Answer: increase in the diameter of the bronchioles leading to increase in the amount of air that can be let in and out during breathing and dilation of the vessels of skeletal muscles to account for the increased blood flow.
Explanation:
Beta receptors are a class of cell receptors present on the cell surface and tissues of effector organs and tissues innervated by the sympathetic nervous system and mediate certain physiological response when bounded by certain adrenergic agents.
Beta 2 receptors are those receptors that bind with epinephrine, a hormone and neurotransmitter (adrenaline) whose signaling mediate physiological response like smooth muscle relaxation and bronchodilation.
A 60-year-old woman is experiencing vertigo. She ignores the symptoms initially, but now her attacks are accompanied by severe nausea and vomiting. Following an attack, she hears a roaring in her ears that causes temporary deafness for some time after. What do you think her problem is, and what is its suspected cause?
Answer:
Meniere's syndrome
Explanation:
Meniere's syndrome is a disorder of the inner ear that can lead vertigo and hearing loss and commonly affects only one ear. The cause of this disease is unknown however, it is associated with an abnormal amount of fluid in the inner ear.
The roaring noise in her ear is called tinnitus which is a symptom of vertigo
Scientists use various types of models to represent real world activity. For instance, computer models are used to predict weather patterns, and the physical models of Thomson and Rutherford have been used to help us understand the structure of the atom.Scientific models like this are useful because they can help to describe and predict natural behavior. However, such models are limited, andA. they in no way reflect the natural worldB. their predictions are almost never accurateC. their predictions are not accurate every single timeD. they can only be used by experienced scientists to make relevant predictions
Answer:
(B.) their predictions are almost never accurate
Explanation:
A model is a representation of an idea, process that scientists use in explaining a complex data to a more simple and understable way. Models reflect the natural world e.g. climate models are used by humans to learn and to know about carbon cycles, water cycles and the weather. Model do come with some limitations one of them is an incomplete detail e.g. measuring the distance round the earth, we were made to believe that the model of the Earth is spherical, so in calculating the distance round the earth certain details are missing like the variations in distance caused by valleys and mountains and other topological problems that might be encountered.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
C is the CORRECT answer... Not B. I just took this test and the answer was "Their predictions are not accurate every single time."
You learn that a Mars lander has retrieved a bacterial sample from the polar ice caps. You obtain a sample of this bacteria and perform the same kind of experiment that Meselson and Stahl did to determine how the Mars bacteria replicates its DNA. Based on the following equilibrium centrifugation results, what type of replication would you propose for this new bacteria?
Answer:
The list of options to complete the question are
a. conservative replication
b. semi conservative replication.
c. dispersive replication
d. discontinuous replication
e. continuous replication
THE ANSWER IS C.
c. dispersive replication
Explanation:
In this type of DNA replication, the original DNA chain is broken down and combined randomly before the
unwinding of the double helix structure and separation to form a template for synthesis of messenger RNA
1.)What caused the change in water quality in Flint, Michigan?
The city was taken off the Detroit water system to save money.
City officials decided to stop fully treating the water to save money.
The Flint River became contaminated which caused lead to get into the water.
City officials ignored the Clean Water Act and allowed wastewater to be dumped into the river.
2.)What is graywater?
household wastewater except for the wastewater from toilets
household wastewater that does not contain surfactants
all wastewater generated from household usage
wastewater generated from indoor household usage
3.)Which data help hydrologists predict floods? Select the two correct answers.
impermeable land area
nitrate levels
water temperature
dissolved oxygen
snowpack
4.)Which of the following water filtration methods requires the use of a membrane or filter?
reverse osmosis
ultraviolet radiation
distillation
chlorination
5.)Which of the following courses should a student take in order to become a hydrologist? Choose the three correct answers.
statistics
geography
coding
physical science
philosophy
chemistry
Answer:
1. The answer is (A) The city was taken off the Detroit water system to save money.
2. The answer is (A) household wastewater except for the wastewater from toilets
3. Impermeable land area and snowpack
4. Reverse osmosis
5. geography , chemistry and statistics
Explanation:
1. The answer is (A) The city was taken off the Detroit water system to save money.
Flint water is located in the flint city, Michigan. The Flint water crisis is a communal health issue that occurred five years ago. The flint water changed its source from the treated Detroit Water and Sewerage Department water to the Flint River which resulted in the killing of 12 people and infected 87 people with water disease. The cause of its change was a result of the money taken off the Detroit water system to save money.
2. What is graywater?
The answer is (A) household wastewater except for the wastewater from toilets
3. Which data help hydrologists predict floods?
Impermeable land area
Snowpack
Impermeable land area, and Snowpack
The factors listed above are very important in helping a hydrologist to predict floods. There also other factors such as topography, drainage and many more to make the forecast rightly.
4 the answer is Reverse osmosis
A filtration using a semi-permeable membrane that has small pores that are adequate to move through the molecule of pure water and avoid solvents and germs from entering is called Reverse Osmosis
5. The study of Chemistry has to do with the chemical response which is also required to know the chemical response in Water by a hydrologist. The study of geography deals with the study of the earth which water is inclusive, also statistics is required to understand the importance of parameters when compared with one another
Water is the abiotic factor that got deteriorated in Flint, Michigan because the city was taken off the Detroit water system. Thus, the correct options are 1. A, 2. A, 3. A and E, 4. A, and 5. A, B, and F.
Who are hydrologists?Hydrologists are the people that study and analyze the water and its quality. The water quality in Flint, Michigan changed because the city was removed from the Detroit water system. Hence, option A is correct.
Graywater is household water that gets released from the houses but does not contain the water released from the toilets. Hence, option A is correct. The data from the impermeable land area and snowpacks helps the hydrologists to predict the flood conditions. Hence, options A and E are correct.
The process of reverse osmosis uses the filter and the membrane as the water filtration method. Hence, option A is correct. To become hydrologists the students should take up statistics, geography, and chemistry as the subject. Hence, options A, B, and F are correct.
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In the body, protein buffers are very important in __________.a. defending the body against bacteria and toxins. b. maintaining acid-base balance in the body. c. accelerating chemical reactions in the body. d. maintaining and repairing body tissue.
Final answer:
Protein buffers play a critical role in maintaining acid-base balance in the body by absorbing excess hydrogen and hydroxyl ions, maintaining optimal pH levels, and contributing to fluid-electrolyte balance and transport of electrolytes.
Explanation:
In the body, protein buffers are exceptionally important in maintaining acid-base balance. They operate by absorbing excess hydrogen ions (H⁺) or hydroxyl ions (OH⁻) that result from bodily processes, effectively stabilizing the pH levels of body fluids. One primary example of a buffer system in the human body is the bicarbonate system. However, proteins such as albumin and hemoglobin also have a significant buffering capacity, which accounts for a substantial part of the blood's buffering power and most of the buffering actions within cells.
Additionally, the charged amino and carboxyl groups in proteins also allow them to participate in maintaining fluid-electrolyte balance and transporting electrolytes across cell membranes. Through these actions, proteins help keep our body fluids at a pH level optimal for homeostasis.
Final answer:
Proteins in the body, like albumin and hemoglobin, act as buffers to maintain acid-base balance by preventing drastic pH changes, thus preserving homeostasis.
Explanation:
Proteins serve as buffers in the body with critical roles in maintaining acid-base balance. They act by preventing the pH of body fluids from becoming too acidic or too alkaline. Proteins like albumin and hemoglobin have basic and acidic components that can attract or release hydrogen ions, thereby functioning as buffers. This buffering capability is crucial as it helps to maintain a stable pH in the blood, generally between 7.35 and 7.45, which is essential for optimal bodily function. Furthermore, blood pH is maintained by several systems, including chemical buffers like bicarbonates, phosphates, and proteins. These substances resist changes in pH by absorbing surplus hydrogen ions, thus facilitating homeostasis and preventing adverse effects that can occur from pH fluctuations.
A researcher found a method she could use to manipulate and quantify phosphorylation and methylation in embryonic cells in culture. In one set of experiments, she succeeded in increasing acetylation of histone tails in the chromatin of the cells. Which of the following results would she most likely see in these cells?
A) increased chromatin condensation
B) decreased chromatin condensation
C) decreased binding of transcription factors
D) inactivation of the selected genes
Answer:
B) decreased chromatin condensation
Explanation:
The addition of acetyl groups to the histone tails results in a less packed state of chromatin. The acetylation of multiple Lys residues in the amino-terminal domains of histones H3 and H4 reduces the affinity of the entire nucleosome for DNA. It occurs since acetylation reduces the total positive charge present on histone proteins. Histone proteins are positively charged and pack the negatively charged DNA around them. Therefore, increased acetylation results in decreased condensation of chromatin. The loosely packed DNA is accessible by RNA polymerase and transcription factors for gene expression.
After Brian loses his third job in a year, his wife tells him that she wants a divorce. Brian becomes deeply discouraged, demonstrates a loss of self-esteem, and has no energy to find a job or leave his house. He sleeps several hours a day and eats very little. Brian is suffering from
Answer:
depression
Explanation:
i honestly don't mean this in a rude way, but the answer to this question should be pretty obvious. try to do your homework on your own, it will really pay off in the long run. believe me, midnight cramming for exams isn't the way to go :/
Brian is showing signs of a major depressive disorder, similar to other examples of mood disorders, indicating the need for professional mental health support.
Brian appears to be suffering from symptoms that are characteristic of a major depressive disorder. This includes experiencing a significant loss of self-esteem, a marked decrease in energy, altered sleep patterns such as sleeping excessively, changes in appetite, and a lack of motivation to engage in previously normal activities or seek employment. These symptoms align with those mentioned in various scenarios suggestive of potential mood disorders. It is crucial for individuals showing such signs to seek professional mental health support as depression is a serious condition that requires appropriate intervention.
During which of the phases of growth, does the number of new cells balance the number of declining cells?
Answer:
The correct answer is stationary phase.
Explanation:
There are four phases in a growth curve lag, log, stationary, and death phase. During the lag phase, cells adapt to the new environment and no growth occurs. During the exponential phase, cells grow at an exponential rate.
The stationary phase is the phase where the number of cells remains constant because the number of production of new cell becomes equal to the number of cell death. This phase shows that the culture reached its carrying capacity.
During the death phase, the number of cells starts declining because of the declining resources. Therefore the correct answer is the stationary phase.
When does the total number of chromosomes get reduced from 46 pairs to 23 individual chromosomes? View Available Hint(s) When does the total number of chromosomes get reduced from 46 pairs to 23 individual chromosomes? during metaphase II during mitosis during interphase during meiosis I
Answer:
23 pairs of chromosomes (46 individual chromosomes) are redued to 23 individual chromosomes in meiosis I.
During Meiosis I
Explanation:
Meiosis is a type of cell division that results in four daughter cells with each having half the number of chromosomes as in the parent cell. During meiosis, cell division occurs twice because before the two halves of a duplicated chromosome (sister chromatids) is separated, it still needs to separate homologous pair of chromosomes, which is a similar but non-identical pair of chromosomes received from both parent. Hence, meiosis occurs in a two step division process; Meiosis I and Meiosis II.
Note that, a diploid cell contains 23 pairs of chromosomes ( 46 chromosomes in total). Each pair of chromosome is from the haploid gamete produced by each parent after meiosis.
Before going into meiosis I, the cell must first undergo growth and replicate its DNA in the interphase stage just like in mitosis. In the Prophase I of meiosis I, chromosomes condense as in mitosis but also pair up. Each chromosome aligns with its homologue pair to form a structure called TETRAD or BIVALENT.
Homologous pairs, not individual chromosomes (23 pairs in number) line up at the metaphase plate for separation during metaphase I.
In anaphase I, the homologues are pulled apart by the spindle fibres and move apart to opposite ends of the cell. The sister chromatids of each chromosome, however, remain attached to one another and don't come apart. Hence, the cell now has 23 chromosomes on one side of the cell, and another 23 on the other side.
After cytokinesis (division of the cytoplasm) in meiosis I, two daughter cells are produced and each now possesses 23 individual chromosomes (haploid) different from the parental 23 pairs (diploid).
N.B: Sister chromatids separate in the anaphase of meiosis II, where each chromatid is counted as an individual chromosome.
Which physical change always happens to both the male and female body during puberty?
A. muscle development
B. increase in perspiration
C. increase in body fat
D. formation of eggs
B
Increase in perspiration is a physical change that happens to both the male and female body during puberty.
Explanation:
An increase in sweating during puberty is as a result of increased activity of the glands due to rapid hormonal changes in the body during this time. There is an increased testosterone levels in boys while estrogen increases in girls. Other common signs in boys and girls during puberty is the growth of pubic and armpit hairs.
The evident differences in puberty growth include that girls will have their hips and breasts become larger, while boys will have enlargened shoulders and muscles.
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Cell division by mitosis is a mechanism of asexual cell replication. Some single-cell organisms reproduce by cell division, and cell division enables multicellular organisms to grow and to repair damaged cells. Which of the following are products of cell division by mitosis?
A. two daughter cells with identical chromosomes
B. daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes
C. daughter cells that are genetically variable
D. four daughter cells that are genetically the same
Answer:
The correct answer is A. two daughter cells with identical chromosomes
Explanation:
Mitosis is also known as equation division because in mitosis one cell divide into two daughter cells having identical chromosomes. In higher eukaryotes, mitosis helps in the growth of the organisms by increasing cell number. It also helps in replacing the damaged and old cells in multi-cellular organisms.
Some single-cell organisms use mitosis to reproduce. In mitosis first, the genetic material and other organelles get double and then the cell gets separated into two daughter cells having identical genetic material and other organelles. So in mitosis genetically identical cells are produced. So the right answer is A.
Which of the following people most likely got cancer because of environmental factors?
A) A 36-year-old man with brain cancer.
B) A 67-year-old man with prostate cancer.
C) A 52-year-old woman with bone cancer.
D) A 47-year-old woman with lung cancer.
Answer: option D - (A 47-year-old woman with lung cancer.)
Explanation:
Cancer is a disease in which the cells of a tissue undergo uncontrolled (and often rapid) proliferation. It can be caused by factors ranging from genetic defects to environmental or lifestyle patterns to microbial infections, radiation exposure etc.
Lung cancer largely occurs when an organism is exposed to environmental factors such as pollutants in the air, soil or water. Also, unhealthy habits such as smoking cigarettes, tobacco are highly implicated.
Note, UNLIKE Lung cancer, other kinds of cancer mentioned have stronger genetic basis
what is the best explanation for how we can exhibit so many different traits from so few genes
Answer:
Alleles of a gene are responsible for different traits
Explanation:
There are several variant of a gene which in pair leads to varied phenotypic characteristics or traits.
For instance, there are three alleles for blood group i.e A, B and O but there are in totality there are basic 8 blood groups including the categorization on the basis of Rh factor.
Likewise, there are several variations of skin color; however there are majorly six genes that are responsible for skin color.
So, basically alleles of a gene are responsible for different traits
How does a multicellular organism develop? One cell grows bigger. The cells shrink. The cells differentiate. The cells replicate to form exact copies.
Answer: The cells differentiate.
Explanation:
In biology, differentiation refers to the gradual formation of organs or parts by a process of evolution or development, as when the seed develops the root and the stem, the initial stem develops the leaf, branches, and flower buds;
OR
in animal life, when the germ cell evolves the digestive and other organs and members, or when the animals as they advance in organization acquire special organs for specific purposes.
Note that option A and D explains organism growth NOT development
Multicellular organisms develop from a single cell through cell division and differentiation where cells specialize to perform different functions leading to the growth and functioning of the organism.
Explanation:A multicellular organism develops from a single cell through a process known as cell differentiation. Initially, the single cell replicates itself to form many exact copies. This is a process called cell division, specifically mitosis, where one cell divides to produce two identical cells. As the organism continues to develop, these cells begin to differentiate, meaning they start to specialize and take on different functions within the organism. Cells could become specific tissues such as muscle cells, nerve cells, or any other type of cells depending on the needs of the organism. This process of cell differentiation allows the multicellular organism to grow and function effectively.
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The following sequence of double stranded DNA encodes a hypothetical protein called GEN in a bacteria. Transcription starts at and includes the C-G base pair in Bold. The underlined T-A base pair indicates the transcription terminator. 3' -AAGCGGATACCTCCCAGTAGATGCTCCGGGGCTAGTGATTTCGAAC-5
A) What are the first 9 bases of the transcribed RNA? Be sure to label the 5' and 3" ends of the RNA 5' CCCCUAUGG3'
B) What are the first 4 amino acids of the subsequent polypeptide? Be sure to label the N- and C- termini. N-MET-GLU-GLY-HIS
C) How many amino acids long is the GEN polypeptide? 10 AMINO ACIDS
D) You identify a strain of bacteria containing a mutant tRNA that is capable of adding a tryptophan residue when it recognizes the stop codon UAG in the mRNA. The GEN polypeptide would be (longer, shorter, the same) in the presence of the mutart (nonsense suppressor) Trp tRNA?
Answer:
A) AUG GAG GGU
B) N-MET-GLU-GLY-HIS
C) 10 amino acids
D) The stop codon here is UAA, instead of UAG. If a tryptophane residue is added where the stop codon is, the GEN polypeptide would be longer
Explanation:
First we must obtain the the complementary chain or mRNA
A) AUG start codon is complementary to DNA TAC triplet, and GAG is complementary to CTC, and GGU to CCA (running from left to right towards 5'DNA direction (AAGCGGATACCTCCCAGTAGATGCTCCGGGGCTAGTGATTTCGAAC-5)
B) TAC corresponds to Methionine, GAG to Glutamate, GGU to Glycine, and CAU to Histidine
C) UAA is the stop codon, that is complementary where the DNA triplet is ATT. From AUG to UAA, we can have 10 amino acids transcribed
D) If a trp is included where the stop codon is UAA, then the mRNA would be longer with a consequent traduction of a longer GEN polypeptide
All species are capable of producing more offspring than their environment can support.
1. True
2. False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Reproduction is one of the essential characteristics of all living beings. However, if they reproduce to their full capability, the number of offspring would be higher than the available resource. Due to this reason there is always shortage of resources and hence competition arises among the species.
The fit species survive among all the competing species while the remaining weak species die. As Darwin also said that species have the ability to reproduce uncontrollably therefore, competition among the species for survival is a mode of population regulation
Hence, the given statement is true
Infections arising from the periapical region of the mandibular first premolars perforate through the lingual cortex to theA- Pterygomaxillary spaceB- Submental spaceC- Sublingual spaceD- Submandibular space
Answer:
The correct answer is option C- "Sublingual space".
Explanation:
If an infection perforate from he mandibular first premolars through the lingual cortex, it is very likely that it continues is way into the sublingual space. The infections located at the sublingual space are often bacterial infections that comes precisely from the floor of the mouth. If an infection goes into the lingual cortex, it will often go to the tissue under the tongue at the sublingual space.
Answer:
C- "Sublingual space"
What statement is true about providing nutritional support to rodents with low appetite caused by a procedure?
Answer:
The correct statement is Providing nutritional support may avoid the necessity for euthanatizing the animals.
Explanation:the statement that is true about providing nutritional support to rodents with low appetite caused by a procedure is Providing nutritional support may avoid the necessity for euthanatizing the animals.
Dr. Frankenstein has forgotten to give his monster an important part; as a result, the monster cannot transduce sound. Dr. Frankenstein has omitted the __________.A. eardrum.
B. middle ear.
C. semicircular canals.
D. basilar membrane.
Answer: A
Explanation:
sound vibration are tranduced by hair cells to the inner ear (electrical energy). sound vibration from an object causes vibration to air molecules which in turn vibrates to the ear drum.
The correct answer is B. Dr. Frankenstein has forgotten to give his monster an important part as a result, the monster cannot transduce sound. Dr. Frankenstein has omitted the middle ear.
The middle ear is the part of the ear that transduces sound from the air to the fluid-filled inner ear. It consists of the eardrum and the ossicles, which are the tiny bones that amplify and transmit the vibrations from the eardrum to the oval window of the cochlea. Without a middle ear, the monster would not be able to transduce airborne sound waves into mechanical vibrations that can be processed by the inner ear. Here's the reasoning behind the elimination of the other options: A. Eardrum - The eardrum, also known as the tympanic membrane, is part of the middle ear and is involved in the transduction of sound. However, the eardrum alone is not sufficient for sound transduction; the middle ear as a whole, including the ossicles, is necessary. C. Semicircular canals - The semicircular canals are part of the vestibular system in the inner ear, which is responsible for balance and spatial orientation, not for hearing or sound transduction. D. Basilar membrane - The basilar membrane is located in the cochlea of the inner ear and is involved in the transduction of sound from mechanical vibrations to neural signals. However, for the basilar membrane to be involved, the sound must first be transmitted through the middle ear.
Which of the following is included in four basic concepts of medical ethics? 1. Beneficence 2. Nonmaleficence 3. Loyalty privileges 4. both A and B
Answer:
Option 4
Explanation:
There basic principles of medical ethics which are as follows –
a) Autonomy- This provides patients the freedom of thought and decision making regarding taking any medicare services. It is the duty of the medical service provider to provide complete details about the service so that the patient can take an informed decision
b) Justice – The medical practice being applied must abide by the existing rules and laws.
c) Beneficence – It cover the efficiency of the care provider to provide skilled and knowledgeable staff who must have received adequate training
d) Non-maleficence – The service provider must ensure that no one is harmed in this procedure.
Hence, option 4 is correct
Beneficence and nonmaleficence are included in four basic concepts of medical ethics.
The correct option is 4; both A and B
What are the basic concepts of medical ethics?The fundamental medical ethics concepts are as follows:
a) Autonomy – This gives patients the ability to choose whether or not to use any Medicare services. In order for the patient to make an informed decision, it is the responsibility of the medical care provider to give comprehensive information about the service.
b) Justice – The medical procedure must follow all applicable laws and regulations.
c) Beneficence - This refers to the efficiency of the care provider in supplying knowledgeable, skilled personnel who must have undergone sufficient training.
d) Non-maleficence - The service provider is responsible for making sure that no one is hurt throughout the process.
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The a, b, o blood groups in humans are determined by multiple alleles in which Ia and Ib are dominant and both are dominant io.
If a woman with AB and a male with O blood had children, what is the probability that their first child would have type A?
Answer:
The probability that their first child would have type A is 50%
Explanation:
The Woman with blood group AB has genotype A/B
The Male with blood group O has genotype 0/0, blood group
Using plunnet square as seen in the attachment
So 50% blood group A, 50% blood group B.
Researchers suggests that we can avoid self-confirming diagnoses by a. looking for illusory correlations. b. carefully monitoring the information that is consistent with our ideas. c. considering opposing ideas and then testing them. d. confirming our intuitions.
Final answer:
To avoid self-confirming diagnoses, researchers suggest considering and testing opposing ideas to combat confirmation bias and illusory correlations.
Explanation:
Researchers suggest that to avoid self-confirming diagnoses, we should consider opposing ideas and then test them. This method counters confirmation bias by actively seeking out information that may disprove our initial hunches or beliefs. Confirmation bias is a cognitive bias that influences individuals to favor information that supports their existing beliefs, leading to the retention of illusory correlations.
Becoming more skeptical of our own beliefs and looking critically at the evidence can help mitigate the effects of these biases and lead to more accurate understanding and prediction. Such critical thinking helps in avoiding the pitfalls of illusory correlations and the prejudicial attitudes and discriminatory behaviors they may engender.
The borrowing of cultural traits and patterns from other cultures is a concept in anthropology known as:_______
Answer:
Diffusion
Explanation:
One of the concepts of anthropology is Diffusionism. According to this concept, different cultures and religions exchange their traits and characteristics and thereby promote spreading of culture from one society to the other. Infact any culture which starts moving from its region of origin to any other place leads to diffusion of culture and traits through migration, war, trade etc.
Identical, or monozygotic, twins develop from a single egg fertilized by a single sperm. Monozygotic twins are genetically identical because they originate from a single zygote that split into two. Caroline Lost and her colleagues examined nine measures of social, behavioral, and cognitive ability in 1000 pairs of both male and female identical twins. Their study found that pairs of male twins tended to be more alike in their prosocial behavior, peer problems, and verbal ability scores than pairs of female twins. Which of the following choices explains this observation? s on the X and Y chromosomes in the brains of males results Interacting g in identical twins with more similar behaviors Identical male twins express the same X-linked alleles in their neural cells because males undergo random X-inactivation Male twins have similar expression levels of X-linked genes, because the Y chromosome silences expression of X chromosome genes Q Females are mosaic for the expression of heterozygous X-inked loci because females undergo random X-inactivation
Answer:
The correct answer is "Females are mosaic for the expression of heterozygous X-inked loci because females undergo random X-inactivation".
Explanation:
This study reports that pairs of male twins tended to be more alike in their prosocial behavior, peer problems, and verbal ability scores than pairs of female twins. This is explained by the process of random X-inactivation in pairs of female twins. Random X-inactivation is the transcriptional silencing of one X chromosome in female cells during its development. This results in pairs of female twins being mosaic for the expression of heterozygous X-inked, making female twins actually not identical in its phenotype.
Final answer:
The observation that male identical twins are more alike in certain behaviors and abilities is potentially due to males uniformly expressing X-linked genes, whereas females show variations in expression due to X-inactivation, leading to a mosaic expression of X-linked genes.
Explanation:
The study mentioned in the question observed that pairs of male identical twins exhibited more similar prosocial behavior, peer problems, and verbal ability scores compared to pairs of female identical twins. A possible explanation for this observation is related to the phenomenon of X-inactivation. In females, one of the two X chromosomes present in each cell is randomly inactivated, which leads to mosaic expression of X-linked genes. Since each cell randomly inactivates one of the X chromosomes, the expression of X-linked genes can vary across different cells, potentially leading to more variability in certain traits among female monozygotic twins.
In males, however, there is only one X chromosome to express X-linked genes. This results in males having more consistent expression levels of these genes across cells. Since male monozygotic twins both have the same Y chromosome and the same X chromosome, the expression of these genes will be very similar between the two, potentially leading to more similar behaviors and abilities.
Which of the following is true of female genital mutilation? like male cisrcumscision it does not retrict the ability to experience?
Answer:
Child birth complication, low self esteem, urinary problems, reduced satisfaction etc.
Explanation:
Female genital mutilation is a procedure carried out on female reproductive organ, cutting out partially or totally, the external part of the organ. It has no medical benefit and it is practiced in most African countries.
There are different types of female organ mutilation, namely; cutting, piercing, scraping, cauterization etc.
There are so many disadvantages of mutilation, they are;
urinary problem.
child birth complications.
Intercourse problems ( reduced satisfaction).
psychological problems.
Female genital problems.
menstrual problems etc.
What is the name of the process whereby a platform with many wells is secured to the ocean floor?
A. offshore drilling
B. secondary recovery
C. underground mining
D. geothermal extraction
Answer:
Option A, Offshore Drilling
Explanation:
In the process of offshore drilling, oil is extracted from the wells which are located at the surface of ocean floor.
Different types of oil rigs are used for oil extraction depending on the depth of the ocean.
It is a good mode of extracting oil from sources that have remained untapped since long. With the new technology, several nations have been able to explore this oil reserve and have become independent in terms of energy
Hence, option A is correct
A. offshore drilling
-----------------------------------
Check all that are characteristics of the esophagus. Check All That Apply a) The mucosa is composed of thick, nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium.b) The mucosa is composed of thick, nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium. c) It is composed entirely of smooth muscle.It is composed entirely of smooth muscle. d) The two layers of muscle in the superior one-third of the muscularis are skeletal. e) The two layers of muscle in the superior one-third of the muscularis are skeletal. f) It is located almost entirely in the abdomen.It is located almost entirely in the abdomen.
Answer:
a) The mucosa is composed of thick, nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium.
d) The two layers of muscle in the superior one-third of the muscularis are skeletal
(B and E are repetition of A and D respecticely)
The correct characteristics of the esophagus are:
a) The mucosa is composed of thick, nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium.
The mucosa of the esophagus is lined with a thick layer of nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium. This type of epithelium provides protection against mechanical and chemical damage.
d) The two layers of muscle in the superior one-third of the muscularis are skeletal.
The muscularis layer of the esophagus is made up of two layers of muscle: an inner circular layer and an outer longitudinal layer. In the superior one-third of the esophagus, the muscle is composed of skeletal muscle fibers, allowing for voluntary control over swallowing.
f) It is located almost entirely in the abdomen.
The esophagus extends from the throat (pharynx) down through the chest and passes through the diaphragm to connect with the stomach in the abdominal cavity. While a small portion of the esophagus is located in the thoracic cavity, the majority of it lies within the abdomen.
Therefore, options a, d, and f are the correct characteristics of the esophagus.
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The initial stage where a perceived threat or danger is experienced. This is when physiological reaction occurs that includes heightened energy and/or facial expressions of fear or tension. You may also experience shallow breathing with perspiration and accelerated heart beat. Which stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) is this?
Answer: Alarm reaction stage
Explanation:
The General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) is the 3- stage body response to stress conditions. The three stages include
1) Alarm reaction stage
2) Resistance stage
3) Exhaustion stage
Note that the Alarm reaction stage consist of arousal by the autonomic nervous system, where several involuntary responses such as sweating, tension, raised breathing etc are observed due to hormones released.
On genetic analysis, a human liver cell (hepatocyte) is found to be 46XX, with each chromosome composed of two chromatids. Microscopic examination of the cell reveals an intact nuclear membrane and no chromatin can be seen. It must be true that this cell is:____________.
Answer:
The options
A.) in the G₂ stage of the cycle.
B.) in the M stage of the cell cycle.
C.) about to under meiosis I.
D.) is evidence of hepatocellular carcinoma.
The ANSWER IS SURELY A
A.) in the G₂ stage of the cycle.
Explanation:
The Answer is A
Which indicates the interphase composed of G₁, S, and G₂ for the cell 46XX, with two chromatids on each chromosome to imply that synthesis has taken place.
Since the cells has intact nuclear membrane with no chromatin visible, the cell is at the S or G₂ phase
Answer B is wrong.
Reason:
For the cell to be at M phase then there must be dissolution of the nuclear membrane and chromatin becomes evident or seen at various stages such as within the nucleus, at the equatorial plane and the opposite poles of the cells
Answer C is wrong
Reason:
since the cell does not undergo meiosis. Therefore, it is a hepatocyte and not a sex cell that can undergo meiosis
Within the light organ, bacteria are protected and nourished, and rapidly increase in number. At night, they provide the light needed for counterillumination. But by dawn, as the squid prepares to hide in the sand for the day, it ejects about 95% of the bacteria from the light organ. Which of the following is the LEAST likely explanation for why eliminating 95% of the bacteria present in the light organ is necessary?
Answer:
At dawn the squid prepares to hide in the sand for the day and it ejects about 95% of the bacteria from the light organ in order to reduce or stop the growth of bacteria population in the squid. This will prevent the bacteria population from reaching a level too high for the squid to support.