Answer:
The answer is letter A, 10 minutes.
Explanation:
Vasovagal syncope is also known as "neurocardiogenic syncope." This happens when a person faints due to some triggers following vaccination. The trigger could be the sight of blood or the body's blood pressure suddenly drops. Although this is not a serious condition, it should be monitored or treated.
The majority of cases of vasovagal syncope occur immediately within minutes of receiving the vaccine. It could happen during or after the vaccination. Thus, the answer is letter a, 10 minutes (since this is the shortest time frame).
Vasovagal episodes should be distinguished from anaphylaxis episodes. Anaphylaxis usually occur within 15 minutes to an hour of receiving the vaccine.
Vasovagal syncope causes some of the following symptoms: nausea, vomiting, cool clammy skin, hypotension, bradychardia, loss of consciousness, etc.
Answer:
10 minutes
Explanation:
I don´t really have an explanation but I have vasovagal syncope and have done my research on it, so I hope helped at least a little.
You have an infected cut on your hand that is swollen and red. You: a. Wash hands, put on a clean bandage, and cover it with a glove b. Wash your hands and continue working with the food c. Use an antiseptic and put on a glove over the infected cut Leave it alone. d. It will heal better on its own without a bandage
Answer: the correct option is C (Use an antiseptic and put on a glove over the infected cut Leave it alone).
Explanation: An antiseptic is antimicrobial substance that are applied to living tissue/skin to reduce the possibility of infection.
Therefore if you have an infected cut on your hand that is swollen and red. You use an antiseptic and put on a glove over the infected cut .
Answer: the answer is A
Explanation: With an infected cut, you will have to wash your hands first, put on a clean bandage and cover with gloves so your food does not get contaminated and your wound does not get re-infected. when you are through, you can visit your doctor for proper treatment and dressing.
During his speech, Karl claimed that the elderly are bad drivers. He supported this claim by pointing out that his 75-year-old grandfather has had three accidents this year, an old lady was driving 10 mph under the speed limit the other day, and a 68-year-old woman ran into a building at the mall after having a stroke. Karl is using reasoning by __________.
Final answer:
Karl's claim that the elderly are bad drivers, based on specific examples involving older individuals, is an example of inductive reasoning and could be considered a hasty generalization or stereotype.
Explanation:
During his speech, Karl claimed that the elderly are bad drivers. He supported this claim by mentioning specific instances involving older individuals, such as his 75-year-old grandfather's accidents, an old lady driving below the speed limit, and a 68-year-old woman who had an accident at the mall due to a stroke. Karl is using reasoning by making generalizations about a group of people based on a few selective examples. This type of reasoning is known as inductive reasoning, specifically when it leads to a stereotype or hasty generalization. While inductive reasoning involves making general conclusions from specific observations, the conclusion may not always be accurate if the sample is not representative or the examples are not sufficient. In Karl's case, he is making a sweeping generalization that all elderly individuals are bad drivers based on limited personal experiences, which might be seen as evidence of ageism.
Why is acute pain said to be protective in nature?
A) It enables the person to increase personal strength.
B) It warns an individual of tissue damage or disease.
C) As a subjective experience, it serves no purpose.
D) As an objective experience, it aids diagnosis.
Answer: D) As an objective experience, it aids diagnosis.
Explanation:
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Acute pain is said to be protective in nature because it warns an individual of tissue damage or disease.
Which of the following is true of the thermic effect of food (TEF)? Group of answer choices The amount of energy associated with TEF is independent of the amount of food consumed. Fatty foods have higher TEFs than high-protein foods. TEF is estimated to be about 50–75 percent of total energy intake. TEF is the cost associated with the body's utilization of the foods a person eats.
Answer: TEF is the cost associated with the body’s utilization of the foods a person needs,
Explanation:
The thermic effect of food, is the energy needed for digestion, absorption and removal of waste product of metabolism.That is the value of energy spent which is above the basal metabolic rate from the cost of utilization of the food by the body,
It is highest in protein, lowest in fat,about 10% of total energy intake,it varies with the type of food consumed.
Therefore the correct answer is ;TEF is the cost associated with the body’s utilization of the foods a person needs,
Which of the following foods or drinks would be best to consume immediately following exercise such as resistance training
a) fiber-rich carbohydrates, such as whole-grain bread, and legumes and other vegetables
b) simple carbohydrates, such as sports drinks, fruit, and yogurt
c) lean proteins, such as lean meats, poultry, fish, and legumes
d) None of these
Answer:
The correct option is B) simple carbohydrates, such as sports drinks, fruit, and yogurt
Explanation:
Our body stores carbohydrates in the form of glycogen. During exercise sessions, the glycogen stored is converted into glucose. Glucose is the main energy source of the body and is used to produce ATP by cellular respiration.
After exercise,the glycogen storage in the body gets lowered. Hence, to store carbohydrates in the form of glycogen we need to intake simple carbohydrates such as a sports drinks, fruits etc to compensate.
Carlos has a family history of premature heart disease and stroke. To lower his risk of cardiovascular disease, Carlos should:______A) Increase his intake of trans fat.B) Take medication to increase his blood pressure.C) Stop smoking sigrats.D) Increase his intake of vitamin k.
Answer: C. Stop Cigarette Smoking
Explanation:
Cigarette smoking is a risk factor for cardiovascular diseases and stroke and for the fact that there is a family history of heart disease and stroke, it means that smoking cigarettes is going to raise the possibility of coming down with heart diseases and stroke therefore cessation of cigarette smoking will be key in lowering his risk of coming down with those diseases.
As regards other options, increase in fat intake is a direct risk factor for atherosclerosis which can lead to heart diseases and stroke.
Taking medication that can increase his blood pressure will be entirely negative to his health and increased intake of vitamin k really has nothing to do with health conditions in question
Match each device with its advantage A. Insulin pump Provides quick measurement B. Glucose meter ensures accurate doeses C. Joint implant relief offers pain relief
Answer:
A. Insulin pump - ensures accurate doses
B. Glucose meter - provides quick measurement
C. Joint implant relief - offers pain relief
Explanation:
A. The insulin pump is a device that mimics the way that the pancreas works. It provides insulin to the body by delivering safe and accurate doses of insulin in a continous way.
B. The glucose meter is a device that provides a quick and accurate measurement of the amount of sugar (glucose) that is present in the blood.
C. The joint implant relief, usually used by people above 60 years of age, is a successful orthopaedic replacement that enables an individual that is suffering from constant pain to get a higher quality of life by eliminating their pain, which enables them to reincorporate into their former activities, e.g. return to work. According to research, the most successful joint implants are hip replacements and knee replacements.
Which of the following is a common exclusion in a medical expense plan:_______
A. Loss due to an accident
B. Minor surgical procedure
C. Office visit expense
D. Loss due to Workers' Compensation
Answer: D. Loss due to Workers' Compensation
Explanation:
Medical expense plan includes the finance which can be used for health related emergency like accident, surgery, implantation, and pregnancy. The medical expense plan also covers drugs and medicine prescription, arrangement of equipment like stunts, wheelchair, eyeglasses and others required for medical treatment.
Worker's compensation is a kind of medical insurance that provides benefits to the workers who are suffering from job related hazards, injuries and illnesses. It is excluded from the medical expense plan.
Final answer:
A common exclusion in a medical expense plan is loss due to Workers' Compensation.
Explanation:
In a medical expense plan, a common exclusion is loss due to Workers' Compensation. Workers' Compensation is a type of insurance that provides benefits to workers who suffer injuries on the job and is separate from a medical expense plan.
This exclusion exists because Workers' Compensation insurance covers work-related injuries separately, so they are not typically covered under a medical expense plan.
For example, if a person gets injured while working and is eligible for Workers' Compensation benefits, their medical expenses related to the injury would be covered by the Workers' Compensation insurance, not the medical expense plan.
Janis wants to keep a clean home so she can have friends over. Although cleaning isn't the most enjoyable activity to her she discovers something interesting: when she sweeps the kitchen she then feels like putting more effort into cleaning the rest of the day. How might we describe this in psychological terms
Answer:
This can be described as a commitment.
Explanation:
From a psychological point of view, we can say that when Janis swept the kitchen's floor, she committed herself to have a clean house so that she can invite her friends. She is directing her activities to reach a goal and is easier because after sweeping the kitchen she is mentally predisposed to reach her goal of keeping the house clean.
The physically inactive person should train around the ______ intensity during the first weeks of training.
Answer:
The correct answer is - 30 to 40 minutes.
Explanation:
A physical inactive person is a person who is not getting enough physical inactive as per recommended level. This type of person is needed to have extra intense physical exercise with aerobic exercise.
The American Heart Association recommends to the physically inactive person to train around 30 to 40 minutes of intense thrice or four times for the first weeks of training. It helps in developing cardiovascular health in an individual.
Thus, the correct answer is - 30 to 40 minutes.
Kayla's therapist first taught her mindfulness meditation so she could focus on the present. Then, Kayla and her therapist talked about events in Kayla's past that led to her current problems. Now her therapist is teaching her to have self-respect and to think for herself. Kayla is probably being treated for ___________.a. borderline personality disorder.
b. depression.
c. antisocial personality disorder.
d. OCD.
Answer:
I would say the correct answer is B. depression.
When you have depression, it's hard to focus and stay present since you're so wrapped up in your thoughts. In addition, depression is very related to self care and self respect, which is why Kayla is working on self-respect with her therapist.
Sorry it's a bit late, but I hope this helps.
Which of the following would be inappropriate treatment for a diver exhibiting symptoms of Decompression Sickness?
A. Administering CPRB. Administering pure oxygen (if qualified)C. Treat for shockD. Taking the victim back underwater
Answer:
D. Taking the victim back underwater
Explanation:
Taking the victim back underwater would be inappropriate treatment for a diver exhibiting symptoms of Decompression Sickness.
Answer:
D.Taking the victim back underwater
Explanation:
A client on a psychiatric unit who has been hearing voices is receiving a neuroleptic medication for the first time. The client takes the cup of water and the pill and stares at them. What is the most therapeutic statement the nurse can make?
1 "You have to take your medicine."2 "This is the medication that your doctor ordered."3 "This will help you not to hear the voices. It will only work if you take it."4 "There must be a reason that you don't want to take your medicine."
Answer:
3. "This will help you not to hear the voices. It will only work if you take it" Will be the most therapeutic statement made by the nurse to the client in the psychiatric unit.
Explanation:
A psychiatric patient hears voices or has auditory verbal hallucinations due to psychotic disorders like schizophrenia, bipolar disorder etc. Patients with psychosis tend to hear voices which are not real but can either talk to them or command them to do something, mostly harmful things.
Neuroleptic medications are antipsychotics which help to treat psychotic disorders. Hence in order to treat the auditory hallucinatory symptoms and treat the client from hearing voices, the client should take the pill.
Final answer:
The most therapeutic response to a client hesitant to take their first dose of neuroleptic medication is to explain how the medication can help alleviate their symptoms and encourage them to take it.
Explanation:
When a client on a psychiatric unit who has been hearing voices is receiving a neuroleptic medication for the first time and hesitates to take it, the most therapeutic response would be option 3: "This will help you not to hear the voices. It will only work if you take it." This statement is supportive, informative, and directly addresses the client's symptoms, providing a clear rationale for taking the medication which aligns with the client's likely desire to alleviate their symptoms. It's also couched in positive terms, which can help motivate the client to take action in their treatment.
Hydration status can be determined by paying attention to various indicators. Read the statements below and select the correct statements regarding how to assess hydration. Select all that apply.a. Weighing the body before and after exercise can be used to detect overhydration and dehydration.b. Reduced saliva production can be an indicator of dehydration.c. Dark urine can be an indicator of water imbalance.d. None of these
Final answer:
To assess hydration status, weighing before and after exercise, monitoring saliva production, and observing the color of urine are effective indicators. Physical changes in the body as a response to dehydration trigger thirst and involve ADH in regulating kidney function.
Explanation:
When it comes to assessing hydration status, certain indicators can provide valuable information. The correct statements regarding how to assess hydration status are:
Weighing the body before and after exercise can be used to detect overhydration and dehydration due to changes in body water content.Reduced saliva production can be an indicator of dehydration, signaling a decrease in serous output and an increase in thicker mucus, resulting in a dry mouth sensation.Dark urine can be an indicator of a water imbalance, as the kidneys concentrate or dilute urine based on the body's hydration levels.These methods are part of a broader understanding of dehydration and hydration management. Dehydration occurs when water loss exceeds intake and is signalled by physiological responses such as increased blood osmolality, which triggers the thirst response. Also, the antidiuretic hormone (ADH) plays an essential role in the regulation of body water levels by signaling the kidneys to recover water from urine.
The correct options are : a. Weighing the body before and after exercise can be used to detect overhydration and dehydration. b. Reduced saliva production can be an indicator of dehydration. c. Dark urine can be an indicator of water imbalance.
a. Weighing the body before and after exercise can indeed be used to detect changes in hydration status. A decrease in body weight post-exercise suggests a loss of fluids, indicating dehydration. Conversely, an increase in body weight could suggest overhydration, especially if the weight gain is rapid and significant.
b. Saliva production is dependent on adequate hydration. When the body is dehydrated, one of the first responses is to conserve water, which can lead to reduced saliva production, resulting in a sensation of dry mouth.
c. Urine color is a common indicator of hydration status. Dark urine often indicates a concentrated urine due to less water being available to dilute the waste products, which can be a sign of dehydration. Conversely, very light or clear urine can be a sign of adequate hydration or even overhydration.
Option d, None of these, is incorrect because it negates the validity of the other statements, which are accurate indicators of hydration status.
What type of study compares self-reports of physical activity with rates of illness and mortality?
Answer:
Epidemiologic study (analytics)
Explanation:
Epidemiologic study is a study that focuses on the occurrence of a phenomenon in a representative population or sample. It is based on observation of facts and their variations.
DESCRIPTIVE: analyzes the distribution of the phenomenon as a function of time, place and the characteristics of people through it to identify possible risk factors and its origin and mode of propagation. It raises hypotheses.
ANALYTICS: seeks to identify the relationship between the phenomenon and various factors or conditions to which it may be attributed behavior and distribution. Tests hypotheses of causal relationship between exposure factors and events.
Diabetes mellitus is the ______ leading cause of death and a major cause of disability in the United States.
a. first
b. second
c. fourth
d. seventh
Answer:
D. Seventh.
Explanation:
In 2015, 30.3 million Americans, or 9.4% of the population, had diabetes.
Approximately 1.25 million American children and adults have type 1 diabetes.
Undiagnosed: Of the 30.3 million adults with diabetes, 23.1 million were diagnosed, and 7.2 million were undiagnosed.
Prevalence in seniors: The percentage of Americans age 65 and older remains high, at 25.2%, or 12.0 million seniors (diagnosed and undiagnosed).
New cases: 1.5 million Americans are diagnosed with diabetes every year.
Prediabetes: In 2015, 84.1 million Americans age 18 and older had prediabetes.
Deaths: Diabetes remains the 7th leading cause of death in the United States in 2015, with 79,535 death certificates listing it as the underlying cause of death, and a total of 252,806 death certificates listing diabetes as an underlying or contributing cause of death.
Which program offers nutrition screenings at no cost?
A) food distribution centers
B) Meals on Wheels
C) SNAP
D) workplace wellness programs
Answer:
D is the correct answer
Explanation:
workplace wellness programs
A high school soccer player sustained five concussions before she was told that she should never play contact sports again. After her last injury, she began experiencing episodes of double vision. She was told that she had most likely incurred damage to which cranial nerve?a) V (Trigeminal)
b) VI (Abducens)
c) IV (Trochlear)
d) VII (Facial)
Answer:
VI (Abducens).
Explanation:
Cranial nerves may be defined as the nerves that controls the sensory and motor functions of the neck and head. These nerves emerge directly from the brain and are 12 in number.
Abducen is the sixth cranial nerve that helps in the movement of the lateral rectus muscle and also responsible for the outward gaze. This nerve work as somatic efferent nerve. This nerve also effects the vision of an individual and results in double vision.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
Answer:
B. VI (Abducens)
Explanation:
Abducens cranial nerve supports movement of the eye laterally. Any damage to the nerve can cause double vision.
3.
what's the definition for Psychosomatic response
Any cause of stress
Reaction an individual may go through after a loss
state of calm
Physical reaction that results from stress
A Psychosomatic response is a physical reaction produced by the body in response to stress or emotional factors. It is legit and can lead to serious health consequences if not recognized and treated properly.
Explanation:The definition for Psychosomatic response is a physical reaction that an individual experiences as a result of stress or emotional upset. This term is derived from the words 'psyche' meaning mind, and 'soma' meaning body, underlining the connection between these two aspects. For instance, stress might manifest as a psychosomatic response in the form of headaches, upset stomach, or even more serious conditions like heart disease. It's important to remember that even though these symptoms are often triggered or worsened by emotional factors, they are real and can have serious health consequences if not addressed.
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The nurse caring for a 24-year-old woman admitted with pneumonia explains how antibiotics work to help cure her pneumonia. Which statement would be correct about how antibiotic therapy works?
Answer:
The antibiotics should be taken correctly, respecting the times of take, the doses and the days of the treatment; otherwise the bacteria could not be eliminate and develop the disease again.
Explanation:
Pneumonia is an infection that settle in the lungs. They may affect the region of the pulmonary alveoli where the terminal branches of the bronchi and sometimes the interstices (space between one alveolus and the other) emerge. Basically, pneumonia is caused by the penetration of an infectious or irritating agent (bacteria, viruses, fungi and allergic reactions) into the alveolar space, where gas exchange occurs. This location should always be very clean, free of substances that could prevent air from contacting the blood. Some symptoms of the disease are: high fever, dry or yellowish or greenish cough, shortness of breath and difficulty breathing.
Treatment of pneumonia requires the use of antibiotics and improvement usually occurs within three or four days.
If the person begins to feel better and discontinues the treatment, theres a high chance for the bacteria to return with more resistance to the body, and may even aggravate the initial situation. The drug kills nonresistant bacteria, left over resistant ones. So its important to not interrupt the treatment.
Hans Selye’s definition of stress is considered a response-based definition because it conceptualizes stress chiefly in terms of the ________.A best action to take in order to eliminate the stressorB body’s baseline reaction to ordinary eventsC body’s physiological reaction to any demand that is placed on itD mental health of the individual
Hans Selye's definition of stress focuses on the body's physiological reaction to any demand.
Hans Selye's definition of stress is considered a response-based definition because it conceptualizes stress chiefly in terms of the body's physiological reaction to any demand that is placed on it.
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Hans Selye characterized stress as the body’s physiological response to any demand placed on it. Stress triggers automatic physical changes, such as an increased heart rate, which is why this ability is termed as a response-based definition.
Explanation:Hans Selye’s definition of stress is considered a response-based definition because it conceptualizes stress chiefly in terms of the body’s physiological reaction to any demand that is placed on it. According to Selye, stress arises when the body has to respond to challenging or dangerous situations. For example, if someone is threatened, their body might release adrenaline to prepare for a fight or flight response. This definition focuses on physiological changes, like increased heart rate or blood pressure.
This response to a stressor automatically happens without conscious thought and affects both one's physical body and mental state. This is why it is called a response-based definition. Other types of definitions might focus instead on the psychological effects of stressors or the events that cause stress.
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Clarisse and Cindy are honor students who conduct themselves in a mature manner at the Christian college they attend in Philadelphia. This year for spring break, they decided to go to Cancun, where they auditioned for the "Girls Gone Wild" video. Which statement best describes the probable reason behind the behavior of Clarisse and Cindy?
a. Clarisse and Cindy unintentionally broke a taboo due to the stress, authoritarianism, and strict regime involved in Christian education.
b. Clarisse and Cindy considered themselves on a moral holiday, which permitted them to "let their hair down."
c. Clarisse and Cindy were evil-spirited at heart and their true behavior surfaced in Cancun.
d. Clarisse pushed Cindy, or Cindy pushed Clarisse, into violating their Christian norms and deciding to "go wild."
Answer:
B. Clarisse and Cindy considered themselves on a moral holiday, which permitted them to "let their hair down"
Explanation:
The first statement alleged they auditioned for the video because they broke some taboo due to stress, which is false because the text clearly stated they conducted themselves in a mature manner and if it is to be believed, someone conducting themselves maturely would not break some taboo and if they were to do so mistakenly, they wouldn't lash out by instead they'd be remorseful.
This makes B the most likely scenario, they'd feel doing the video in the summer and no big deal since they've been good in school and are currently on vacation so they'd feel they've earned it.
C and D were not considered because there was no hint of any in the text and it is least likely they were the cause
Answer:
Clarisse and Cindy considered themselves on a moral holiday, which permitted them to "let their hair down."
Explanation:
The completion of __________ form is needed to document your voluntary request for termination of Medicare coverage as permitted under the Code of Federal Regulations. Section 1838(b) and 1818A(c)(2)(B) of the Social Security Act require filing of notice advising the Administration when termination of Medicare coverage is requested. While you are not required to give your reasons for requesting termination, the information given will be used to document your understanding of the effects of your request.
Answer:
CMS 1763 (Request of Termination for Premium Hospital and/ Supplementary Medical Insurance)
Explanation:
The CMS 1763 is a form that is granted to people who wish to terminate or end their premium hospital and/ medical insurance. They could either terminate the hospital insurance alone or the medical insurance alone and could also terminate both. The end dates of both insurances have to be inputted. The request is filed by writing down the name of the enrollee as well as his medical number. It could also be executed by another person other than the enrollee. You may or may not provide the reasons for termination but you have to make sure that you've fully understood the whole contract termination. It requires two witnesses who will also write down their addresses.
Which of the following is a true statement?
a. Estrous cycles are more frequent than menstrual cycles.
b. Estrous cycles are not controlled by hormones.
c. All mammals have menstrual cycles.
d. The endometrial lining is shed in menstrual cycles but reabsorbed in estrous cycles.
e. Ovulation occurs before the endometrium thickens in estrous cycles.
Answer: A) The endometrial lining is shed in menstrual cycles but reabsorbed in estrous cycles.
Explanation:
The endometrium can be defined as the inner layer of the epithelium. It along with the mucous membrane forms the covering of the mammalian uterus. It is the basal and functional layer of the uterus. This layer thickens and then shed during the menstruation cycle in humans and in some other mammals including the apes, monkeys, bats and elephants. But the endometrium layer is reabsorbed in the estrous cycle.
A small-for-gestational-age (SGA) newborn has just been admitted to the nursery. Nursing assessment reveals a high-pitched cry, jitteriness, and irregular respirations. With which condition are these signs associated?a. Hypervolemiab. Hypoglycemiac. Hypercalcemiad. Hypothyroidism
Answer:
Hypoglycemia
Explanation:
Symptoms of Hypoglycemia in newborns are
1) Jitteriness
2) low body temperature
3) poor feeding
4) seizures
Hypoglycemia is relate to the situations in which sugar level down to normal level. The symptoms for Hypoglycemia include confusion, trouble in talking, seizure, etc.
Hypoglycemia is caused due to high intake of insulin and sudden low of sugar level.
You want to look up and to your right. Which extrinsic eye muscles would be the most active in each eye?
A. right eye: superior oblique left eye: superior rectus
B. right eye: superior rectus left eye: superior rectus
C. right eye: inferior oblique left eye: superior rectus
D. right eye: superior rectus left eye: inferior oblique
Answer:
C
Explanation:
The right eye plus the inferior oblique left eye and superior rectus.
The position of surgeon general does not in itself carry much direct line authority, but it became very visible in the 1980s when which of the following spoke out with great courage and moral authority on the politically controversial subjects of AIDS and tobacco?
Answer:
Surgeon General, Everett Koop.
Explanation:
Surgeon general was something like a '' family doctor '' or '' nation's doctor '' back in the days. When it comes to this specific person, he was very famous and crucial in the certain era. He was also a pediatric and public health administrator. He was born in 1916 and he died in 2013. He was known to be very much against smoking and his father was the first person ever to quit it because of him. He also dedicated biggest part of his life in helping people who were suffering from AIDS.
Which of the following is NOT a maternal benefit of breastfeeding?
a. Minimizes postpartum blood loss
b. Helps uterus return to nonpregnant size
c. Delays return to fertility
d. MAY help lose weight more quickly
e. All of the above would be considered benefits of breastfeeding
Answer:
E - All of the above would be considered benefits of breastfeeding
Explanation:
Breastfeeding is the feeding of newborns and young ones with milk from the breast of the mother. It provides the ideal nutrition for infants as it contains an almost perfect combination of vitamins, fat and protein required for a baby to grow and develop.
Although it is a personal choice, It is usually recommended by gynecologist to be done exclusively for 6 months after giving birth.
It has many benefits for both mother and child and all the options listed above (from A-D) can be considered maternal benefits of breastfeeding.
Place the following events in the order in which they occur during sound transmission. 1. Tympanic membrane vibrates. 2. Internal ear fluids are set in motion. 3. Hearing receptors are stimulated. 4. Ossicles of the ear vibrate. 5. Auditory cortex is stimulated.
Answer:
The correct order of events in sound transmission is 1, 4, 2,3 5
Explanation:
1. Tympanic membrane vibrates.
4. Ossicles of the ear vibrate.
2. Internal ear fluids are set in motion.
3. Hearing receptors are stimulated.
5. Auditory cortex is stimulated.
Sound is received by external ear or pinna that travels into the ear canal and causes the eardrum or tympanic membrane to move. The tympanic membrane vibrates with sound waves. Sound vibrations move through the ear bones or ossicles to the cochlea and cochlea moves due to sound vibration. Fluid movement causes the hair cells to move. As hair cells move up and down, electrical signals is generated. The auditory nerve sends electrical signal to the brain, which turns it into a sound.
The order of events during sound transmission is: Tympanic membrane vibrates, Ossicles of the ear vibrate, Internal ear fluids are set in motion, Hearing receptors are stimulated, and Auditory cortex is stimulated.
Explanation:The transmission of sound occurs in a sequential order. The events listed occur in the following order:
Tympanic membrane vibrates: Sound waves strike the tympanic membrane, causing it to vibrate.Ossicles of the ear vibrate: The vibrational energy is then transferred to the ossicles of the ear.Internal ear fluids are set in motion: The moving ossicles stimulate the oval window of the cochlea, setting the internal ear fluids in motion.Hearing receptors are stimulated: The moving fluid in the cochlea stimulates the auditory receptor cells or hair cells.Auditory cortex is stimulated: These receptors then convert the mechanical energy into electrical nerve impulses which are sent to the auditory cortex of the brain for sound perception.Learn more about sound transmission here:https://brainly.com/question/30763237
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A 10-month-old child has been brought into the emergency room (ER) by her parents, who state that after few days with low-grade fever, malaise, and rhinorrhea, their child presented with a "barking" cough and increased work of breathing. What condition is this child likely exhibiting?
Answer:
Laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB)
Explanation:
Laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB) can be described as a type of infection of the respiratory tract which is caused by a virus. Due to this, swelling inside the trachea occurs in children which leads to the symptoms associated with barking. Heavy cough and strained voice are characterized in this condition. Fever and flu are also common in this condition.
Hence, we can see that the child represents all the symptoms of Laryngotracheobronchitis.