Answer:
trained introspection
Explanation:
Introspection is an act of self-consciousness that involves thinking and analyzing your own thoughts and behaviors, being one of the defining characteristics of the human being. We are naturally curious about ourselves. We repeat our own experiences and actions in the hope of understanding who and how we are, but the term is also used to refer to an experimental technique that consists in analyzing our own thoughts and feelings in a structured and rigorous way. Therefore, when we talk about introspection, we can be talking about the informal process of reflecting on oneself or the formal method used in experimental research in psychology many years ago.
The first meaning of introspection is that most people are probably more familiar with. This is the process that involves informally examining our own inner feelings and thoughts. When we reflect on our thoughts, emotions and memories and examine what they mean, we are doing introspection.
The second meaning would be a research technique developed by Wilhelm Wundt, also known as experimental self-observation. This technique consisted of training people in the most systematic and objective way possible to analyze the content of their own thoughts.
Wilhelm Wundt used a method called introspection to analyze and describe conscious experiences, which was fundamental to his approach in psychology and laid the foundation for structuralism.
Explanation:The research method used by Wilhelm Wundt, whereby volunteers were trained to observe, analyze, and describe their own sensations, mental images, and emotional reactions, is known as introspection. This method, also referred to as "internal perception," is crucial for understanding Wundt's approach to psychology. Wundt, often considered the father of experimental psychology, utilized introspection to break down consciousness into its basic elements. He further believed in voluntarism, emphasizing that participants in psychological experiments should be aware of the intentions of such experiments. His work in structuralism laid the groundwork for subsequent psychological theories and methods.
The termination of a group produces the same reactions that characterize the termination of other significant relationships, including the feeling of being rejected.True / False.
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
Termination may be defined as the ending of something that might e a relationship or trust. Termination, its importance and effects has been well explained in psychology.
The termination from any thing or from a group can effect the mental health of an individual. The termination against the will of an individual can create the felling of being rejected and the feeling of not worth for the other person of the group.
Thus, the answer is true.
The health care provider has prescribed lidocaine with epinephrine for injection to be administered before obtaining a biopsy. The nurse would question the prescription after the patient makes which statement?
Answer:
"I am taking a new medicine for high blood pressure."
Explanation:
Lidocaine and epinephrine mixture dose is used to source numbness or loss of sensation for patients taking certain medical actions (by obstructive certain nerves by means of the brachial plexus, intercostal, lumbar, or epidural blocking techniques). Lidocaine and Epinephrine Vaccinations deliver an regular pulp anesthesia of at minimum 60 minutes with an normal period of soft tissue anesthesia of about 2.5 hours. The accumulation of epinephrine 5 micrograms/ml (1:200 000) as a vasoconstrictor to local anaesthetic results reduces systemic fascination and extends the anaesthetic result.
A female client with the beta-thalassemia trait plans to marry a man of Italian ancestry who also has the trait. Which client statement indicates that she understands the teaching provided by the nurse?
Answer: Two people with the beta-thalassaemia trait have a 25% chance of having a child with thalassaemia major, a potentially life-threatening disease
Beta-thalassemia is a genetic blood disorder resulting in smaller, less oxygen-carrying red blood cells. A person with a beta-thalassemia trait is a carrier with one normal and one faulty gene. If both parents are beta-thalassemia carriers, their children may have a 25% chance of having the disease, 50% chance of being a carrier, and a 25% chance of not inheriting the gene.
Explanation:In this context, the client demonstrating an understanding of the teachings provided by the nurse could potentially say: "If both my partner and I have the beta-thalassemia trait, there is a 25% chance our child will have beta-thalassemia disease."
Beta-thalassemia is a genetic disorder of the blood characterized by a mutation in the beta subunits of hemoglobin. This leads to the production of smaller red blood cells that carry less oxygen. When a person has the beta-thalassemia trait, it means they are a carrier and have one normal and one mutated beta-globin gene. As such, they generally don't exhibit symptoms of the disease and may not even realize they carry the gene until they have a child who has beta-thalassemia disease.
If two carriers of the trait have a child, there is a 25% chance that their child inherits the faulty gene from both parents, resulting in the child having beta-thalassemia disease, a 50% chance of the child being a carrier like the parents, and a 25% chance the child will not inherit the gene at all.
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A 15-year-old boy visits his primary care physician's office with fever, headache, and malaise, along with complaints of pain on chewing and pain in the jawline just in front of the ear lobe. The boy asks his mother to leave the exam room for a minute and then tells the nurse that he is also experiencing testicular pain and swelling. The nurse recognizes that this client most likely has which condition?
a) Infectious mononucleosisb) Poliomyelitisc) Herpes zosterd) Mumps
Answer:
The nurse recognizes that this client most likely has "Mumps"
Explanation:
Primary signs of mumps comprise fever, headache, anorexia, and malaise. Within 24 hours, discomfort on eating and an "earache" happens. Once the child ideas to the place of the earache, however, he points to the jawline just in visible of the ear lobe, the site of the parotid gland. By the next day, the gland seems inflamed and feels tender; the ear develops expatriate upward and backward. Boys may also grow testicular pain and inflammation (orchitis). None of the other conditions listed matches the symptoms indicated.
The nurse is caring for a patient who was prescribed bethanechol 1 month ago. Which statement made by the patient indicates the medication is effective?
Answer: That is when the patient state that he or she can now urinate with ease without any form of discomfort.
Explanation:
Bethanechol is used to treat urinary retention (difficulty urinating), which may occur after surgery, after delivering a baby, and in other situations. Bethanechol may also be used for purposes other than those listed in this medication guide.
Bethanechol is used to improve urine flow in patients suffering from urinary retention. A patient's statement indicating its effectiveness could involve affirming regular bathroom visits or mentioning no more trouble urinating.
Explanation:The medication, bethanechol, is a cholinergic drug which mainly is used to treat urinary retention. It works by stimulating the bladder muscle in order to improve urine flow. Thus, an effective outcome would be one that indicates an improvement in urinary symptoms. For example, a statement that would reflect effectiveness could be 'I don't have trouble urinating anymore' or 'I go to the bathroom regularly now'.
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The _________________ are the subjective and objective data that signal the existence of the actual or possible health problem.
Answer:
defining characteristics
Explanation:
The nursing diagnosis, also known as the defining characteristics, is the clinical judgment on the response of a person, family or community to health problems, real or potential, or to vital processes, which provide the basis for the selection of nursing interventions and the achievement of objectives for which the nurse is responsible.
It is characterized by:
- It is the exposition of a problem of the user
- It is a conclusion that is deduced
- It is based on subjective and objective data that can be verified.
- It is the exposition of a nursing trial
- It deals with issues that nurses are authorized to attend
- It deals with spiritual, physical, psychological and sociocultural aspects.
- It deals with situations that the nurse can attend independently.
Research participants preferred specific vacation destinations that they had simply imagined themselves experiencing. If the imagination process followed consumption of a drug that increased levels of _____, then ___________.
Answer:
Research participants preferred specific vacation destinations that they had simply imagined themselves experiencing. If the imagination process followed consumption of a drug that increased levels of dopamine,
Explanation:
Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that is related to pleasure, it influences decision making and it depends of chemeical reactions in the neurons.
This production of dopamine can be estimulated by drugs, since the production of dopamine brings pleasure, the preferences would be influenced by it.
Which statement should a nurse include when teaching a class on health promotion related to keeping cells healthy? Select all that apply.
Answer:
....
Explanation:
A 78 Y/O female was admitted with heart failure to the ICU from home. By day 3 of hospitalization, she had improved and was transferred to the medical cardiac unit. The pressure injury survey was conducted on day 4 of hospitalization and the survey team saw a Stage 1 area of persistent, nonblanchable redness on her right heel. Review of her hospital admission assessment record revealed that she had 4+ lower right leg edema and brown discoloration of the lower calf and ankle skin. A 2 cm by 4 cm wound with serous drainage also was also documented over her medial lower leg midpoint between her calf and ankle. The skin assessment documented on arrival to the medical cardiac unit noted a Stage 1 pressure injury at this site in addition to the wound, edema, and brown discoloration on her left lower leg as noted on the admission assessment. For the pressure injury survey, this would be reported as:__________
Answer:
A hospital acquired pressure injury only.
Explanation:
the pressure injury was not observed and documented in the admission assessment record. Since, the pressure injury is obtained after hospitalization, it is a hospital acquired injury. When the patient is admitted into the cardiac unit, the presence of Stage 1 pressure injury was documented which was already present on arrival to medical unit. Hence, the pressure injury is not cardiac unit acquired pressure injury. The admission assessment record does not contained information about the venous ulcer which the patient already had upon admission and this ulcer was in the same lower proximity as the pressure injury and this venous ulcer might have been the reason of this injury.
The nurse is reviewing the history and physical exam of a woman who has come to the clinic for a routine physical. Which factor would the nurse identify as increasing the client's risk for breast cancer?
Answer:
A lump or mass in the breast.
Swelling of all or part of the breast, even if no lump is felt.
Skin irritation or dimpling.
Breast or nipple pain.
Nipple retraction (turning inward)
The nipple or breast skin appears red, scaly, or thickened.
Nipple discharge.
The immigrant tenements in New York City lower east side had many challenges for Lillian Wald in giving nursing care. These challenges included: Over crowding, Insufficient lighting, No indoor plumbing TRUE or FALSE
Answer:
True
Explanation:
This statement is true that the immigrant tenements in New York City lower east side had many challenges for Lillian Wald in giving nursing care which includes Over crowding, Insufficient lighting and No indoor plumbing
How long can hives last when you're in a medical condition?
Answer:
Hours, weeks or months depending on the severity of the case.
Explanation:
Usually, out breaks may last for a few minutes, sometimes hours, and even several weeks to month but most individual hives doesn't stay up to twenty-four (24) hours. However, chronic hives last more than six weeks to several months or years.
Hives vary in duration depending on the cause and the individual, lasting from a few hours to several weeks. Treatments can help minimize their duration. A tested medication reduced hive presence to 12-20 adults in a batch of 200 after 30 minutes.
Explanation:The duration of hives can vary depending on the cause and the individual's health condition. Commonly, hives can disappear within 24 hours, but certain types can last for several days or even weeks.
However, there are variations as demonstrated in the example of Kerry, a 40-year-old woman, who experienced a rash persisting for 7 to 10 days each time. She had a health condition causing a rash developing whenever she spends time in the sun.
It's also important to note that tests for allergies, which can include hives, can show a reaction within 30 minutes.
Treatment can help reduce the duration and severity of hives. For instance, two types of medication for hives were tested and post 30 minutes of medication administration, 20 out of 200 adults given Medication A still had hives while only 12 out of 200 adults given Medication B had hives.
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A woman is told that her weight has a standard score ( z z ‑score) of − 1.5 . −1.5. This means that:
a. her weight is 1.5 standard deviations below average.
2. her weight is 1.5 pounds above average.
3. her weight is 1.5 pounds below average.
4. her weight is 1.5 standard deviations above average.
Answer:
a. her weight is 1.5 standard deviations below average
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
z score of the weight of the woman = - 1.5
Now,
The relation with the actual value and the z score is given as
x = Average + ( z × Standard deviation )
now,
substituting the value of z = - 1.5
We have
x = Average - 1.5 × Standard deviation
Hence,
z score = -1.5 means a. her weight is 1.5 standard deviations below average.
After teaching the pregnant woman about ways to minimize flatulence and bloating during pregnancy, which statement indicates the need for additional teaching?a) "I'll try to drink more fluids to help move things along."b) "I'll switch to chewing gum instead of using mints."c) "I'll increase my time spent on walking each day."d) "I'll stay away from foods like cabbage and brussels sprouts."
Answer:
d) "I'll stay away from foods like cabbage and brussels sprouts."
Explanation:
Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of hishead. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?
a."You must be under a lot of stress lately."
b."It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?"
c."The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism."
d."We’ll have to do some tests."
Answer:
The correct option is C) "The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism."
Explanation:
Alopecia areata can be described as an autoimmune disorder which is characterized by hair loss. For some people, only some hair might be lost in patches but for other people the hair loss might be severe. In severe conditions, all the hair from the head and even from the entire body can be lost. Alopecia areata is a common disorder and every one in five peoples experiencing the disorder also has another member of the family with the same disorder.
Sean Brown is a new care provider and has never before used Prime Suite. He is frustrated, and though you have been trying to help him, he is still having difficulty. What would be sound advice to give to Dr. Brown?
Answer:
The best advice to give would be to direct him to the PrimeSUITE User Guide and show him the index, content and search functionality
The early focus of nutrition research was on the ____. Group of answer choices
1. amount of nutrients that help prevent chronic diseases
2. type of nutrients that help prevent chronic diseases
3. prevention of heart disease
4. amount and type of nutrients needed to prevent deficiencies
Answer:
The early focus of nutrition research was on the 4. Amount and type of nutrients needed to prevent deficiencies.!
Explanation:
Nutrition research is relatively young. One of the first developments was the first vitamin isolated in 1926. During this period of time, research was focused on nutrient deficiency diseases. Researching in the field of non-communicable chronic diseases, like diabetes, obesity, Etc. is recent. All these changes obey to the health context and the common diseases of the different periods of time. Option 1, 2 and 3 are examples of these young area of research.
A researcher conducts a study to test whether attending weekly support groups decreases depressive symptoms. Based on this information only, is this an example of descriptive or analytic epidemiology?
Answer:
Based on the information given, that is an example of Analytic epidemiology.
Explanation:
While descriptive epidemiology generates hypothesis, goes deep into answering questions and try to develop the causes, patterns or factors that increase the risk of disease, analytic epidemiology test those hypothesis trying to anser WHY and how something OCCURS. In this case, this study is testing whether attending weekly support groups decreases depressive symptoms. The key feature of analytic epidemiology is a comparison group.
During the ________ stage of the general adaptation syndrome, intense arousal occurs as the body mobilizes internal physical resources to meet the demands of the stress-producing event.A) alarmB) resistanceC) plateauD) alert
Answer: Alarm stage
Explanation:
The alarm stage of the body involves the flight or fight response. When the body is exposed to the stress conditions, the typical reactions of the body is stimulated by the help of the hormones like epinephrine and nor epinephrine.
Epinephrine hormone helps in the transportation of the glucose and fatty acid molecules from the fatty cells.
Both of the above hormone helps in increasing the heart rate at the time of stress.
Due care and due diligence require that an organization make a valid effort to protect others and continually maintain this level of effort, ensuring these actions are effective.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
An organization is required to make a valid effort to show due care and due diligence towards its employees and other stakeholders so that they could limit their chances of liability in unethical and socially unacceptable scenarios. Due care steps are taken by an organization to draw a line between what is acceptable and what is unacceptable while dealing with employees. Due diligence is to create awareness about the consequences of unethical or illegal actions taken by management or employees.
Due Care and Due Diligence are essential business practices that involve reasonable efforts to prevent harm and conduct thorough investigations before taking actions, respectively. They apply across different domains, ranging from academia to corporate governance, and are often reinforced by legal requirements.
Explanation:Understanding Due Care and Due Diligence in Business Practices
Due care and due diligence are critical concepts in business and other organizational activities that denote the effort an organization must make to protect stakeholders and continually ensure the effectiveness of these efforts. Due care implies that an organization must act with a level of reasonable care while performing any acts that could foreseeably harm others. It encompasses a variety of responsibilities, from ensuring the safety of participants in a study to respecting human rights and exercising fair labor practices as highlighted by corporate governance strategies. Conversely, due diligence is the investigative process that precedes an action, such as assessing risks associated with business decisions or evaluating the qualifications of potential employees to fulfill their duties.
To contextualize, academia mandates informed consent for study participants, as a part of due care. Similarly, Open Educational Resources (OER) stewards strive to improve access through persistent effort and due care towards education. In the corporate realm, companies are expected to uphold human rights and ethical labor practices, showcasing their due diligence in governance. Legal frameworks also extend the notion of due diligence through laws such as truth-in-lending and Sarbanes-Oxley, mandating transparency and ethical corporate conduct.
What are some of the short‑term effects of alcohol?
Answer:
Depending on how much this individual has taken in and what type of physical condition they are in they can have the effects of:
slurred speechvomitingdrowsinessheadachesproblems breathingunconsciousnessblacknessnot being able to pay attentionHope this helps ;)
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Most grocery stores place the ________ along the inner aisles of the store.
freshest, healthiest foods
frozen and processed foods
dry, packaged goods
produce and dairy products
Most grocery stores place the dry, packaged goods along the inner aisles of the store.
Dry , Packaged Goods.Dry, packaged goods are typically grocery items such as grains, sugar, flour, and coffee, powdered milk, dried beans and peas, potatoes pasta, and rice etc.
These goods make up the majority of Grocery department and occupies the inner aisles of the store because it is a department in which almost every customers shops from.
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Grocery stores usually place frozen and processed foods, as well as dry, packaged goods along their inner aisles. Fresh produce and dairy are often put around the store's perimeters.
Explanation:Most grocery stores strategically position various types of products to maximize sales. Usually, frozen and processed foods as well as dry, packaged goods are placed along the inner aisles of the store, while perishable, fresh items like produce and dairy products are generally positioned on the outer perimeters of the store. This is meant to draw customers deeper into the store, where they may be more likely to make additional purchases.
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The theory stating that behaviors are motivated by an organism's attempts to reduce tension from conditions such as hunger or thirst, and return the body to a state of balance, is called ________ theory.a. drive-reduction
b. homeostatic
c. needs
d. disequilibrium
Answer: a) drive-reduction
Explanation: Homeostasis is basically the body's need to maintain stability necessary for survival despite changes in the world outside. It is the body's unconscious tendency to maintain internal states (temperature, sleep, thirst, hunger) at stable levels.
Drive-reduction theory, which is a major theory of motivation, suggests that when there is an Homeostatic imbalance, needs are created, people perform actions (i.e their behaviour changes) to restore the body's ideal state, because of the need to restore balance.
The theory explaining behavior as attempts to reduce physiological tension and achieve homeostasis is called the drive-reduction theory.
Explanation:The theory that states behaviors are motivated by an organism's attempts to reduce tension from conditions such as hunger or thirst, and return the body to a state of balance, is called the drive-reduction theory. This theory posits that deviations from homeostasis create physiological needs, leading to psychological drive states that direct behavior to meet these needs and, ultimately, return the system back to homeostasis. For instance, hunger drives an organism to seek food, thereby reducing the drive once homeostasis is achieved.
General hospitals are also known as ______. a. Unselected health maintenance organizations b. Unselected long-term care facilities c. Unselected acute care hospitals d. Unselected transitional care facilities
Answer:
Acute care Hospitals
Explanation:
Dr. Jenkins uses the Diagnostic Interview Scale, which is a published interview schedule, to help her diagnose posttraumatic stress disorder. Each of the following statements is true EXCEPT that the questions:
a. can be used with all clientsb. are mostly specificc. are preparedd. reflect the clinician's theoretical orientation
Answer:
-Reflect the clinician's theoretical orientation
Explanation:
Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) symptom scale interview is an interview semi structured with 17 items for assessment and proper diagnosis.
Respondents with a known traumatic history identify a single traumatic event that causes the most current stress.
It can be used with all clients hence option a is excluded.
they are mostly specific so option b is also excluded.
They are prepared, so 3rd option is also excluded.
They don't reflect the clinician's theoretical orientation.
Hence the last option reflect the clinician's theoretical orientation is the right answer
Celia spends a good deal of her time worrying, is easily fatigued, and often has difficulty concentrating, which is affecting her grades. Her symptoms may characterize:_________.
Jennifer and Nate are seeing Dr. Becker for their marital issues. Neither one of them has a psychological disorder, but they are interested in strengthening their relationship. Dr. Becker is most likely a _________ psychologist.a. social
b. developmental
c. clinical
d. counseling
Answer:
The correct option is D: Counseling Psychologist
Explanation:
Counseling Psychology is referred to an applied psychology aimed at helping people to gain absolute control of their feelings. A counseling Psychologist is simply a practitioner who helps people make changes in the manner of thinking, behaving, and feeling, without being judgmental. Jennifer and Nate needs a counseling Psychologist to help them keep their feelings in check. Marital issues are as a result of a death in feelings of a partner and the best person to handle this is a counseling psychologist.
The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services advises exclusive breast feeding for the first _______ and inclusion of breast milk in the baby's diet until at least ________.
A) 6 weeks; 6 months.
B) 4 months; 6 months.
C) 6 months; 1 year.
D) 1 year; 2 years.
Answer:
C) The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services advises exclusive breast feeding for the first 6 months and inclusion of breast milk in the baby's diet until at least 1 year.
Explanation:
When it comes to breastfeeding, breast milk is the best option for the new born baby, It provides not only all the nutrients needed to grow healthy and the development of every part of their bodies, but also is the best protection, reducing the risk of having allergies, asthma, diarrhea and many infections and deseases. This is due to the fact that Breast milk provides Immunoglobulines which play an essential role in the baby's inmunity. During these first 6 months, breast milk is much more easy to digest than formula, though they have made huge improvements. After those first 6 months, the baby is ready to include some vegetables, cereals, fruits and water while the still drink breast milk too.
You come upon a child who has collapsed. The child is not breathing normally and does not have a pulse. You are alone and have no immediate access to a phone or other form of communication. Which action would you do first?
Final answer:
When you find a child collapsed without a pulse and not breathing normally, you should immediately start CPR, if you are trained, and seek emergency help at the first opportunity.
Explanation:
Immediate Action for a Collapsed Child
When you come upon a child who has collapsed and is not breathing normally and does not have a pulse, the first action to take, especially if you are alone without immediate access to communication, is to start Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR). Before initiating CPR, ensure that the area is safe for both you and the child. Once safety is confirmed, begin with chest compressions immediately. If you are trained in providing rescue breaths and feel competent to do so, include them in the CPR sequence. Otherwise, performing hands-only CPR is still beneficial. The goal is to artificially circulate blood and oxygen to vital organs until proper medical help can be obtained. After two minutes of CPR, if there is no response and if it's an option, quickly look for help or a phone to call emergency services, then return to the child and continue CPR.
If the child was found submerged in water, remove them from the water first before starting CPR as performing CPR in water is ineffective. In the case of a choking child, if conscious, administer back blows and the Heimlich maneuver if you are trained. For an infant, follow proper choking protocol, which involves turning the baby upside down and giving back slaps. Remember, fast action and proper technique are critical for increasing the chances of survival.
A client exhibits knee instability while performing ball squats. Which of the following should a fitness professional suggest to the client to reduce the discomfort?
Answer:
Decrease the range of motion involved in the exercise.
Explanation:
A ball squats activity is the dorsoflexion of ankle and contraction of muscles around the joint to produce maximal contraction. People who have an unstable knee shall not perform ball squat in depth and shall decrease the range of motion. These people with knee instability shall have a knee flexion restricted to 50-60° so that shear forces applied on posterior joints are minimized.