The evidence of a major microbial decomposition
Explanation:
Answer: The evidence of a major microbial decomposition.
Explanation:
Therefor, your answer is The PMI of a deeply buried body should show evidence of major microbial decomposition.
* Hopefully this helps:) Mark me the brainliest:)!!!
there aren't health risks with any yoga positions or forms
Answer:
If your asking for a true or false question, then the answer is false.
Explanation:
Hope i helped you!
Answer: False
Explanation:
There are chances that the person might get hurt from the yoga postures. This is possible in cases where the person has no idea of the posture and he is performing it in a wrong way.
The yoga should always be performed in a proper manner so that the person might not get hurt by it but should get influenced from it.
If performed in a correct way it is very good for the body but if the posture is not right it can hurt the person.
Anna is a CNA who has been leaning over doing bed baths on patients who cannot move in their bed. After two hours, Anna has a backache. Which body mechanics principle was she likely violating?
A. Breathe properly when exerting energy
B. Use the largest and strongest muscles and joints
C. Keeping her body over her base of support
D. Proper alignment
Answer: D, because she was leaning over for too long then she is used to
Explanation:
Plz answer!
What is the term for gases that are released into the air by cars, contributing to air pollution? A. fossil fuels B. smog C. automobile emissions D. none of the above
Hello! :)
I really think it is none of the above since gasoline is really the one that produces the smoke from vehicles such as cars and contributes to air pollution.
Hope this helped!
Good luck!
~ Destiny ^_^
Answer:
B. Smog
Explanation:
Which of the following is the most appropriate container for disposing of sharps? A. a specially designed and labeled bin specifically for sharps B. a store-bought plastic container C. the wastebasket D. a lead container
the required minimum cooking temperature for ground beef is 155 why must ground beef be cooked to this temperature
Answer:
Because ground beef have more thicker layer than meat.So, we need to use 155 temperature to make sure the beef is cooked
Ground beef should be cooked to a minimum temperature of 155 degrees Fahrenheit to kill potentially harmful bacteria and prevent foodborne diseases. It is recommended to use a thermometer to confirm that this temperature has been attained in order to ensure the safety of the food.
Explanation:The required minimum cooking temperature for ground beef is 155 degrees Fahrenheit because it ensures the elimination of potentially harmful bacteria. By heating the beef to this temperature, you alter the chemistry and structure of any bacteria in the food, killing them and preventing foodborne diseases. Temperatures below the minimum cooking temperature allow for microbial growth, increasing the likelihood of foodborne disease.
It's important to note that some bacteria are more heat-resistant than others. For example, killing C. botulinum spores, one type of harmful bacteria, requires higher temperatures. Therefore, not all bacteria are eliminated at the same temperatures. However, a cooking temperature of 155 degrees is considered a safe benchmark for ground beef.
It's recommended to use a thermometer to verify that the meat has reached the correct internal temperature, ensuring food safety. The thermometer should be inserted into the thickest part of the meat and not touch bone, fat, or gristle.
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Which principle of exercise states that no two individuals will benefit from exercise in exactly the same way?
A.
Individuality
B.
Reversibility
C.
Progression
D.
Overload
A- because INDIVIDUAL people bring it from things different like if you didn’t like beans and your friend did!
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Which of the following people need more calories than average people?
Those who are tall
Anyone working at a desk
Those who are highly active
Those who work with computers
Those who are highly active becuz they lose more calories then the rest
9. In the event of a serious threat to health and safety, can PHI be disclosed without prior
consent?
a. Only to supervisor or ethics/lawyer at the hospital
b. No
c. Yes, if approved by the treating MD
d. Yes
e. Selectively, if indicated in the consent to treatment form
Selectively, if indicated.
What is your target heart rate?
O A.
10% of your maximum heart rate
OB. 40-50% of your maximum heart rate
c. 60-80% of your maximum heart rate
O D.
95% of your maximum heart rate
Answer: C. 60-80% of your maximum heart rate
Explanation: This heart rate is high enough to make sure your body gets a good exercise, but not high enough to the point where it is dangerous.
Answer:
c
Explanation:
Dylan is in blank .His mother knows that he can throw a temper tantrum at any time
Answer:
Rage? Pain? Anger?
Explanation:
I kind of need more context to answer this
The Via Appia was one of the earliest Roman
Answer:
The Via Appia was one of the earliest Roman road.
Explanation:
"Via" in Latin means "road". The Appian Road (English for 'Via Appia') was one of the earliest Roman roads and is also one of the rare ones with great many vestiges still visible today.
That road built around year 300 BC, goes from Rome to Brindisi in Southern Italy. It's about 500 km (300 miles) long, and was mainly used for the transportation of military supplies.
Answer:
road
Explanation:
Identify and describe in your own words a family preservation service
Answer:
A family preservation service is when a child is maintained at home to avoid foster care or adoption and prevention of separation between parents.
7. Which event is part of afterbirth?
A production of breast milk
B breaking of the amniotic sac
d delivery of the placenta
OD gradual dilation of the cervix
Answer:
D. delivery of the placenta
OPTION C. delivery of the placenta
The afterbirth phase of childbirth primarily refers to the delivery of the placenta, which is the expulsion of the placenta and foetal membranes that follows the delivery of the baby.
Explanation:In the context of birth, the term 'afterbirth' refers to the stage following the delivery of the baby, where the placenta and foetal membranes are expelled from the uterus. This means the correct answer to your question - 'Which event is part of afterbirth?' is the 'delivery of the placenta'. The other options, such as the production of breast milk, the breaking of the amniotic sac, and the gradual dilation of the cervix, while important aspects of childbirth, do not specifically pertain to the afterbirth phase.
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what is physical fitness
Answer:
Physical fitness is your ability to carry out tasks without undue fatigue.
Explanation:
Learn about the components of physical fitness: cardiorespiratory endurance, muscle strength, muscle endurance, flexibility and body composition and why they are important
Physical fitness is the body's ability to efficiently execute everyday tasks, maintained and enhanced through physical exercise, which includes all activities that foster fitness and health, including routine chores. It's essential for improving various aspects of health, including cardiovascular and stress levels, and adults are recommended to have at least 30 minutes of moderate exercise daily.
Explanation:What is Physical Fitness?Physical fitness refers to the ability of the body to perform daily activities with ease and without undue fatigue. It is maintained and improved through physical exercise, which is any bodily activity that enhances or maintains physical fitness and good health. While we often associate physical exercise with planned activity like jogging or weight training, many day-to-day actions like household chores can also count as physical exercise. Flexibility exercise, for example, includes activities that stretch and lengthen muscles such as yoga and stretching, thus improving the range of motion and lowering the risk of injuries.
The importance of physical fitness extends beyond just physical health. Regular physical activity improves cardiovascular and muscular fitness, increases bone density, enhances cognitive function, and helps in weight management. A direct correlation has been observed between physical fitness and mental well-being, with studies indicating that increased physical fitness is associated with reduced stress levels.
Guidelines suggest adults should engage in at least 30 minutes of moderate physical exercise daily to reap these benefits. This recommendation includes a variety of activities that contribute to overall fitness and health, ensuring a good balance that works for different lifestyles and preferences. Overall, maintaining physical fitness is essential for a healthy, active and fulfilling life.
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A patient is interested in yoga but asks his doctor if it is safe for them. Which contraindication would prevent the provider from recommending this type of therapy? A. high stress B. balance issues C. joint stiffness D. anxiety
PLZ HELP
Which sexually transmitted disease produces bumps or growths in the genital area caused by certain types of the human papillomavirus (HPV)?
A.
genital warts
B.
genital herpes
C.
syphilis
D.
hepatitis B
Answer:genital warts
Explanation:
genital warts cause bumps
Answer:
A genital warts
Explanation:
Its genital warts i had to g through health class last semester
FILL IN THE BLANKS
..................................... is used to lessen sweat odours but ................................ stops us from sweating.
Deodorant is used to lessen sweat odors but antiperspirant stops us from sweating.
Deodorant primarily works by neutralizing or masking the odor produced by sweat bacteria. It doesn't prevent sweating but helps control the odor associated with it.
On the other hand, antiperspirants contain ingredients like aluminum compounds that block sweat ducts, reducing the amount of sweat that reaches the skin's surface. While deodorants address the odor issue, antiperspirants directly tackle the sweating itself by hindering its production.
Counting your pulse can be most accurately performed by applying light pressure to an artery that is close to the surface of the skin.
If it’s true or false it would be true
Coach Ortiz was emphasizing creating more power for shots on goal at soccer practice last week. He noticed that Caleb really started to kick the ball with a great amount of power after finishing the kicking drills. Caleb adjusted the power of his soccer kick by:
A) Increasing the speed of his kicking leg prior to and upon contact with the ball
B) Starting his kick from a two-legged standing position prior to contact with the ball
C) Stopping his leg motion upon contact with the ball to create more of a rebound effect
D)Turning his foot and using the inside part of his foot and ankle to strike the ball
Answer:Caleb could have adjusted his power by turning his foot and using the inside of his shoe. Hope it helped!
Explanation:
https://brainly.com/question/7511936?referrer=searchResults
Answer:
Turning his foot and using the inside part of his foot and ankle to strike the ball
Explanation:
Had the question on a quiz, pretty sure this is the answer.
Which of the following BEST describes the short-term effects that alcohol has on the nervous system?
The short-term effects of alcohol on the nervous system range from initial euphoria to impaired reaction times, disorientation, slurred speech, and loss of coordination. As BAC increases, so do the severity of these effects. The use of alcohol can also have long-term consequences if abused and can cause FASD or FAS in infants born to pregnant individuals who consume alcohol.
The short-term effects of alcohol on the nervous system include a range of symptoms caused by its depressive action on the central nervous system. Initially, a person may feel relaxed and even euphoric as they consume low doses of alcohol. However, as blood alcohol content (BAC) rises, the individual will likely experience impaired reaction times, disorientation, and slurred speech. In more extreme cases, excessive consumption can lead to blurred vision, difficulty walking, slowed reaction time, and potentially aggressive behaviors. These impacts are due to alcohol interfering with the communication between nerve cells in the brain and disrupting the brain's normal functioning.
Match the DRI to its definition.
AI
EAR
RDA
UL
the amount of nutrient needed to meet the requirement of 97 percent
to 98 percent of the healthy population
the estimated nutrient intake to meet the requirements of half the
healthy individuals in a particular life stage and gender group
the recommended daily intake, based on observed approximations
of nutrient intake of healthy people
the highest daily amount of a nutrient that will not cause adverse
health effects for most the general population
the amount of nutrient needed to meet the requirement of 97 percent
to 98 percent of the healthy population = RDA
the estimated nutrient intake to meet the requirements of half the
healthy individuals in a particular life stage and gender group =EAR
the recommended daily intake, based on observed approximations
of nutrient intake of healthy people=AL
the highest daily amount of a nutrient that will not cause adverse
health effects for most the general population =UL
100% CORRECT
The AI is the recommended daily intake, the EAR is the estimated nutrient intake for half the population, the RDA is the amount needed for 97-98% of the population, and the UL is the highest daily amount without adverse effects.
Explanation:AI (Adequate Intake) - the recommended daily intake, based on observed approximations of nutrient intake of healthy people. It is used when there is not enough scientific evidence to set an RDA.
EAR (Estimated Average Requirement) - the estimated nutrient intake to meet the requirements of half the healthy individuals in a particular life stage and gender group.
RDA (Recommended Dietary Allowance) - the amount of nutrient needed to meet the requirement of 97 to 98 percent of the healthy population.
UL (Tolerable Upper Intake Level) - the highest daily amount of a nutrient that will not cause adverse health effects for most of the general population.
what is the function of a pacemaker
The function of a pace maker is to regulate the heart and make sure that it doesn’t stop
Hello There!
Great Question You Asked.
A Pace Maker Is A Small Device That Is Placed In The Chest or Abdomen To Help Control Heart Rhythms That Are Either "TOO FAST" Or "TOO SLOW" The Pace Maker Uses Electrical Devices To Keep The Heart Beating At A Normal Pace. Having A Pace Maker Requires Minor Surgery.
3.2.3 Explore: Have You Ever Played?
Approximately how many Cricket teams or players are there in the U.S.
Cricket in the United States is growing, with about 200,000 recreational players and more than 1,100 clubs nationwide, according to the USACA.
Explanation:The number of Cricket teams and players within the United States is not very easy to precisely pinpoint because the sport is still evolving and spreading there. According to the United States of America Cricket Association (USACA)*, there are about 200,000 leisurely players and over 1,100 clubs around the country. It's safe to say that Cricket in the U.S. is gaining popularity, but it has not yet reached the status of big mainstream sports such as football or basketball.
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A cell with two of each kind of chromosome is called??
Answer:
Diploid cell
Explanation:
A cell with two of each kind of chromosome is called a diploid cell, typical in most animals, plants, and unicellular organisms. These exist in somatic or 'body' cells and are composed of pairs of homologous chromosomes. The diploid state contrasts with the haploid state, found in reproductive cells, which have half the number of chromosomes.
Explanation:A cell with two of each kind of chromosome is called a diploid cell. These are found in most animals and plants, and many unicellular organisms. Each somatic cell, also referred to as 'body' cell, in an organism contains two copies of each chromosome, or a pair of homologous chromosomes with the same genes in identical locations.
Diploid organisms inherit one copy of each homologous chromosome from each parent, constituting a full set of chromosomes. The diploid state contrasts with the haploid state where cells, specifically the reproductive cells or gametes, contain a single copy of each chromosome. Fertilization, which is the union of two haploid gametes, results in a cell with a diploid state, restarting the life cycle.
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HELP ASAP PLEASE!
What is the first step in Hands only CPR?
A. Call 911.
B.Shake the victim and ask if he or she is okay.
C.Check the victim's breathing.
D.Check the victim's pulse.
Answer: A. Call 911
Explanation: When you get on the phone with an operator, they will talk you through what to do.
Select the part of the dictionary entry that shows how to pronounce the entry word.
synchronize v. ('sin-kra- niz) to cause things to happen at the same time and/or speed
Answer: ('sin-kra- niz)
Explanation:
sing· kruh· nize is the part of the dictionary entry that shows how to pronounce the entry word in American language.
What is synchronization with example?Synchronize is defined as to coordinate events so they happen all at the same time.
An example of synchronize is when dancers match their movements.
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Please help! I'm not aware of what cricket is because I don't have it where I live.
The sport of cricket which is very popular in Sri Lanka, is similar to baseball in American culture. In the statements provided, select the one in which baseball and cricket are not similar.
A round bat is used to hit the ball
A successful defensive play is called an out
One player pitches the ball to an opposing player who tries to hit the pitched ball
The game is scored by the number of runs each team accumulates
Answer: the first option is correct.
Explanation: in baseball you use a round oval shaped bat where as in cricket you use a flat paddle shaped object
A) A round bat is used to hit the ball.
If a vehicle that is required by law to yield to you fails to do so, __________.
A. it will be at fault for any resulting collision
B. you may claim right-of-way over the next vehicle
C. it is illegal for you not to yield to it
D. None of the above
D-
Anyone Failing to yield at a clear sight of the sigh, will result in you being victim,the perp is at risk for court, and yes it is illegal
The answer is none of the above.
In preventing heart disease, describe the factors individuals have no control over.
Answer:
diabetes, overweight and obesity, and high blood pressure are all factor that heart disease can cause that you have no controle of
Explanation:
Which of these tends to result in obesity?
A. demonstrating an inability to absorb nutrients in food
B. failing to drink enough water on a daily basis
C. working a sedentary desk job
D. maintaining a chronic positive energy balance
Answer:
I believe the answer would be C.
Hope this helps!!