other cognitive functions by asking the patient to recall recent events or spell simple words backwards.Orientation: Ask about the current date, location, and personal details to ensure the patient is aware of their surroundings.When to Perform the Exam
An initial assessment at the beginning of an interview acts as a baseline to monitor changes in mental status. Regular assessments should be conducted as needed, especially if any cognitive or psychological concerns arise during interactions.
Linda is 20 years old. Her target heart-rate zone lower limit is 120 beats per minute and her upper limit is 180 beats per minute. After jogging for 20 minutes, she counted her pulse for 10 seconds and obtained a count of 34 beats.
What action should she take and why?
She has bradycardia. The action she should take is to go to an emergency, because the blood is not circulating normally through her body.
What is bradycardia?Bradycardia is irregular or slow heart rhythm, usually less than 60 beats per minute. At this rate, the heart cannot pump enough oxygen-rich blood to your body during activity or exercise.
With this information, we can conclude that She has bradycardia. The action she should take is to go to an emergency, because the blood is not circulating normally through her body.
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Linda's heart rate after exercising is 204 beats per minute, which is above her target heart-rate zone upper limit. She should decrease her exercise intensity to get her heart rate back within the target range of 100 to 170 bpm for her age.
Explanation:Linda, who is 20 years old, has a target heart-rate zone of 100 to 170 beats per minute (bpm) for moderate-intensity physical activity. After jogging, she counted her pulse for 10 seconds and obtained a count of 34 beats. To find her heart rate in bpm, we can use a conversion factor of six since there are 60 seconds in a minute and she counted for 10 seconds, so we multiply 34 beats by 6, resulting in 204 bpm.
Since Linda's heart rate of 204 bpm exceeds her target heart-rate zone upper limit of 170 bpm, she should decrease the intensity of her exercise. This adjustment is necessary to bring her heart rate back within her target zone to ensure she is exercising safely and most effectively for moderate-intensity physical activity.
Which of the following should an endurance athlete consume 2-4 hours before exercising to ensure adequate stores of muscle glycogen? a. Baked potato
b. Oatmeal cookie
c. Avocado
d. Spinach
Answer:
A. Baked potato
Explanation:
An endurance athlete should consume baked potato 2-4 hours before exercising to ensure adequate stores of muscle glycogen. Potato is rich in complex carbohydrates which are then transformed in glycogen to store in the muscle and are energy for the person to use later. Oatmeal cookie might be another right option but it maybe it has less quantity of energy.
The bacteria in our colons receive nutrients as waste passes through the digestive system and synthesize vitamin K, which the human body then uses. True or False.
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
In the large intestine many bacteria can synthesize vitamin K2, but not vitamin K1. One example of this bacteria is the Escherichia Coli. Vitamin K is a group of structurally similar fat soluble vitamins. Some of the functions of Vitamin K are related to the synthesis of proteins involved in blood coagulation or for controlling binding of calcium in bones and tissues.
Which electrolyte imbalances at the cellular level cause changes in the normal conduction and contractile function of the myocardium?
Answer: Magnesium, potassium and calcium
Explanation: This is evident in the roles these cations play at the intercellular levels on muscle contractions. Potassium is vital to the contractions of the heart and skeletal muscles, Calcium mediates muscular contractions and regulates the activity of the CNS, Magnesium regulates the Flux of calcium. So it is evident that any change in their concentrations would significantly affect the activities of the heart muscles especially.
Tom had been feeling very tired and went to his family practitioner with this concern. The family practitioner asked Tom about his feelings. Tom reported having trouble concentrating and not feeling as hungry as usual. Further questioning revealed Tom was disappointed about a failed relationship and employment. The family practitioner referred Tom to a psychiatrist for care for possible depression. A family practitioner is __________.a. specialist in primary care and treatment of family members on a continuing basisb. specialist who treats family members’ gastrointestinal disordersc. specialist who treats older familiesd. specialist who treats mental disorders within families
Answer:
.a. specialist in primary care and treatment of family members on a continuing basis
Explanation:
A family Practitioner is an individual who specifically specializes on taking care of the family on continual occasion. Part of the role of the family Practitioner is that He/she must be dedicated and devoted to the thorough health care of all members in the family by directing and mentoring them relating to health issues when catering for their health status.
Family practitioners employ the use of their vast knowledge in their medical profession to cater for various health issues but if a clinical and medical problem falls off their scope of knowledge, they will then direct the client to an appropriate specialist.
As seen in the case of Tom, despite all the symptoms faced by Tom, the family practitioner referred (directed) Tom to a psychiatrist for care for possible depression.
The owner of a corner lot allowed a hedge on his property to become overgrown, obstructing the view of motorists at that corner. Two motorists were driving inattentively and each ran a stop sign at the intersection bordering the lot. Their cars collided in the intersection and one of the motorists was injured. She sued the owner of the lot. The jury determined that the lot owner was 10% at fault and each of the motorists was 45% at fault. Will the injured motorist recover damages from the lot owner?
Answer: YES, because the lot owner must have foreseen that the hedge is a possible hazard to motorists and other road users.
Explanation: The injured motorists will recover damages from the lot owner because he must have foreseen that the hedge is capable of causing injuries to both motorists. Once he failed to do so the law permits that the motorists can recover damages from the lot owner. It is advised that all lot or property owners should observe and take necessary precautions to prevent any form of obstructions to motorists or other road users.
Nina practices the hatha style of a form of meditative movement, which is helping her increase her flexibility and tranquility. Which type of practice is she engaged in?
Answer:
Yoga
Explanation:
Hatha is a branch of yoga that involves a set of yoga poses (asanas) and breathing techniques (pranayama) which prepare the body and mind for meditation.
I hope you find this information useful and interesting! Good luck!
Final answer:
Nina is practicing Yoga, more specifically, the Hatha Yoga style, which focuses on physical postures, controlled breathing, and meditation to increase flexibility and achieve mental tranquility.
Explanation:
Nina is engaging in Yoga, specifically the Hatha Yoga style, which focuses on the practice of asanas (postures) alongside other elements such as meditation, controlled breathing, and ethical disciplines. Hatha Yoga is aimed at balancing and strengthening the body and mind, preparing the practitioner for deeper spiritual practices like meditation (dhyana) and achieving tranquility. It emphasizes physical exercises, breathing control, and meditation to improve flexibility and induce a state of mental calmness and well-being.
The practice of Yoga incorporates eight limbs, including moral restraints (yamas), personal conduct (niyamas), postures (asana), breath control (pranayama), and meditation (dhyana), leading towards achieving a higher state of consciousness (samadhi).
Hatha Yoga, being a foundational style, encourages the development of physical strength, flexibility, and mental focus, making it an accessible entry point for many beginners into the broader practice of Yoga. By practicing Hatha Yoga, Nina is not only enhancing her physical flexibility but is also promoting her mental tranquility through mindfulness and meditative practices embedded within Yoga.
An eponym is a disease, structure, operation or procedure named for the person who discovered or described it first a. True b. False
An eponym is a disease, structure, procedure named for the eminent person who discovered or described it firstly thus, this statement is true.
What is an eponym in medical?An eponym is referred to as the person for whom something is named. In the world of contemporary Western science & medicine, eponyms are usually used to name everything from conditions, drugs, and devices to procedures and techniques.
Some examples of eponyms are eustachian tubes (auditory tubes-Bartolommeo Eustachii) and fallopian tubes (uterine tubes-Gabriello Fallopio). The problem with eponyms is that they do not provide useful information about what is or where to find the item named.
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One of the earliest developments in the field of nutrition linking nutritional deficiency to illness was the discovery that eating citrus fruits prevents:______a. scurvyb. pellagrac. cancerd. strokes
Answer:
The correct answer is a. scurvy
Explanation:
Scurvy is a deficiency disease which is caused by the deficiency of vitamin C. James Lind in the 18th century discovered that citrus fruit prevents scurvy and can help in curing the scurvy. Scurvy was the main cause of death in sailors during long-distance sea travells.
Citrus fruits have plenty of vitamin C which is required for in variety of biosynthetic pathway and lack of vitamin-C cause weakness, gum disease, anemia, and skin problems. So eating citrus fruits prevents scurvy.
A client has just given birth to a healthy baby boy, but the placenta has not yet delivered. What stage of labor does this scenario represent?
Answer:
That would represent the third stage of labor,
My mom is a nurse so I have always learned this stuff through the years
Answer:
The third stage
Explanation:
Third stage of labor: This is the part of labor from the birth of the baby till when the placenta and fetal membranes are delivered which can also be termed the placental stage.
A 40 year-old man who has a mother who was diagnosed with breast cancer at age 45, a father who was diagnosed with smoking-related lung cancer at age 55, a 33-year-old sister with breast cancer, and a 38-year-old sister with ovarian cancer, asks if he should be concerned for his cancer risk. What is the best response?
Answer:
He should be concerned
He should be concerned about his cancer risk as he is prone based on genetics. He should therefore avoid lifestyle associated risk factors such as smoking, overweight and other factors. He should diet properly and go for proper check up regularly. In case if bening tumour he should go for proper radiotherapy
There are three fundamental types of prevention used in health care: primary, secondary, and tertiary. Which statement accurately describes secondary prevention?
Answer:
Secondary prevention aims to reduce the impact of a disease or injury that has already occurred. This is done by detecting and treating disease or injury as soon as possible to halt or slow its progress, encouraging personal strategies to prevent reinjury or recurrence, and implementing programs to return people to their original health and function to prevent long-term problems. Examples include:
regular exams and screening tests to detect disease in its earliest stages (e.g. mammograms to detect breast cancer)
daily, low-dose aspirins and/or diet and exercise programs to prevent further heart attacks or strokes
suitably modified work so injured or ill workers can return safely to their jobs.
Explanation:
hope this helps you out
Why do Jem and Scout feel guilty when Mr. Avery tells them that children who disobey parents, smoke cigarettes, and make war on each other can cause a change in the seasons
Jem and Scout feel guilty because Mr. Avery suggests their bad behavior could cause natural disruptions, aligning with the rhetorical strategy of pathos.
Explanation:Jem and Scout feel guilty when Mr. Avery attributes changes in the seasons to children's misbehavior because it invokes a sense of responsibility and consequence for their actions. The implication that their disobedience and misunderstandings between each other could cause natural disruptions plays on their emotions, utilising the rhetorical strategy of pathos to appeal to their sense of guilt. This is reflective of a broader narrative device in literature where characters' actions are linked to larger events, suggesting a metaphorical connection between personal behavior and the state of the world around them.
Katie was able to remember the number 111 by associating it with Admiral Nelson, who happened to have one eye, one arm, and one leg. This is an example of:a. Retrieving
b. Storing
c. Memory
d. Encoding
Answer:
d. Encoding
Explanation:
Fixing or encoding:
It is the process in which the information is prepared so to speak, so that it can be stored. The determining factors that the process takes place correctly are: the concentration, attention and motivation of the subject.
At this stage the information can be encoded in different ways, according to the need or the moment, this can be through images, sounds, experiences, ideas, events, all this depends on the type of information used.
Planners should build ____________ into their plans so that employees know when they need to get supplies that may be needed for an extended period away from the office. A. Triggers B. Evacuation procedures C. Use of the Incident Command System D. Cascading event considerations
Answer:
Planners should build "Triggers" into their plans so that employees know when they need to get supplies that may be needed for an extended period away from the office.
Explanation:
It is a part of risk management. Trigger is basically taking risks. This can be managed by the Commitment or the support from the top authorities, with communication and changing the work culture and also through information and technology. Risk management is a very important part of running industry and for increasing the effectiveness of the project success. The triggers are mostly updated in the risk registers it has all about the risk response and also to know when risk to occur.
Planners should build triggers into their emergency and change control plans. Triggers prompt immediate action, maintaining the responsiveness and adaptability of plans in case of unforeseen events. Understanding and preparing for cascading consequences enhances disaster resilience and management.
Explanation:Planners should build triggers into their plans so that employees know when they need to get supplies that may be needed for an extended period away from the office. Triggers are specific events or indicators that necessitate action and are essential in ensuring that a plan is adaptive and responsive to real-world conditions. When creating a master plan for emergency response or significant changes, it is crucial to include elements that prompt immediate action. These triggers act as a 'break glass in case of emergency' safeguard, enabling employees to quickly identify when they need to implement contingency plans.
In the realm of emergency management, the concept of cascading consequences is critical, as any disaster may lead to a series of escalating events affecting people, organizations, and the economy. Employees must have the training and autonomy to react effectively to prevent further consequences such as significant equipment damage, product loss, or worker injury, and this is where triggers play a vital role. Post-emergency evaluations and documentation of all activities are part of the emergency management cycle and ensure continuous improvement.
Overall, incorporating triggers in plans supports both a proactive and reactive response that is essential for disaster resilience. It ties into broader emergency management strategies, where triggers can help manage resources effectively and ensure the sustainability of essential supplies in the face of a disaster.
Vitamins are specific organic compounds that are required in the diet to 1. aid in digestion of proteins. 2. provide fiber. 3. provide essential amino acids. 4. prevent deficiency diseases.
Answer:
The correct answer is 4. prevent deficiency diseases.
Explanation:
Vitamins are important in the body and it helps in boosting our immune system, helping our wounds to heal fast. They are required in a small amount in the body for maintaining normal metabolism of the body.
Vitamins helps in preventing deficiency disease like vitamin deficiency anemia. Vitamin D deficiency can cause rickets, vitamin C deficiency can cause scurvy, deficiency of vitamin A can cause vision loss.
Therefore a proper balanced diet should be taken which has all essential vitamins to prevent us from deficiency diseases.
Your lab partner accidentally gets a mist of your solution in her eye. You immediately help her to the eyewash to rinse it. After about a minute, she feels better and is ready to get back to work. You should:
Answer:
Firstly, Watch her activities for closely twenty minutes, because it might take some time for her body system to react to the solution.
Secondly, report the situation to the laboratory technologist in other to ensure prompt emergency response in case of complications.
What are some ways that people can be sure to take in enough magnesium and calcium to ensure their good health?
Answer:
Magnesium and calcium are two minerals that are essential for the healthy functioning of the human body. Magnesium is vital for optimal muscular and nerve functioning, as well as 300+ biochemical reactions in the body. Calcium on the other hand, is important for the formation and maintenance of healthy teeth and bones, as well as the prevention of weakened bones and osteoporosis.
Good sources of magnesium include: legumes, lentils, seeds, avocados, some types of fish, bananas, broccoli, peas, brussels sprouts, etc.
Good sources of calcium include: milk and other dairy products such as yogurt and cheese, green leafy vegetables, soy products such as tofu, and some types of nuts.
Generally, magnesium and calcium can be obtained from a healthy and well-balanced diet. However, if deficiencies are present, dietary supplements might be necessary.
Research has found that psychological stress and anxiety can cause nothing to happen at all make you happier in the future increase your life expectancy advance cell aging.
Answer True
We all experience anxiety; it is a natural human state and a vital ... 'right' amount of anxiety can help us perform better . Persistent anxiety causes real emotional
A __________ person is one who has moral integrity and has a strict regard for doing what is considered the right thing to do.
Answer:
A conscientious person is one who has moral integrity and has a strict regard for doing what is considered the right thing to do.
Explanation:
Conscientious person is a person which is careful and diligent . This person has a strong desire to do a task well and take obligations to other seriously. These people tend to be organized and efficient .
They has strong moral integrity and has a strict regard for doing what is considered the right thing to do.
These people are denpendable. They are well aware about succumbing to convenience kills long term goals adn that good things take time and hard work.
Gathering information about your heart rate, breathing, and skin temperature in order to recognize stress response symptoms is a technique referred to as__________.
Answer: Bio feedback session
Explanation: During a biofeedback session, electrodes are attached to your skin. Finger sensors can also be used. These electrodes/sensors send signals to a monitor, which displays a sound, flash of light, or image that represents your heart and breathing rate, blood pressure, skin temperature, sweating, or muscle activity.
It relieves stress and gives you control over your body.
I hope you found this helpful Kylie.
Gathering information about your heart rate, breathing, and skin temperature in order to recognize stress response symptoms is a technique referred to as - biofeedback session.
Biofeedback is a mind-body technique that involves using visual or auditory feedback.
It helps to teach people to recognize the physical signs and symptoms of stress and anxietyDuring this, a therapist attaches electrical sensors to different parts of your body.These sensors might be used to monitor your brain waves, skin temperature, muscle tension, heart rate and breathing.helps to recognize stress response symptomsThus, Gathering information about your heart rate, breathing, and skin temperature in order to recognize stress response symptoms is a technique referred to as - biofeedback session.
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An elderly client with diabetes comes to the clinic in winter reporting numbness of the feet what is the nurse action if the feet are ice cold to the touch and appear waxy and pale
A nurse should first try to keep the surroundings at a comfortable temperature, and keep the feet dry, clean, and covered.
Explanation:
Prevention is the best treatment for diabetes patients as healing can take ages for them, especially sores on the toes and fingers. This increases the risk of amputation. Thus, a nurse should warm up and avoid damage to the feet.
Answer:Soak the client’s lower legs in a warm water bath
Explanation:
Which situation permits everyone in the health care setting to work through the various stages of acceptance that precede death?
Answer: open awareness
Explanation:In the context of open awareness personnel and patients recognize that the condition of the patient is terminal. Awareness of the open is often a stable context. Patients recognize that they are dying but often remain in closed awareness of other aspects of death, such as manner and time.
Answer:
open awareness
Explanation:
A better understanding of the process of moving toward death allows providers to address the unique needs of their patients and guide them and their loved ones through the process. A medical staff will come in contact with dying patient on several occasion and that is when this open awareness will set in
__________ refers to the way immigrants tend to show better physical health compared to nonimmigrants despite the many challenges of adapting and adjusting to a new country.
Answer:
Immigrant Paradox
Explanation:
Immigrant Paradox - it is referred to the way through which immigrants show a better result in health, education, conduct, etc, than non - immigrants.
Immigrants face a lot of struggle, barrier throughout their journey in a foreign land but then also they have shown better results in many areas.
One assessment parameter that the LPN/LVN is responsible for is fluid volume loss. It would be important to assess the umbilical cord for any sign of bleeding. What would be important to assess for if the infant has an unusually large cord?
Answer:
A loose clamp may be responsible for an unusually large cord.
Explanation:
The LPN shall gently slip the umbilical cord over the baby's head or shoulder during delivery, in case the cord is unusually large. Clamp the cord after 60 seconds if the baby is vigorous and then provide resuscitation to the neonate.
The nurse is providing education to a client prescribed clomipramine to help with obsessive-compulsive disorder. Which statement by the client indicates the teaching was effective?
Answer:
"I may have a risk of suicidal thoughts with the medication."
Explanation:
Clomipramine has been associated with suicidal thoughts and behaviors. During a clinical study, a number of children, teenagers and young adults were made to take antidepressants such as clomipramine. The study findings stated that the group who took the drug were either thinking about killing or causing harm on themselves or already trying to do so. It was therefore concluded that people who take antidepressants to treat mental illness or depression may become suicidal whereas people who do not take this drugs may not.
Final answer:
A client who understands that clomipramine is effective as part of a comprehensive treatment plan for OCD, including therapy, has likely received effective education. Recognizing the role of cognitive-behavioral and exposure-based psychotherapy in managing symptoms and improving outcomes further indicates effective client education.
Explanation:
The client's understanding of clomipramine treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is crucial for its effectiveness. An indication of effective teaching is when the client can accurately describe the role of this medication, understand its purpose, potential side effects, and the importance of adherence to the prescribed course. Since clomipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant that is specifically effective in treating OCD, the client should acknowledge that this medication is part of their treatment plan, which may also include cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) and exposure-based psychotherapy, to address and manage OCD symptoms.
OCD generally has a low prevalence rate and can have varying symptoms and severity. Clients must realize that medications like clomipramine can effectively reduce symptoms, but in combination with therapy, can help address the underlying causes of their anxiety and obsessive behaviors. It is also vital for clients to recognize the importance of therapy sessions in conjunction with medication to achieve the best possible outcome for their mental health. Individuals with OCD may experience a significant reduction in anxiety and obsessive thoughts when engaging in exposure-based psychotherapy and CBT, as these therapies work to systematically desensitize individuals to their triggers.