I would go with anaplasia.
Answer:
Anaplasia
Explanation:
Anaplasia refers to the loss of cell differentiation, which occurs when cells that were previously mature and differentiated become undifferentiated and immature in appearance and behavior. Anaplasia is a fundamental point for the emergence of malignant diseases. Anaplasia is characterized by:
Cellular Pleomorphism: variation of shape and size of cells and their nuclei. Hyperchromasia: very dark colored nuclei. Abundant Mitoses: Indicates Proliferative Activity Polarity Loss: Formation of tumor masses that grow in an unorganized manner. Giant Tumor Cells: They have only one huge single polymorphic nucleus, with two or more nuclei. (Not to be confused with foreign body giant cells or inflammatory Langhans cells)What makes pelicans and penguins different?
a. pelicans are flightless birds.
b. pelicans spend about three-quarters of their lives in the water.
c. penguins have large bills with a loose and elastic pouch.
d. penguins have wings shaped for swimming.
D penguins have wings shaped for swimming
Answer:
Penguins have wings shaped for swimming
Explanation:
got it right on the exam
Which of the following combinations correctly matches a phylum to its description?
Platyhelminthes – radial symmetry, polyp and medusa body forms
Echinodermata – bilateral symmetry as a larva, water vascular system
Cnidaria – flatworms, gastrovascular cavity, acoelomate
Nematoda – segmented worms, closed circulatory system
Answer:
Echinodermata – bilateral symmetry as a larva, water vascular system
Explanation:
Echinodermata are marine animals that include groups such as sea stars, sea urchins, sand dollars, sea cucumbers, and sea lilies. As adults they have radial symmetry, usually five point radial symmetry. One of their unique characteristic is water vascular system which consists of a network of fluid-filled canals involved in gas exchange, feeding, sensory reception and locomotion. Their digestive and nervous systems are very simple.
The study of animals is called zoology.
The correct answer to the question is option B which is Echinodermata – bilateral symmetry as a larva, water vascular system.
What is bilateral symmetry?When a species has two equal halves when it cut through the specific plane is called bilateral symmetry.
According to the question, the Echinodermata has bilateral symmetry and consists of a water vascular system that helps to move in any direction.
An example of the Echinodermata is starfish.
Hence, the correct answer to the question is option B.
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Which of the following chordates is most likely to look least like other chordates?
a. adult tunicate b. lancelet c. embryonic human d. larval tunicate e. adult human
Adult tunicates is most likely to look least like other chordates.
What is Adult tunicates?Sea squirts are another name for tunicates. Simple creatures are adult tunicates. They resemble a barrel-shaped bag with two siphons or apertures through which water flows. They use one siphon to suck water into their bodies, filter out food like plankton, and then use the second siphon to discharge the leftover water.
Tunicates remain affixed to a stationary object, such as a rock, throughout adulthood. Tunicates resemble little tadpoles while they are in the larval stage. They are capable of swimming and possess the notochord, dorsal nerve cord, and pharyngeal slits of chordates.
Tunicates develop a sticky material as they get older, which helps them stick to rocks or other fixed surfaces. Its body absorbs all of the structures in the area once they are linked to a surface.
Therefore, Adult tunicates is most likely to look least like other chordates.
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Which statement is correct concerning the relationship between chromosomes and genes, chromatin, or sister chromatids?
Genes are the DNA - protein material that make up entire chromosomes.
Each unreplicated chromosome consists of two sister chromatids.
Each replicated chromosome consists of two sister chromatids.
Chromatin is a length of DNA in a chromosome that codes for a protein or RNA.
The correct answer is: Each replicated chromosome consists of two sister chromatids.
Mitosis is the cell division of somatic cells (all cells except gametes) in which mother cell produce two identical daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes as she had.
During the S phase of interphase, replication occurs and the genetic material of a cell is duplicated. There are still the same number of chromosomes (e.g. in humans 46) but they exist in a X shape structure-two sister chromatids (genetically identical). So, there are 46 chromosomes, but 92 chromatids. Sister chromatids separate during the anaphase of mitosis and each chromatid is then considered a separate, individual chromosome. After division and cytokinesis, the normal chromosome number is restored to the cell.
All energy in any ecosystem starts as A) carbohydrates. B) electricity. C) sunlight. D) water.
the answer would be C, sunlight
Answer:
The correct answer is option C. sunlight.
Explanation:
The Sun is the main source of energy for organisms, as the light energy or solar energy, the ecosystems.
Producers are autotrophs such as plants, and algae use the energy from solar light to make organic matter from water and carbon dioxide through the process of photosynthesis.
Hence, this establishes the initiating of energy flow through almost all ecosystems and food web.
Thus, the correct answer is option C. sunlight.
The binding of the neurotransmitter to receptors on the motor end plate causes which of the following to occur?
Binding causes voltageÂgated sodium channels to open in the motor end plate (junctional folds of the sarcolemma) and sodium enters the cell.
Binding causes chemically gated potassium channels to open in the motor end plate (junctional folds of the sarcolemma) and potassium enters the cell.
Binding of the neurotransmitter causes chemically gated sodium channels to open in the motor end plate (junctional folds of the sarcolemma) and sodium enters the cell.
Binding causes potassium voltageÂgated channels to open in the motor end plate (junctional folds of the sarcolemma) and potassium enters the cell.
The correct answer is: Binding of the neurotransmitter causes chemically gated sodium channels to open in the motor end plate (junctional folds of the sarcolemma) and sodium enters the cell.
Action potential travels through the membrane of the presynaptic cell causing the voltage-gated channels permeable to calcium ions to open. Ca2+ flow through the presynaptic membrane and increase the Ca concentration in the cell which will activate proteins attached to vesicles that contain a neurotransmitter (e.g. acetylcholine). Vesicles fuse with the membrane of the presynaptic cell, thereby release their contents into the synaptic cleft-space between the membranes of the pre- and postsynaptic cells. Neurotransmitter ACh binds to its receptors on the postsynaptic membrane and its binding causes depolarization of the target cell (muscle cell). Depolarization occurs because sodium enters the cell as a result of neurotransmitter receptor binding.
Populations of _________ live in the human large intestine. These benficial organisms help make certain vitamins and digest polysaccharides.
Food live in the human large intestine
Populations of bacteria live in the human large intestine. These beneficial organisms help make certain vitamins and digest polyacrylamide.
So the answer is bacteria .
Hope this helps!! :)
On a camping trip, eleni accidentally steps on a hot coal from the campfire. upon touching the coal, her foot reflexively withdraws from the coal. what is the sequence of response in eleni's neurons?
sensory neuron-inter-neuron
Final answer:
The withdrawal reflex that caused Eleni to retract her foot utilizes a reflex arc, starting with nociceptors detecting high temperature and culminating in the contraction of muscles leading to foot withdrawal, without the need for brain input.
Explanation:
The Sequence of Response in Neurons During the Withdrawal Reflex
When Eleni accidentally steps on a hot coal and her foot reflexively withdraws, this is an example of the withdrawal reflex. The sequence of response in the neurons involves the following steps:
High temperature is sensed by nociceptors in the skin of Eleni's foot, which are specialized sensory receptors for detecting painful stimuli.These receptors initiate a nerve impulse that is carried by sensory neurons to the spinal cord.Within the spinal cord, the impulse is transferred to interneurons, which process the information.The interneurons then synapse with motor neurons, which send the impulse out to the muscles in Eleni's foot.The muscles affected, such as the tibialis anterior, contract, causing dorsiflexion of the foot - this is the motor response that leads to the withdrawal of the foot from the hot coal.Inhibition of opposing muscles, like the gastrocnemius and soleus, prevents further plantar flexion and potential injury.What is a potential negative consequence of using genetically engineered medicine
gene markers resistant to antibiotics can lead to a increased risk in humans developing a resistance to an antibiotic.
Answer:
The genetically engineered medicines could lead to an unforeseen threat to the environment, that is, the biggest challenge is the capriciousness of the genetically engineered species. For example, a modified vaccine or virus may recombine its DNA with those of the naturally occurring species. The outcomes could have random features and may result in a threat of health hazards like antibiotic resistance or epidemics.
Which form of reproduction results in the highest degree of genetic variation among offspring?
The correct answer is: sexual reproduction
Sources of genetic variation are different:
• Genetic mutations-random and rare events that occur within the genome and contribute to variations among individuals (or population). Mutations might be neutral, harmful or beneficial when they form new alleles favored by natural selection.
• Crossing over (genetic recombination)-event that occur during the meiosis (cell division that creates gametes)
• Random segregation during meiosis
• Random fertilization
• External source such as transposable genetic elements or retroviruses.
The immune response requires a team effort. How do the specific and non-specific defenses work together? EXPLAIN YOUR ANSWER.
A non-specific immune response (also called immunity) is antigen-independent while a specific immune response is antigen-dependent. The examples of the non-specific immunity are fever, phagocytosis by macrophages, skin and mucus. The example of the specific immune response is cytotoxic T-cells able to recognize antigens on infected cells and kill them before the infection could spread.
where would a mutation need to occur for it to be passed onto offspring
reproductive cells like eggs and sperm
During a laboratory investigation, biology students were asked to classify organisms on prepared slides as either eukaryotes or prokaryotes. Which of the following features should the students be able to observe in BOTH types of cells?
Question 1 options:
ribosomes
mitochondria
nucleus
Golgi apparatus
Answer:
Ribosome
Explanation:
A prokaryotic cell is a primitive cell and it lacks membrane bound organelles. One major cell structure that distinguish both cell types is the nucleus.
Eukaryotic cells have nucleus whereas prokaryotes lacks them.
Ribosome, the site of synthesis of protein can be found in both cell types.
Sylvia's name means "forest." how does this aid in her characterization?
it aids her because it is part of her name and it is helping her by letting her know that she is one of a kind
If you have type O blood, what your possible genotypes?
Their genotype is either AA or AO
Simon is a 35-year-old lawyer who works in a large law firm in New York City. He’s noticed that since he turned 30, his body seems to need more time on average to recuperate from illnesses. To top it off, since he started working at the firm about two years ago, he has seemed vulnerable to catching every infectious illness that his co-workers come down with – from a little cold to a full-blown flu. Simon always seems to be coughing, sniffling, and fighting fatigue. He’s also recently developed a skin condition on his face that looks greasy and flaky, and feels irritable most of the time. Although he considers his diet pretty healthy and his lifestyle relatively active, Simon is now thinking of taking vitamin supplements. Do you think Simon might need supplements? If so, which one(s)? 1. Simon learns that supplementing with water-soluble vitamins is potentially safer (compared to fat-soluble varieties) because they aren't stored in the body for as long, which reduces their ability to cause a toxicity. Which vitamin is water soluble? a. vitamin A b. vitamin K c. vitamin E d. vitamin D e. vitamin C
The answer is c because they are easily destroyed and washed away during food storage preparation
Answer: Vitamin C is Water Soluble Vitamin
Explanation: Water soluble vitamins include vitamin B complex group and Vitamin C.
Vitamin B complex group includes the following:
o Thiamine (B1)
o Riboflavin (B2)
o Niacin (B3)
o Pantothenic acid (B5)
o Pyridoxine (B6)
o Folic acid (B9)
o Biotin
o Cobalamin (B12)
Vitamin B complex members are grouped together because, often, they are found together in the same food with the exception of vitamin B12
Some common properties of water soluble vitamins are:
o They are readily absorbed from intestine and excreted in urine.
They are not stored like fat soluble vitamins and so do not cause toxicity. However vitamin B₁₂ is stored in body.
o Their dietary intake is needed on a regular basis.
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How is hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen affected by the presence or absence of oxygen? rank hemoglobin molecules with the described conditions from most likely to bind oxygen molecules to most likely to release oxygen molecules. (for help approaching this problem, open hint 1.)?
In order from the most likely to bind an oxygen to least likely;
3 bound o2, po2=100mmhg1 bound o2, po2=100mmhg3 bound o2, po2=40mmhg1 bound o2, po2=40mmhg
Explanation;Haemoglobin is more likely to bind oxygen if its other oxygen binding sites have already bound to an oxygen molecule. The higher the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood also makes it more likely that the hemoglobin will bind oxygen.Hemoglobin is a protein-rich in iron that has an affinity (combining ability) to oxygen and with oxygen, it forms oxyhemoglobin in red blood cells. The amount of hemoglobin in normal blood is 15 grams per 100 ml of blood, and the hour is usually called "100 percent".
Further ExplanationHemoglobin is a substance found in red blood cells. Hemoglobin is actually a globular protein in the form of 4 subunits, and each subunit contains hame.
Hemoglobin plays an important role in oxygen transport as long as it can re-bind oxygen. Hemoglobin tends to bind oxygen when the environment is full of oxygen and releases oxygen in a relatively low oxygen environment. This means hemoglobin takes oxygen in the lungs and releases it to tissues such as active muscle. In people who have normal hemoglobin, the capacity of the blood carries about 20 mL of oxygen per 100 mL of oxygen. In almost all situations, blood contains a lot of oxygen as it moves through the lungs.
Hemoglobin is carried by circulating red blood cells (erythrocytes). This circulation rotates for about 10 days containing approximately 3 x 10 red blood cells. A rough estimate of blood hemoglobin levels can be obtained from the amount of hematocrit or from the amount of blood by consuming each red blood cell that has normal hemoglobin
The heat produced by the metabolism reaction of muscle contractions releases a lot of acid & heat causes the body temperature to rise and the active cells need a lot of O2 to spur the release of O2 from OxyHb (Hb affinity towards O2 decreases) the curve shifts to the right.
Hypothermia causes slow cell metabolism so that the O2 needed by the tissue to release a small amount of O2 from Hb is also slow (Hb affinity for O2 decreases) and the hemoglobin oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the left.
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Class: High School
Subject: Biology
Keywords: hemoglobin, affinity, oxygen
The gene for curled ears (C) is dominant over the gene for straight ears (c). What percent of the offspring would be expected to have curled ears as a result of a cross between a heterozygous cat (Cc) and a straight eared cat (cc) ? 100% 75% 50% 25%
you can find your answer by making a punnet square, but the correct answer is 50%
The percent of the offspring with curled ears as a result of a mating between Cc x cc is 50%.
What is a Punnett square?A Punnett square is a graphical representation of the gametic combinations after a genetic mating.
The Punnett square can be useful to obtain the genotypic and phenotypic proportions from a cross.In conclusion, the percent of the offspring with curled ears as a result of a mating between Cc x cc is 50%.
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What does the right hemisphere of the brain control?
Answer:
The right hemisphere controls the left side of the body and our creativity.
Explanation:
The right hemisphere coordinates the left side of the body, and performs tasks that have do with creativity and the arts.
The left side of the brain is responsible for controlling the right side of the body and controls the way we think logically.
The right hemisphere of the brain primarily controls the left side of the body and is often associated with spatial and nonverbal reasoning. It's important to note, however, that the brain functions as a whole unit and most functions are distributed globally around the cerebrum.
Explanation:The right hemisphere of the brain primarily controls the left side of the body. It plays a significant role in spatial and nonverbal reasoning, arousal, negative emotions, and pitch perception. Language processing, a task typically associated with the left hemisphere, can cross over to the right hemisphere via the corpus callosum, which bridges the two hemispheres together.
While the left hemisphere tends to be dominant in language functions in about 95% of the population, it must be noted that the brain functions as a whole and most of its functions are globally distributed. Misconceptions of people being 'right-brained' or 'left-brained' oversimplify the complex nature of the cerebral hemispheres.
In certain cases of intractable epilepsy, the corpus callosum is surgically severed as a treatment option, resulting in 'split-brain' patients. These patients highlight the roles of the individual hemispheres as we observe their behaviors and abilities post-surgery.
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Cellular respiration produces ______ from ________. organic molecules are a source of ______ energy that cellular respiration transfers into _____ and transforms into _____. carbon dioxide and water; oxygen and sunlight; kinetic; usable chemical energy in the form of glucose; heat energy that the cell can use to do work carbon dioxide and water; organic molecules and oxygen; chemical potential; usable chemical energy in the form of atp; heat energy that cannot do work glucose and oxygen; carbon dioxide and water; chemical potential; usable chemical energy in the form of atp; heat energy that cannot do work
Cellular respiration produces ATP from organic molecules (such as sugars) and oxygen. The process transforms the energy in these molecules into a usable form that cells can use to perform work, with carbon dioxide and water being byproducts of this process.
Explanation:Cellular respiration produces ATP from organic molecules and oxygen. Organic molecules such as sugars are sources of chemical potential energy which cellular respiration transfers into usable chemical energy, in the form of ATP, and transforms into heat energy. Cellular respiration is primarily achieved through glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation. This process oxidizes glucose molecules to create ATP. It is part of a biological cycle, functioning in harmony with photosynthesis, to allow organisms to access life-sustaining energy.
Energy in ATP molecules is easily accessible and cells use it to perform various forms of work including building complex molecules, transporting materials, and powering different motions. Carbon dioxide and water are byproducts of this process rather than waste products, as they are often used in other biological reactions.
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The region known as the macula densa is part of
The region known as the macula densa is part of excretory system.
More precisely, macula densa is a structure located in the kidney, in the wall of the distal tubule. The macula densa is composed of tightly packed specialized cells on the place where the distal tubule touches the glomerulus.
The role of this structure is to detect changes in concentration of sodium chloride and to send a signal to the afferent arterioles (to change blood pressure) or to the juxtaglomerular cells (renin release).
The macula densa is a group of cells located in the Distal Convoluted Tubule of the kidney that play a pivotal role in maintaining the body's sodium balance.
Explanation:The region known as the macula densa is a group of cells that is a part of the kidney's structure. Specifically, it's located in the part of the Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT) that forms the Juxtaglomerular Apparatus (JGA). These cells play a vital role in regulating the body's balance of sodium ions. When triggered by certain hormones due to changes in sodium concentration, blood volume, or blood pressure, macula densa cells can communicate rapidly with afferent and efferent arterioles. Depending on the signal, these arterioles can constrict or relax to alter the glomerular filtration rate which in turn affects the balance of sodium ions and overall kidney function.
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Water is extracted from digested food in the body primarily by the
the large intestine primarily
Which of the following statements is NOT true about gamete formation in mammals?A. Only one of the four cells resulting from meiosis goes on to become an oocyte.B. In the female, the separation of cytoplasm is unequal during meiosis.C. The polar bodies formed during meiosis in the female can participate in fertilization with sperm.D. Only one of the four cells resulting from meiosis goes on to become an egg, which becomes a zygote upon fertilization by a sperm cell.E. The cytoplasm is diminished during development of sperm, and a flagellum is formed to give sperm locomotion.
thanks again and again I will give it to you
The statement that polar bodies can participate in fertilization with sperm is not true. In oogenesis, polar bodies are reabsorbed and do not engage in fertilization. Spermatogenesis results in mature sperm cells with locomotion for fertilization, while oogenesis yields one viable ovum that can form a zygote upon fertilization.
Explanation:Among the given statements about gamete formation in mammals, the one that is NOT true is C. The polar bodies formed during meiosis in the female can participate in fertilization with sperm. During oogenesis, the unequal division of cytoplasm results in the creation of one large ovum and smaller polar bodies. These polar bodies do not participate in fertilization and are eventually broken down and reabsorbed by the body.
In contrast, spermatogenesis results in four haploid spermatids from a primary spermatocyte, each going on to form a mature sperm cell capable of fertilization. The mature sperm cells are characterized by a compact head and a flagellum providing locomotion, which is essential for reaching and fertilizing the ovum.
When fertilization does occur, the secondary oocyte completes meiosis II, giving rise to a viable ovum and a second polar body, which also does not participate in fertilization. The fusion of sperm and the mature ovum forms a zygote with the necessary genetic material to develop into a new organism.
What Mineral Property that is very easy to observe but is one of the most unreliable to use for identification?
A) Luster
B) Color
C) Hardness
D) Streak
E) Cleavage
The answer, I believe, is B, Color
Which of the following is not true about viruses
The answer is:
A. They do NOT reproduce on their own without hosts.
Hope this helps!
The answer is A - They reproduce on their own w/out hosts
they can only replicate
please help me with this question
image attached
ur answer is gametophyte
Suppose a mutation occurs in the gene encoding eukaryotic rna polymerase i, ii, or iii that renders that polymerase non-functional. match each rna polymerase mutation with all of the cellular processes that it would disrupt.
RNA polymerase (green) creates RNA by adhering to a DNA strand.An enzyme called RNA polymerase is in charge of converting a DNA sequence into an RNA sequence during transcription.
What is the function of a polymerase?
Three distinct RNA polymerases (RNAPs), which transcribe various kinds of genes, are present in all eukaryotes.RRNA genes are transcribed by RNA polymerase I, mRNA, miRNA, snRNA, and snoRNA genes are transcribed by RNA polymerase II, while tRNA and 5S rRNA genes are transcribed by RNA polymerase III.The genes that encode the structural RNAs for the ribosome subunits are translated by RNA polymerase I.A fraction of short RNAs as well as the genes that encode proteins are both transcribed by RNA polymerase II. The crucial enzyme responsible for converting the genetic data stored in DNA to RNA is known as RNA polymerase (RNAP). Three distinct RNA polymerases (RNAPs), which transcribe various kinds of genes, are present in all eukaryotes.RRNA genes are transcribed by RNA polymerase I, mRNA, miRNA, snRNA, and snoRNA genes are transcribed by RNA polymerase II, while tRNA and 5S rRNA genes are transcribed by RNA polymerase III. Separate RNA polymerases are present in chloroplasts and mitochondria, where they specifically transcribe the DNAs of those organelles. These RNA polymerases are comparable to bacterial RNA polymerases. Two enzymes that function on DNA are DNA polymerase and RNA polymerase.The enzyme used in DNA replication is called DNA polymerase, whereas the enzyme utilized in transcription is called RNA polymerase.Phosphodiester linkages can be created by both enzymes between nucleotides.5' to 3' is the range in which polymerization occurs. Primases, specialized enzymes, are often responsible for producing the RNA primers needed for DNA replication.However, several replication systems have developed to synthesize primers using cellular DNA-dependent RNA polymerase. DNA polymerase I is a protein that aids in bridging DNA gaps created during DNA replication, repair, and recombination. DNA polymerase is an enzyme that breaks down DNA.The leading strand will no longer replicate if DNA polymerase I is not active. Pseudogenes are alleles of healthy genes that have developed mutations that have rendered them non-functional. For instance, the protein coding region may have an early stop codon, a frameshift mutation, an internal deletion, or an internal insertion as compared to the healthy sequence. DNA polymerases' major function is to efficiently and properly replicate the genome in order to maintain the genetic code and ensure that it is faithfully passed down through the generations.
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Defects in RNA polymerase I can be inferred if there's decreased nucleolar activity, unchanged mRNA and tRNA levels, and insensitivity to alpha-amanitin because this polymerase is responsible for rRNA synthesis which is essential for ribosome function and protein synthesis.
If a scientist observes that a cell has an RNA polymerase deficiency preventing it from making proteins, three additional observations that would support the conclusion that a defect in RNA polymerase I activity, rather than the other polymerases, are causing the defect could be:
Observation of a decrease in the nucleolar size or activity, because RNA polymerase I is primarily found in the nucleolus and is responsible for synthesizing most of the rRNAs.Detection of normal levels of mRNA and tRNA transcription, suggesting that RNA polymerase II and RNA polymerase III are functioning correctly, as these polymerases transcribe protein-coding genes and tRNA respectively.The cell's insensitivity to the toxin alpha-amanitin, as RNA polymerase I is insensitive to this toxin, while RNA polymerase II is highly sensitive, and RNA polymerase III has moderate sensitivity.Together, these observations would point towards a malfunction in RNA polymerase I as the cause of the protein synthesis deficiency.
TRUE OR FALSE
1. Oxygen is absorbed into the bloodstream in the trachea?
2. The bronchial tubes branch off from the trachea like an upside-down letter Y.
1) False. Oxygen is absorbed in the alveoli of the lungs
2) True. The bronchial tubes branch off into the lungs which then branch off into the smaller bronchi and even smaller bronchioles.
Which transformation of energy takes place when a slingshot launches a stone
The large surface area in the gut directly facilitates _____.A) secretionB) absorptionC) filtrationD) temperature regulation
D) temperature regulation