The testing effect refers to the enhancement in retention that occurs with repeated retrieval of learned information, a process known as test-enhanced learning. This effect applies to various subjects and learning types.
Explanation:The testing effect refers to the enhancement in retention that accompanies repeated retrieval of learned information. That is, repeatedly testing yourself on what you have learned, rather than simply reading over the material, can significantly improve your recall of the information at a later time. This phenomenon, also known as retrieval practice effect or test-enhanced learning, has been observed across many different subjects and types of learning. For example, if you are studying for a geography exam and you practice recalling all the countries in South America, you will likely be more successful in remembering them during the test compared to just reading them over and over.
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The testing effect refers to the enhanced memory and recall that result from repeated retrieval of learned information. Each time you retrieve a piece of information, it becomes more easily retrievable in the future. This supports the retrieval process of bringing information from long-term memory back to conscious awareness.
Explanation:The testing effect refers to the improvement in memory and recall efficiency that results from repeated retrieval of learned information. This concept is closely related to concepts in the field of cognitive psychology that examine how humans process and retrieve information. To put it simply, every time you retrieve a piece of information from your memory, you make that piece of information more accessible in the future. This forms part of the retrieval process, which involves getting information out of long-term memory storage and back into conscious awareness.
For example, if you learn a new vocabulary word and then practice reciting that word several times, you are more likely to remember that word later, as compared to learning the word and not practicing it. This happens due to the testing effect, where repeated retrieval boosts recallability. This principle can be applied widely, not just in academic or scholastic settings, but in any scenario where learning and memory are essential.
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_________ is the distance traveled from the time your brain tells your foot to move from the accelerator until your foot is actually pushing the brake pedal.
Answer:
Reaction distance
Explanation:
Reaction distance can simply be defined as the distance covered from the moment a hazard is detected to when the driver begins braking or swerving.
In a nutshell, it measures how quick a driver can react to hazards encountered while plying the road.
The reaction distance can be decreased by being aware on the road (increased awareness) and by anticipating hazards. Anticipating hazards makes you relaxed and able to react quickly to sudden hazards.
Final answer:
The distance traveled during the time it takes for a driver to react and begin braking is known as the reaction distance, and it's a component of the overall stopping distance, alongside the braking distance.
Explanation:
The distance traveled from the time your brain tells your foot to move from the accelerator until your foot is actually pushing the brake pedal is known as the reaction distance. This is part of the overall stopping distance, which is the total distance a car travels while the driver reacts and the car comes to a complete stop after braking. It's crucial to understand that this distance consists of two parts: the reaction distance and the braking distance. The reaction distance depends on the driver's reaction time and the speed of the vehicle.
For example, if a car is initially traveling at 50 mph and has a reaction time of 0.500 seconds, you would calculate the reaction distance as follows: First, convert the speed into meters per second since 1 mph is approximately 0.447 m/s. The speed in meters per second would be 50 mph * 0.447 m/s per mph = 22.35 m/s. Then multiply this speed by the reaction time to find the reaction distance: 22.35 m/s * 0.500 s = 11.175 meters. This is the distance the car will travel during the driver's reaction time, before the brakes are even applied.
Understanding the differences between reaction distance and braking distance is important for safety and for analyzing road conditions and their impact on overall stopping distance. Wet pavement, for example, can significantly increase the braking distance, while a prompt reaction can minimize the overall stopping distance.
A multiple-choice question that requires that you remember what you have seen before is an example of a _____ task.
The term word _______ is used to describe incoherent, loose word associations that sometimes appear in the speech of a person diagnosed with schizophrenia
Answer:
The answer is word salad.
Explanation:
The term explains a symptom of some mental disorders in which a person is unable to form coherent sentences. Although the speech may be gramatically correct, the choice of words is apparently random and the meaning becomes unclear. The patient is usually unaware that their sentences did not make any sense.
Stacy Hanes is an African-American woman who has recently taken her first job and does not seem to like the work environment at all. Her colleagues put down her ideas at team meetings and refer to them as "stupid." In addition, they make fun of her race and often ask her if she is educated enough to work for the company. Which of the following kinds of discrimination is Hanes most likely subject to?
The correct answer is A) mockery.
The other options of the question were B) sexual harassment. C) stalking. D) deception.
The kind of discrimination Hanes is most likely subject to is a mockery.
It is unbelievable that in the 21st century we still have different types of discrimination in the workplace or schools. Hanes is suffering from mockery in the workplace, but there are other types of discrimination due to race, gender, religion, or nationality. If you suffer from any kind of discrimination in school or the workplace, do not hesitate to go inform your boss, your teacher or the internal complain office in your company, that attend these types of aggressions.
State and local governmental funds are organized into three categories including: Multiple Choice governmental, fiduciary, and restricted. governmental, proprietary, and fiduciary. governmental, proprietary, and restricted. proprietary, fiduciary, and restricted.
Answer:
governmental, proprietary, and fiduciary
Explanation:
A government fund is a fund which are grouped used in accounting for the tax-supported activities and are completed by the federal government.
A Proprietary fund is a fund obtained from business-like activities which are conducted by the government.
Fiduciary funds are funds used to report assets that are held in a trustee and so it cannot be utilized to support the programs of the government.
Therefore, the local and state governmental funds are categorized as ---
Governmental fundProprietary fundFiduciary fundAll of the following statements are correct EXCEPT: a. immediately after the announcement of a planned acquisition, the stock price of the majority of acquiring firms declines. b. shareholders of acquired firms often earn above-average returns from an acquisition. c. the majority of acquisitions increase long-term value for the acquiring firm. d. shareholders of acquiring firms typically earn returns from the transaction that are close to zero.
All of the given statements are correct except the majority of acquisitions increase long-term value for the acquiring firm.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Acquisition can be very strategic for companies as it is a process by which one company buys some or all of the shares of other company and assimilate in itself. It is very commonly seen that the stock price of the acquiring firms declines once the announcement of planned acquisition is made.
One of the interesting aspects of acquisition is that shareholders of acquiring firms usually earn very little returns which are almost zero whereas the shareholders of acquired firms earn returns above the average returns.
Which statement best explains how popular sovereignty ensures that the power of the government is limited?
1. Elections allow the people to replace public officials who do not represent what the people want.
2. Dividing responsibility among different branches keeps public officials from becoming corrupt.
3. The explicit enumeration of certain powers prevents Congress from passing certain kinds of laws.
4. Promoting the common welfare requires the different branches of government to work together.
Answer:
1. Elections allow the people to replace public officials who do not represent what the people want.
Explanation:
The principle of popular sovereignty is based on the idea that the authority of the state and the government remains under the check of the people and is whit consent of the people.The political power is created and sustained only by the support of the people. Popular sovereignty ensures that the power of the government is limited through elections after a given time frame. These elections allow the people to replace public officials who do not represent what the people want or have not performed as per the expectations of the people.
Susan had difficulty recognizing that a sea horse was a fish because it did not closely resemble her ________ of a fish.
The correct answer is Prototype
Prototype is the term used to refer to what was first created as a model for future productions.
In product development, for example, prototyping is an essential part of the project, consisting of the phase where practical testing of the product is performed before it can be made available for large scale production and commercialization.
Susan struggled to recognize a sea horse as a fish because it didn't match her standard image of a fish, owing to its unique features such as a thin skin over bony plates, an upright swimming posture, and a prehensile tail.
Susan had difficulty recognizing that a sea horse was a fish because it did not closely resemble her prototype of a fish. This is a common occurrence because seahorses do not exhibit typical fish characteristics, such as scales and a streamlined body.
Instead, seahorses have a unique body structure with a thin skin stretched over bony plates arranged in rings, swim upright, and have prehensile tails for anchoring themselves to stationary objects. These features, along with their ability to eat by sucking up food with their long snouts and their eyes which can move independently of each other, distinguish them significantly from our conventional view of fish.
In a situation that provides a mortgage lender the right to execute a foreclosure, who holds legal title?
Answer:
mortgagee
Explanation:
A mortgage is a type of loan taken where a property especially a real estate is being used as a collateral. There is a mutual agreement between the borrower and the lender. The borrower signs a promissory note to return the debt to the lender.
The borrower is called as the mortgagor and the lender is known as the mortgagee. The borrower gives the legal title to the lender or the mortgagee while retaining the equitable title. Here the mortgagee owns the property until the loan is payed. In case of default by the mortgagor, the mortgagee can have immediate possession of the property since he have legal title of the property.
If you stand on a bathroom scale in an elevator, just as the elevator starts to descend the reading on the scale.
Answer: The reading on the scale will decrease as the elevator descend.
According to Newton's second law of motion which explains that the rate of change of the momentum of a body is directly proportional to, and in the same direction as, the net force acting on it.
In essence as a body moves towards ground, it weighs less and even weighs more upon impact with the ground.
If peradventure, the whole system is in free fall, you, the elevator and the scale will weigh nothing at all.
A(n) ______ is a governing principle pertaining to goals, objectives, and/or activities. It is a decision on an issue not resolved on the basis of facts and logic only. For example, the policy of expediting drug cases in the courts might be adopted as a basis for reducing the average number of days from arraignment to disposition.
a. evaluation
b. outcome
c. outlook
d. policy
Answer:
D - policy
Explanation:
A policy is a formulated system of rules and principles to guide decisions and achieve desired outcomes.
A policy is defined as a statement of intent, and is implemented as a procedure or protocol. Policies are generally adopted by a governance body within an organization.
The other options listed do not accurately describe the question.
Meredith's baby is 2 weeks overdue. What is a potential hazard that the baby can experience because it is postmature?
a) broken limbs during birth
b) insufficient blood supply from the placenta to the baby’s brain, leading to potential brain damage
c) death or being stillborn
d) lifelong obesity
The answer is c) death or being stillborn.
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-------------caught in or -between hazards are related with excavations [trenches]; therefore, the hazards considered to be the greatest risk is:
Excavations or trenches can pose caught in or between hazards, which are considered to be the greatest risk related to these structures. These hazards occur when a person becomes trapped or squeezed between objects or materials, such as when a trench collapses or when heavy machinery or equipment collapses onto a person.
Explanation:Excavations or trenches can pose caught in or between hazards, which are considered to be the greatest risk related to these structures. These hazards occur when a person becomes trapped or squeezed between objects or materials, such as when a trench collapses or when heavy machinery or equipment collapses onto a person.
For example: If a worker is inside a trench and it collapses due to unstable soil, the person can become trapped or crushed between the collapsing walls of the trench. It is important to follow safety guidelines and regulations when working in or around excavations to prevent caught in or between hazards and ensure the safety of workers.
The Endangered Species Act is often a center of controversy because _____. landowners are concerned that federal officials will restrict the use of private land if threatened or endangered species are found on it it has not been successful there are animals listed that are not worth saving scientists want to make all species endangered
Answer: landowners are concerned that federal officials will restrict the use of private land if threatened or endangered species are found on it.
Achondroplasia is a form of dwarfism caused by a dominant allele. The homozygous dominant genotype causes death, so individuals who have this condition are all heterozygotes. If a person with achondroplasia mates with a person who does not have achondroplasia, what percentage of their children would be expected to have achondroplasia? A. 0% B. 50% C. 100% D. 75%
Answer:
There is a 50% chance to pass the gen with each pregnancy.
Explanation:
Achondroplasia is not usually an inherited condition. It is estimated that 80% of patients have healthy parents with regular sizes. They are born with the condition due to a new-gen alteration or mutation.
Then, the mutated gene has a 50% chance to be inherited by the patient's children.
Ritual is a practival way for people and communities to deal with the unknown and uncontrollable.
a) true
b) false
Answer:
a) True
Explanation:
For sociologists, magic rituals serve a great deal of function societies. It is a type of action which prevents individuals and groups not to fall into anxiety and at the same time they acquire the necessary confidence in their abilities. Anxiety may arise when people feel certain desires and do not possess techniques which will ensure them a way to satisfy their desires.
Also, rituals are a determined mode of action. In that reference, myth serves a very important function in the society. Terms like sacred and profane are useful in distinguishing ritual behaviour from other types of action.
a company tat manufactures alcoholic beverages bought and then sold two smaller companies that produce film, television, and music.
The correct answer is; The Conglomerate Seagrams.
Further Explanation:
Seagrams is an company who produces and primarily sells alcoholic beverages. This company once bought the movie studio Universal who produced film, television, and music. Seagrams sold the company later and was once the largest alcoholic line in the world.
Seagrams is part of a conglomerate. This is when a large company will purchase other businesses that do not have any relations to the main company such as Seagrams and Universal. This type of business practice started growing bigger in the 1990's.
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A company that manufactures alcoholic beverages bought and then sold two smaller companies that produce film, television, and music is known as a : Conglomerate Seagrams.
Conglomerate in business refers to combination of different business activities. They often diversify business risk by participating in a number of different markets hence owning several companies.
Seagrams as a company produces and sells basically alcoholic beverages. They once took over studio Universal who mainly produce film, television, and music, before it was later sold.
Hence, conglomerate seagrams is a company that manufactures alcoholic beverages bought and then sold two smaller companies that produce film, television, and music.
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The US Constitution has been called the greatest document on the planet. It states "The Congress shall have the power to lay and collect taxes on income, from whatever source derived, without apportionment among the several States, and without regard to any census or enumeration." Which amendment was added to the Constitution that contains this language?
a. 10th Amendment.
b. 12th Amendment.
c. 14th Amendment.
d. 16th Amendment.
Answer:
D. 16th Amendment.
Explanation:
The 16th Amendment was added to the Constitution in 1913 and give freedom to the Congress to charge taxes over any source, without a census consult. However, these taxes should be fair and coherent.
Jim contracted with Kevin to serve as a guide for Kevin on his three-week fishing trip to Canada. The contract was made on April 1 with the trip to begin on June 1. On May 1, Kevin notified Jim that he had changed his mind and would be unable to make the trip. He also refused to pay Jim any compensation.
a. Because the contract is executory, Jim has suffered no damages, and Kevin has no obligation to pay any compensation.
b. Kevin has anticipatorily repudiated the contract and is liable to Jim for damages.
c. If Kevin changes his mind again and decides to go on the trip, Jim will have to perform unless he has notified Kevin that he is canceling the contract.
d. Both (b) and (c) above are correct.
Answer:
b. Kevin has anticipatorily repudiated the contract and is liable to Jim for damages.
Explanation:
Velva has been having difficulty getting herself out of the house lately. She usually meets with an art group 2 nights a week and has always enjoyed these gatherings. Lately, however, she doesn't go and doesn't do the things that used to bring her pleasure. Which of the following describes Velva's symptoms?A. anhedonia/amotivationB. delusional thinkingC. hallucinationsD. catatonia
Answer: A) Anhedonia/amotivation
Explanation:
amotivation is defined as the feeling that lacks the characteristic of motivation in a person .Anhedonia is the situation in which a person is not able to have the feeling of pleasure.This condition is considered to be the schizophrenia's symptoms.
According to the situation mentioned in question,Velva is not feeling to hang-out outside anymore because she does not feel enthusiastic and does not provide pleasure to her.
Other option are incorrect because hallucination is experiencing something that does not exist. Delusional are false belief that does not let a person change. Catatonia is abnormal behavior due to mental state.Thus, the correct option is option(A).
A chain reaction results when a uranium atom is struck by a(n) ______ released by a nearby Uranium atom undergoing fission.
Final answer:
A chain reaction occurs when a uranium atom is struck by a neutron released by another fissioning uranium atom, leading to a series of fissions and an exponential increase in reactions if a critical mass is present.
Explanation:
A chain reaction results when a uranium atom is struck by a neutron released by a nearby Uranium atom undergoing fission. This is a key concept in nuclear physics, particularly when discussing the mechanisms driving nuclear reactors and atomic bombs. When a uranium-235 (U-235) atom captures a neutron, it becomes unstable and splits into two smaller atoms, a process known as fission. This fission releases a significant amount of binding energy and additional neutrons. The released neutrons can in turn cause the fission of other U-235 atoms, leading to a series of reactions that can grow exponentially in what is known as a nuclear chain reaction. For a chain reaction to be sustained, a critical mass of uranium is required to ensure that the neutrons produced are likely to collide with other fissile nuclei rather than escaping the material.
When she was 6 years old, Anita went to a camp where she had a wonderful time. Two years later, her parents drove past the camp on their way to a family vacation. Anita experienced a positive feeling sweep over her. Her positive feelings can be explained through the process of_______________.
Answer:
classical conditioning
Explanation:
Classical conditioning: In psychology, the term classical conditioning was proposed by one of the most influential psychologist named Ivan Pavlov while experimenting on dogs, and is also referred to as respondent or Pavlovian conditioning. Classical conditioning is a type of learning process and involves to acquire a new behavior through association with several stimuli.
Classical conditioning involves a conditioned stimulus that starts to associate with an unconnected unconditioned stimulus to give rise to a behavioral response named as a conditioned response which a formerly neutral stimulus that became a learned response.
In the question above, Anita's positive feelings can be explained through the process of classical conditioning.
Special operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using specialized tactics and equipment to achieve _____ objectives
Answer:
strategic or operational objectives
Explanation:
Special operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using specialized tactics and equipment to achieve strategic or operational objectives .
In the military, special units are used to achieve strategic and operational objectives.
According to Herzberg's theory, _______ needs are related to the physical and psychological context in which the work is performed.
Answer: Hygiene
Explanation: as described by Herzberg, Hygiene needs are needs that don't actually motivate workers when they are available,needs are related to the physical and psychological context in which the work is performed. they are needed to improve workers affection and satisfaction at work. Some of the hygiene needs are connected to the Compensation, Political participation, superior and subordinate relationship, job security, conducive work environment etc. He advised that organizations should try to make these needs available or adequate in order to ensure employees satisfaction.
Herzberg's theory refers to 'hygiene needs' as the factors related to the physical and psychological work context, which must be addressed to prevent employee dissatisfaction.
Explanation:According to Herzberg's theory, hygiene needs are related to the physical and psychological context in which the work is performed. Herzberg's two-factor theory divides motivational factors into two categories: hygiene factors and motivators. Hygiene factors, also known as maintenance factors, are necessary to ensure an employee isn't dissatisfied.
They are tied to the work environment and include aspects such as company policies, supervisory practices, salary, safety, and security on the job. These factors do not lead to higher levels of motivation but without them, employees can become dissatisfied.
Herzberg identified separate sets of factors that could lead to employee satisfaction — motivators. Unlike hygiene factors, motivators are things that make people more motivated when present. These involve challenging work, recognition, responsibility, and personal growth. Herzberg's theory suggests that both sets of factors are essential but affect different elements of the work experience.
Critics of the standards-based movement cite all of the following reasons for their objections except Group of answer choices lack of support from parents and taxpayers. too much focus on testing. high stakes of accountability-based test scores. attention and money should be focused on preexisting urgent needs.
Lack of support from parents and taxpayers.
The controversy surrounding standardized testing revolves around assessment methods and high-stakes implications, leading to concerns about the focus on test preparation over comprehensive education.
Standardized testing in education has sparked debates mainly related to the assessment process and its high-stakes nature. Opponents argue that too much emphasis is placed on these tests, leading to concerns of teaching to the test and neglecting other aspects of education.
What differences exist between teacher expectations for high-achieving students and for low-achieving students?
Answer:
Teachers are friendlier to high-achieving students.
Explanation:
Teachers are usually friendlier to high-achieving students than low-achieving students.
Sexually transmitted infections affect about ________ adults in the United States.
Answer:
15 to 24
Explanation:
As per different researches found sexually transmitted infections is being report between the age of 15 to 24 adults in the United States. Moreover, sexually transmitted infections numbers are rising every year in the United States.
Answer:
One in Six
Explanation:
A therapist wants to help Hannah recognize her mixed feelings of fear and love for her husband and to realize that she often experienced similar feelings for her brothers during her childhood. The therapist's goal is most clearly consistent with the aims of
(A) psychodynamic therapy
(B) behavior therapy
(C) biomedical therapy
(D) client-centered therapy
Answer:
a. Psychodynamic therapy
Explanation:
Psychodynamic theory is one of the different approaches used in therapy. This kind of therapy was first introduced by Sigmund Freud. One of the main characteristics of this approach is how it focuses on how our early relationships during childhood determine the way we will relate to others in adulthood. It also focuses in the unconscious patterns that make us repeat patterns of behaviors that we learned when we were kids.
One of the main goals of this therapy is to identify these patterns, understand them and, as the person understand them, a change comes in a natural way and the person can develop healthier patterns of relation.
In this example, Hanna's therapist wants to help her recognize her mixed feelings for her husband and to realize she experienced the same kind of feelings for her brothers during her childhood. We can see that the therapist is focusing in Hanna's childhood and to make her realize how she's repeating patterns she had during her childhood, this is one of the main goals of psychodynamic therapy.
The integrative methodology in the early research of __________ formed the basis of today's developmental approach. Question 1 options:
a) Keith J. Bell and Paul M. Klenowski.
b) Eleanor Glueck and Sheldon Glueck.
c) Rolf Loeber and Marc LeBlanc.
d) Marvin Wolfgang and Terri Moffitt.
Answer:
B. Eleanor Glueck and Sheldon Glueck
Explanation:
The integrative methodology in the early research of Eleanor Glueck and Sheldon Glueck formed the basis of today's developmental approach.
An "establishing shot" is usually offered at the beginning of a sequence to provide a broad picture of the setting, so that the audience can get a feel for the environment in which the action of the scene occurs.
Answer:
The statement above is false.
Explanation:
An establishing shot can be described as a long shot which is made which is usually made from a distance. Hence, the statement above is false. An establishing shot is made so that the viewers get an idea of the location of the view of the shot. Generally, this shot is an aerial shot so that the location can be easily seen in a beautiful manner. This shot can be considered to be the heart of the scene. This shot is usually taken before the start of a scene.
Hence, the above statement is false.