The soccer team is selling tubs of cookie dough and brownie mix. Elaina raised $75 by selling one tub of cookie dough and five tubs of brownie mix. Megan raised $141 by selling three tubs of cookie dough and eight tubs of brownie mix. How much is a tub of brownie mix?

Answer:

2

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1:  Add the numbers together

1 + 1

2

Answer:  2

Answer:y=3x+6

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

First of all (3x + 50) is equal to (6x - 10) so (3x + 50) = (6x - 10) 3x + 50 = 6x - 10 60 = 3x 20 = x

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

(3x + 50)(6x + -10) = 0

Reorder the terms:

(50 + 3x)(6x + -10) = 0

Reorder the terms:

(50 + 3x)(-10 + 6x) = 0

Multiply (50 + 3x) * (-10 + 6x)

(50(-10 + 6x) + 3x * (-10 + 6x)) = 0

((-10 * 50 + 6x * 50) + 3x * (-10 + 6x)) = 0

((-500 + 300x) + 3x * (-10 + 6x)) = 0

(-500 + 300x + (-10 * 3x + 6x * 3x)) = 0

(-500 + 300x + (-30x + 18x2)) = 0

Combine like terms: 300x + -30x = 270x

(-500 + 270x + 18x2) = 0

Solving

-500 + 270x + 18x2 = 0

Solving for variable 'x'.

Factor out the Greatest Common Factor (GCF), '2'.

2(-250 + 135x + 9x2) = 0

Factor a trinomial.

2((-50 + -3x)(5 + -3x)) = 0

Answer:

X=8y-5

Step-by-step explanation:

Let y be the inverse of x+5/8

Y=x+5/8

Cross multiply

8y=x+5

Substrate 5 from both sides

8y-5=x

Therefore x=8y-5

Answer:

x = 1.2375 or 99/90

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1:  Distribute

21 + 40(2x - 3)

21 + 80x - 120

Step 2:  Combine like terms

21 + 80x - 120

80x - 99

Step 3:  Solve for x

80x - 99 + 99 = 0 + 99

80x / 80 = 99 / 80

x = 1.2375

Answer:  x = 1.2375 or 99/80

Answer: -99+80x

Step-by-step explanation:

remember to always use PEMDAS

First, Multiplacation

21+40(2x-3)

21+80x-120

then add 21 to 120

-99+80x

this is the farthest you can go hope i could help please mark brainliest!

Option B:

m∠C = 35°

Solution:

Given data:  

m(ar BD) = 30°  and m(ar AE) = 100°

To find the measure of angle C:  

We know that,

Angle formed by two intersecting secants outside the circle is equal to half of the difference between the intercepted arcs.

[tex]$m \angle C=\frac{1}{2}({arc} \ AE-{arc} \ BD)[/tex]

        [tex]$=\frac{1}{2}{( 100^\circ-30^\circ )[/tex]

        [tex]$=\frac{1}{2}\times {70^\circ[/tex]

       = 35°

m∠C = 35°

Option B is the correct answer.

The number of hours Maya worked babysitting and landscaping last week is 2.4 hours and 7.2 hours respectively

Given:

Earnings for babysitting = $7

my Earnings for landscaping = $11

Total earnings = $96

Iet

number of hours babysitting = x

number of hours landscaping = y

y = 3 × x

y = 3x (1)

y = 3x (1)7x + 11y = 96 (2)

substitute (1) into (2)

7x + 11y = 96 (2)

7x + 11(3x) = 96

7x + 33x = 96

40x = 96

x = 96/40

x = 2.4 hours

substitute x = 2.4 into (1)

y = 3x (1)

y = 3(2.4)

y = 7.2 hours

Therefore, the number of hours Maya worked babysitting and landscaping last week is 2.4 hours and 7.2 hours respectively

Learn more about equation:

https://brainly.com/question/4563555

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: Good question, ill answer in the comments

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

money problems

Step-by-step explanation:

let's say your in accounted and the most you've made a week is 150 the inequality would be

ñ<150

Answer:

the correct answer is 5.4

Answer:

this method is correct because of the PEMDAS

Step-by-step explanation:

The required sum of 7 and -9 is -2. Adding a negative number to a positive number results in a negative sum.

When adding the numbers 7 and -9, we follow the rules of addition with positive and negative numbers. To add a positive number and a negative number, we can think of it as subtraction. In this case, we have 7 + (-9), which is the same as 7 - 9.

To perform the addition, we subtract 9 from 7:

7 - 9 = -2

Therefore, the sum of 7 and -9 is -2. Adding a negative number to a positive number results in a negative sum. In this case, subtracting 9 from 7 gives us -2.

Learn more about sum here;

https://brainly.com/question/17684163

#SPJ6

After 2.0 years, the 4.0 mg sample decays to 2.0 mg.

After another 2.0 years (total 4.0 years), the 2.0 mg sample decays to 1.0 mg.

And after another 2.0 years (total 6.0 years), the 1.0 mg sample decays to 0.50 mg.

So it takes 6.0 years for 4.0 mg to decay to 0.50 mg.

It takes for a 4.0 mg sample of X to decay and have only 0.50 mg of it remain is 6 years.

It is the continuous disintegration of the matter by the emission of highly penetrating radiation associated with the nucleus.

Given

The half-life of isotope X is 2.0 years.

The half-life of isotope X is 2.0 years.

            Mass                                                 Time period

           4.0 mg                                                       0

           2.0 mg                                                       2

            1.0 mg                                                       4

           0.5 mg                                                       6

Thus, 6 years would it take for a 4.0 mg sample of X to decay and have only 0.50 mg of it remain.

More about the half-life link is given below.

https://brainly.com/question/24710827

Answer:

Kevin would be 50 and Sean would be 25

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming that there is no other information given,

and Kevin is twice as old as sean, and they gotta add up to 75 total

50 + 25 = 75

25x2 = 50

Hope this helped!

Answer:

Kevin is 50 and Sean is 25.

Step-by-step explanation:

Add 25 + 50 = 75

Multiply 25 x 2 = 50

Hope this helps

-Amelia The Unknown

Answer:

The GCF of 5, 6, and 8 would be 1.

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the GCF (Greatest Common Factor) of any amount on numbers, you would find the factors of the numbers and find which is the greatest one that they have in common.

To find the GCF of 5, 6, and 8, we must first find the factors of 5, 6, and 8.

Factors of 5:  1, 5

Factors of 6:  1, 2, 3, 6

Factors of 8:  1, 2, 4, 8

Now we found the factors of 5, 6, and 8. to find the GCF, we must now find which factors they have in common.

The factors 5, 6, and 8 have in common is 1. Since they have no other factors in common, 1 would be the GCF.

The GCF of 5, 6, and 8 would be 1.

I hope this helps. :)

Final answer:

The Greatest Common Factor (GCF) of the numbers 5, 6, and 8 is 1, as it is the only common factor among all the numbers.

Explanation:

The Greatest Common Factor (GCF) of the numbers 5, 6, and 8 is found by determining the largest number that divides each of the given numbers without leaving a remainder. To find the GCF, we can list the factors of each number:

Looking at the factors, 1 is the only number that is common to all three, making it the GCF.

Hence, the GCF of 5, 6, and 8 is 1. This methodically derived GCF encapsulates the common factor that unifies the numerical trio.

If a magazine contains thirteen pages, it means that the pages are numbered from 1 to 13. When you open the magazine to a random page, there are two possibilities for the page number: it can either be two or ten.

Page number in a magazine

In the context of a magazine, the page number refers to the physical numbering of the pages within the publication.

The page number is typically printed near the top or bottom of each page, allowing readers to navigate through the content.

In this case, if you randomly open the magazine to page two, you will find the content printed on that page. Similarly, if you randomly open the magazine to page ten, you will find different content printed on that page.

Answer:

Plug in the Quadratic formula

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]\displaystyle \frac{4r^2\pi }{9} \text{ cm}^3[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

      We will write an expression for the second cone's volume. Let r be equal to the radius of the first cone.

      The volume of a cone can be found with the following formula. Here, h is the height, r is the radius, and V is the volume.

             [tex]\displaystyle V=\frac{1}{3} \pi r^2h[/tex]

      We will substitute our given values and simplify.

             [tex]\displaystyle V=\frac{1}{3} \pi (\frac{1}{3}*r )^2(12)[/tex]

      Square.

             [tex]\displaystyle V=\frac{1}{3} \pi \frac{r^2}{9} (12)[/tex]

      Divide 12 by 3.

             [tex]\displaystyle V=\pi \frac{4r^2}{9}[/tex]

      Move π to the numerator.

             [tex]\displaystyle V=\frac{4r^2\pi }{9}[/tex]

The volume of the new cone, with the same height but one-third of the original radius, is represented by the expression (4 / 9)πr².

The volume of a cone is given by the formula V = (1/3)πr²h.

For a cone with a radius r and height 12 cm, its volume can be expressed as:

[tex]V = (\frac{1}{3})\pi r^2(12) = 4\pi r^2[/tex]

Now, consider a cone with the same height, but with 1/3 of the original radius. Let the new radius be (1/3)r. Using the volume formula again:

[tex]V = (\frac{1}{3})\pi (\frac{1}{3}r)^2(12) = (\frac{1}{3})\pi(\frac{1}{9}r^2)(12) = (\frac{12}{27})\pi r^2 = \frac{4}{9}\pi r^2.[/tex]

Thus, the expression for the volume of the new cone is (4 / 9) πr².

Yo sup??

the correct answer to this question is option B ie

low frequency and low energy because

it's wavelenght is high so it's frequency will be low and

E=hv

where v is frequency

Hope this helps

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that the system of equations [tex]y=-8x-6\hfill (1)[/tex] and

[tex]y=8x-6\hfill (2)[/tex] has exactly one solution

[tex]y=-8x-6[/tex]

[tex]y=8x-6[/tex]

______________

[tex]2y=0-12[/tex]

[tex]y=-\frac{12}{2}[/tex]

[tex]=-6[/tex]

[tex]-6=-8x-6[/tex]

[tex]-8x-6+6=0[/tex]

[tex]-8x+0=0[/tex]

[tex]-8x=0[/tex]

[tex]x=-\frac{0}{8}[/tex]

[tex]=0[/tex]

Therefore the value of x is x=0

Answer:

y=-8x-6 and

y=8x-6 has exactly one solution

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation: -4.5=a-8

1. add 8 to both sides -4.5+8= 3.5

2. since you added 8 to negative 8 you get zero so it just goes away

3. ANSWER= 3.5=a

Answer:

x = 1

Step-by-step explanation:

20-2 = 18, now -3x = 15

Answer:

48 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

1 in = 3 ft

144/3=48

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

VC = (1/3)·pi·r2·h

VC = volume of a cone

r = radius of base of cone = 6 cm

h = height

VC = (1/3)·pi·62·h

VC = 12·pi·h

VS = (4/3)·pi·r3

VS = volume of a sphere

r = radius of base of sphere = 3 cm

VS = (4/3)·pi·33

VS = 36·pi

Since the volume of the cone and the sphere are equal:

VC = VS

12·pi·h = 36·pi

Solve for h.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the function

[tex]f\left(x\right)=\frac{1}{2}\cdot 2^x[/tex]

[tex]\frac{1}{2}\cdot \:2^{-2}=\frac{1}{2}\cdot \frac{1}{4}=\frac{1}{8}[/tex]

so

(x, f(x)) will be (-2, 1/8)

[tex]\frac{1}{2}\cdot \:\:2^{-1}=\frac{1}{2}\cdot \:\frac{1}{2}=\frac{1}{4}[/tex]

so

(x, f(x)) will be (-1, 1/4)

[tex]\frac{1}{2}\cdot \:2^0=\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

so

(x, f(x)) will be (0, 1/2)

[tex]\frac{1}{2}\cdot \:\:2^1=2\cdot \:\frac{1}{2}=1[/tex]

so

(x, f(x)) will be (1, 1)

[tex]\frac{1}{2}\cdot \:\:2^2=4\cdot \:\frac{1}{2}=2[/tex]

so

(x, f(x)) will be (2, 2)

The graph is also attached below.

Answer:

2.36 in.

Step-by-step explanation:

1 foot is equivalent to 1/80 in.

So 189 feet is equivalent to 189/80 in = 2.36 in.

He will take the loan from Company B.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given,

For Company A

Principal (P) = Rs 75000

Time (T) = 2 years

Rate of interest (R) = 10%

For Company B

Principal (P) = Rs 75000

Time (T) = 2 years

Rate of interest (R) = 8%

To find the amount of the loan he has to pay for both the companies.

Formula

Amount =P [tex](1+\frac{R}{100} )^{T}[/tex]

Amount= P[tex](1+\frac{R}{100Xn} )^{nT}[/tex]

For Company A

Amount = 75000[tex](1+\frac{10}{100}) ^{2}[/tex] [ Here, P= 75000, T=2 and R = 10%]

= 194530 (approx)

For Company B

Amount = 75000([tex](1+\frac{8}{200} )^{4}[/tex] [ Here, P= 75000, T=2, n = 2 and R = 8%]

= 87739 (approx)

Hence,

He will take the loan from Company B, because he has to pay less money for this company.

The value of x is 4. So 40000 mg= 40 g.

Step-by-step explanation:

      The given is 40000mg = 10x g

Step:1

      Take given equation as equation (1)

                     40000 mg= 10x g.................(1)

      where, X is known value.

Step:2

      Standard value for mg to g for the purpose of conversion of units,

                      1 milligram = 0.001 gram   (or)

                      1 gram = 1000 milligram

Step:3

      From the standard data values,

                    = 40000 mg

      it converted mg to g by dividing 1000

                    = [tex]\frac{40000}{1000}[/tex] g

                    = 40 g.......................(2)

Step:4

       From the Equations (1) and (2),

                 40=10x

                  x=4

Result:

       The value of x is 4. So, 40000mg = 40 g.

Answer:

5/8

Step-by-step explanation:

1-3/8=5/8