Competitive inhibition is when an inhibitor reversibly binds to an enzyme at the enzyme active site, competing with the substrate for binding. This type of inhibition is concentration-dependent and can be overcome at higher substrate concentrations.
Explanation:Competitive inhibition is when an inhibitor reversibly binds to an enzyme at the enzyme active site; competing with the substrate for binding. A competitive inhibitor must be a molecule that is structurally similar to the substrate molecule, allowing it to interact with the enzyme active site through similar non-covalent interactions, but it does not, or cannot, undergo the same chemical reaction. When the inhibitor is bound to the active site, it blocks the correct substrate from binding and catalysis from occurring. However, as a reversible inhibitor, it can disassociate from the enzyme eventually allowing for the correct substrate to bind and the catalysis to occur. Because the inhibitor and substrate are in competition for the same active site, inhibition is concentration-dependent. As shown in the below plot of rate of reaction vs. substrate concentration (Figure 19.6.1), the competitive inhibitor slows the rate of reaction, but at higher substrate concentrations, the normal maximum rate can be reached.
What's the disadvantage of using solar energy instead of energy from fossil fuels? A. The amount of sunlight varies throughout the day. B. Solar energy panels are ineffective in tropical regions. C. Excessive use of solar energy leads to pollution of the atmosphere. D. Use of solar energy leads to climate change.
the correct answer is A
Answer:
A. The amount of sunlight varies throughout the day
Explanation:
Solar energy is one of the renewable energy resources that does not cause any pollution or harm to the environment. Tropical regions receive ample sunlight for the most part of the year and are best suited to use solar energy as an energy source. However, solar energy usage depends on the availability of sun in the sky that varies throughout the day and also exhibits seasonal changes. On the other hand, availability of fossil fuels does not vary on daily basis.
A new species is discovered and scientists are trying to classify it. One of the key features found is that the species is entirely dependent on other organisms for its food necessary to sustain life. What type of species is this? A. Autotrophic B. Mixotrophic C. Producer D. Heterotrophic
Answer: Option D
Explanation: The organism that cannot synthesize their own food are kept in the category of heterotrophs. These organism derive their energy from the organism that make food.
These organisms lack the ability of making food by the help of the process photosynthesis. They lack the pigment required for this process.
These kinds of organisms are termed as Heterotrophic organism.
Answer:
D>)Heterotrophic
Explanation:
just took test
Amino acids are bound together by a chemical bond known as an amino acid bond to form proteins.A) TrueB) False
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Amino acids are held together by a bond called a peptide bond and not an amino acid bond. A peptide bond is a form of covalent bond that links two amino acids. This is also known as an amide bond. In the making of proteins, peptide bonds link the carboxyl group of one amino acid to the amino group of another.
Which factors can influence the effect of drugs on the human body? check all that apply.the physical state of the userthe type of drug that is takenthe place in which the drug is takenthe time of day when the drug is takenthe quality and quantity of the drug takenthe physical and genetic makeup of the user?
The physical state of the user
The type of frug that is taken
The quality and quantity of the drug taken
The physical and genetic makeup of the user
The effect of drug includes: the physical state of the user, the type of drug that is taken, the quality and quantity of the drug taken and the physical and genetic makeup of the user. The correct options are a, b, d, and e.
What is a drug?Anything (apart from food) that is used to cure or relieve the symptoms of an illness or other abnormal state. Drugs may alter mood, consciousness, thoughts, feelings, or behaviour in addition to having an impact on how the brain and the rest of the body function.
A drug is a molecule that, depending on its own inherent properties, has control over your body or mind.
The physical state of the user, the type of drug taken, the quality and quantity of the drug consumed, and the user's physical and genetic make-up all contribute to the effects of the drug.
Thus, a, b, d, and e are correct options.
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True or False? Agriculture refers only to the crops that farmers grow in order to sustain the human population. 1Points A True B False
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Agriculture can mean many other things...
It can mean fishing, etc.
The statement is false. Agriculture refers to a wide range of activities other than just the cultivation of crops, including livestock farming, aquaculture, forestry and even silk production.
Explanation:False. Agriculture is not solely confined to just growing crops for human consumption. The term agriculture actually encompasses a wide range of activities other than just crop cultivation, including the raising of livestock for meat, dairy, and uses such as work and transport, aquaculture, forestry, and beekeeping for honey production. In fact, some forms of agriculture don't involve plant cultivation at all, like sericulture (silk production) and the rearing of insects for other purposes. Therefore, Agriculture refers in broad terms to the cultivation or breeding of plants and animals to provide food, wool, medicinal plants, or other products that sustain and enhance human life.
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Human sperm cells and egg cells are
A haploid, each containing 23 chromosomes.
B haploid, each containing 46 chromosomes.
C diploid, each containing 23 chromosomes.
D diploid, each containing 46 chromosomes.
Answer:
A. haploid, each contain 23 chromosomes.
Explanation:
A egg and sperms are formed after reduction division or meiosis and hence carry just 23 chromosomes , a single copy after division. the number is restored back to 46 after the fusion of egg and sperm to form a zygote.
What are the two main subdivisions of the nervous system and what areas of the body make up these two subdivisions?
Answer:
The nervous system is comprised of two major subdivisions, the central nervous system (CNS) and the peripheral nervous system (PNS).
Explanation:
moment magnitude estimates the amount of energy an earthquake releases and is derived from the amount of displacement along
Answer:
Moment magnitude estimates the amount of energy an earthquake releases and is derived from the amount of displacement along FAULT.
Answer:FAULT
Explanation:GRADPOINT
What is the exchange of segments of DNA between the members of a pair of chromosomes?
Answer:
Crossing-over
Explanation:
Crossing over is an event that occurs during prophase I of meiosis which includes the exchange of genetic material between the members of a pair of chromosomes (between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes). It results in genetic recombination and consequently leads to creation of variation.
Crossing over is a process during meiosis where non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes exchange DNA segments at the chiasma, leading to genetic diversity in offspring.
The exchange of segments of DNA between the members of a pair of chromosomes is known as crossing over. This process occurs during meiosis, a type of cell division that results in the production of gametes. Crossing over involves the exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes at the point where they align and form a structure known as a chiasma. This reciprocal exchange of equivalent DNA segments between a maternal chromosome and a paternal chromosome leads to new combinations of genes, contributing to genetic diversity in offspring. This recombination of genetic material ensures that the resulting gametes carry some DNA from one parent and some from the other, creating a unique set of genes not found in either parent alone.
One idea of biogeography is that the longer an environment is geographically separated from others, the more distinct its species will be. Which area of the earth would you expect to have the most distinct species?
A. Central Asia
B. The midwestern United States
C. Western Europe
D. Australia
the answer would be D.Australia. It’s completely separated from other areas of land by oceans.
According to the idea of biogeography, Australia will have the most distinct species since it is widely separated from all the continents.
Why does Australia have so many distinct species?Because Australia was isolated from the rest of the globe for such a long time, it possesses a unique biodiversity. For millions of years, the Australian continent was surrounded by ocean, allowing the plants and animals on that massive life-raft to evolve in unique ways.learn more about biodiversity of Australia here:
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Mr. Q wants to know why he has developed a fatty liver. You would give him all of the following reasons except: a. When the enzymes oxidize alcohol, they remove hydrogens and high energy electrons and attach them to the niacin coenzyme. b. The accumulation of the niacin coenzymes with their hydrogens and electrons slows down the TCA cycle so that pyruvate and acetyl CoA levels build up. c. The excess acetyl CoA is used to make fatty acids, which accumulate as fat in the liver. d. The enzymes alcohol dehydrogenase and acetaldehyde dehydrogenase break down alcohol to acetyl CoA. e. The excess acetyl CoA is used to make ketogenic amino acids.
Mr. Q's fatty liver is due to enzymes converting alcohol to acetyl CoA, causing an accumulation of acetyl CoA and fatty acids in the liver. However, the excess acetyl CoA is not used to make ketogenic amino acids, making this choice incorrect.
Mr. Q has developed a fatty liver for several reasons, but one provided reason is not accurate. The correct reasons include:
When enzymes oxidize alcohol, they remove hydrogens and high energy electrons and attach them to the niacin coenzyme. This process leads to the production of NADH, which affects other metabolic pathways by altering the NADH/NAD+ ratio.The accumulation of the niacin coenzymes with hydrogens and electrons slows down the TCA (tricarboxylic acid) cycle so that pyruvate and acetyl CoA levels build up.The excess acetyl CoA is then used to make fatty acids, which accumulate as fat in the liver.Alcohol dehydrogenase and acetaldehyde dehydrogenase are enzymes involved in breaking down alcohol to acetyl CoA.The incorrect reason is:
The excess acetyl CoA is used to make ketogenic amino acids. This statement is inaccurate because acetyl CoA is not used to synthesize amino acids; rather, it is used in the production of ketone bodies during ketogenesis.Which term does not describe a type of galaxy? irregular nebular spiral elliptical?
Answer:
Nebular
Explanation:
Depending on the shape and appearance, there are three main types of galaxies. These are namely, irregular, spiral and elliptical galaxies. Nebula refers to any clouds that is made of dust and gases. Galaxies are one of the example of nebula. However, galaxies are not classified as "nebular galaxies".
The term 'nebular' does not describe a type of galaxy. There are three main galaxy types: spiral, elliptical, and irregular. Nebulae, on the other hand, are clouds of gas and dust and not galaxies.
The term that does not describe a type of galaxy is nebular. There are three main types of galaxies: spiral galaxies, which have a distinct central bulge and spiraling arms; elliptical galaxies, which are shaped like an ellipse and lack significant interstellar material; and irregular galaxies, which do not fit into either of the previous two categories and often appear disorganized. In contrast, nebulae are clouds of gas and dust in space and not classified as galaxies.
Complete Question:
Which term does not describe a type of galaxy? irregular nebular spiral elliptical?
Which of the following is a reason why sticky end producing restriction enzymes are preferred compared to blunt end ones?
A) Because sticky ends created by any restriction enzymes can be ligated to sticky ends created by any other restriction enzyme.
B) Because sticky ends are more amenable to the mechanism of phosphodiester bond formation by DNA ligase.
C) Because blunt ends can be mistaken as double stranded breaks which are degraded by DNA repair pathways.
D) Because sticky ends can be temporarily held together by hydrogen bonding between the two strands.
E) Because blunt ends can be temporarily held together by hydrogen bonding between the two strands.
Answer:
D) Because sticky ends can be temporarily held together by hydrogen bonding between the two strands.
Explanation:
Restriction enzymes cut the DNA at specific restriction sites and by the mechanism of action they can form two types of ends:
sticky ends-single-stranded overhangs are formedblunt ends-without overhangs.The main advantage of sticky ends (their overhangs) is that they can complementary bind to another overhand formed by the same restriction enzyme. So, for example in cloning, if the DNA of interest and plasmid vector are cut with the same restriction enzyme, that forms sticky ends, fragment of DNA will fit into a bacterial plasmid in one direction.
On the other hand, blunt ends can be inserted into vector in both directions: head-to-tail or tail-to-head.
In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of Adenine present is always equal to the amount of a. cytosine b. guanine c. thymine d. uracil
Answer: Thymine
Explanation: I took the test.
In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of Adenine present is always equal to the amount of thymine.
DNA:
The DNA molecule is a double-stranded molecule made up of nucleotide subunits. The nucleotide subunits found in DNA are Adenine (A), Cytosine (C), Guanine (G) and Thymine. According to the complementary base pairing rule by Chargaff, Adenine base is hydrogen bonded to Thymine while the Cytosine base is hydrogen bonded to Guanine. A-T, G-C etc. These pairing between two complementary bases makes DNA molecule double stranded. The amount of adenine bases in a DNA molecule is equal to that of thymine while the same applies to Guanine and Cytosine. Therefore, in a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of Adenine present is always equal to the amount of thymine.Learn more at: https://brainly.com/question/12499113?referrer=searchResults
How many chromosomes are in a haploid cell?
First you must know that a diploid cell has double the amount of chromosomes of a haploid cell. A diploid cell has 46 chromosomes. When we divide 46 by 2 you get 23. This means that there are 23 chromosomes in a haploid cell.
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Answer:
Haploid describes a cell that contains a single set of chromosomes. The term haploid can also refer to the number of chromosomes in egg or sperm cells, which are also called gametes. In humans, gametes are haploid cells that contain 23 chromosomes, each of which a one of a chromosome pair that exists in diplod cells.
Explanation:
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A male pistol shrimp with protective eye tissue pockets mates with a female shrimp without protective eye tissue pockets. All of the offspring have eye tissue pockets. What is the most reasonable conclusion that can be made about the eye tissue pocket trait in pistol shrimp?
A: It is a recessive, autosomal trait.
B: It is a dominant, autosomal trait.
C: It is a trait that results from multiple alleles.
D: It is a trait that results from incomplete dominance.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Answer:
Option B, It is a dominant, autosomal trait.
Explanation:
let us look at the cross as defined in this case
Let the trait "protective eye tissue pockets " be represented by A
and the trait "without protective eye tissue pockets" be represented by B
The genotype of male with protective eye tissue pockets will be "AA"
The genotype of female without protective eye tissue pockets will be "BB"
The following offsprings will be produced if a cross is carried out between the two parents "AA" and "BB"
AA X BB
AB, AB, AB, AB
Since all the offspring contains both A and B allele but only the traits associated with allele A i.e "protective eye tissue pockets" is expressed over and above the traits associated with allele B.
Thus allele A is a dominant autosomal trait
Type a paragraph about DNA describing the following:
• Describe the structure of DNA and what it is made of and how it is put together.
Use the following terms and underline them in your paragraphs.
Nucleotide
phosphate
deoxyribose sugar
nitrogen base
complementary pairing
hydrogen bonding
antiparallel
supercoiled
histones
Answer:
1. DNA molecule is a double helix of 2 complementary polynucleotide strands;;
2. The two strands coil around each other to form a right-handed double helix;;
3. The strands are antiparallel, i.e. run in opposite directions (one strand runs in
the 5’ to 3’ direction while the complementary strand runs in the 3’ to 5’
direction);;
4. Each (polynucleotide) strand consists of very long chain of nucleotides, with
each nucleotide comprising of a deoxyribose sugar, a phosphate group and one
of the four nitrogenous bases - Adenine, Thymine, Cytosine or Guanine;;
5. Each strand contains a sugar-phosphate backbone – comprising of nucleotides
arranged in sequence, held together by phosphodiester bonds between C3 of
the (deoxyribose) sugar of one nucleotide and C5 of the (deoxyribose) sugar of
the adjacent nucleotide;;
6. The nitrogenous bases are arranged as side groups of the polynucleotide
strands (oriented toward the central axis);;
7. The width between the 2 sugar-phosphate backbones is constant at 2nm, this is
equal to the width of 1 base pair, i.e. 1 purine + 1 pyrimidine;;
8. One complete turn of the double helix measures 3.4nm in length and comprises
10 base pairs;;
9. The double helical nature of DNA results in the surface of the DNA molecule to
have major grooves and minor grooves;;
10. The nitrogenous bases of 1 strand pair with nitrogenous bases of the opposite
strand via hydrogen bonds. There are 2 hydrogen bonds between adenine and
thymine, and 3 hydrogen bonds between cytosine and guanine;;
11. Base pairing is complementary, i.e. adenine pairs with thymine, guanine pairs with cytosine. The base-pairing is specific and the 2 strands are said to be
complementary (i.e. no. of A = no. of T, no. of G = no. of C,);;
12. (extra pt) The DNA molecule is further stabilised by hydrophobic interactions between the stacked nitrogenous bases;;
13. The nucleosomes are connected by linker DNA and associates with H1 forming the nucleohistone complex;
14. Interactions between the H1 histones (histone tails of octamers and linker DNA) results in further coiling into a 30nm chromatin fibre;
15. The 30nm chromatin fibre form looped domains that are attached to a scaffold of non-histone proteins, giving rise to a 300nm fibre;
Final answer:
DNA is a double-stranded molecule with a double helix structure made up of nucleotides, each containing a phosphate, deoxyribose sugar, and a nitrogen base. The strands are held together by complementary pairing of nitrogen bases through hydrogen bonds and are oriented in an antiparallel fashion.
Explanation:
DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid, is the fundamental genetic material found in all living organisms. Its structure is referred to as a double helix, which can be visualized as a twisted ladder. This double-stranded molecule is composed of units called nucleotides, each consisting of three components: a phosphate group, a deoxyribose sugar, and a nitrogen base. There are four types of nitrogen bases in DNA—adenine (A), thymine (T), cytosine (C), and guanine (G)—which are essential for complementary pairing. Adenine pairs with thymine, and cytosine with guanine, via hydrogen bonding. These pairs are the rungs of the ladder, with the deoxyribose sugar and phosphate forming the backbone of the DNA structure. The two strands of DNA run in opposite directions, making them antiparallel, critical for replication and function. Lastly, to pack DNA efficiently within the cell nucleus, it wraps around proteins called histones, forming a compact structure known as chromatin, which can become further condensed into supercoiled forms.
Which process helps increase genetic diversity and variation within species?
A.)meiosis
B.)mitosis
C.)photosynthesis
D.)bacterial fission
Meiosis is the type of process that helps increase genetic diversity and variation within a species.
Answer:
a.meiosis
Explanataon:
Which of the following most often controls the rate of nutrient cycling in ecosystems?A. rate of decomposition of detritusB. primary productivityC. secondary productivityD. both B and C
Answer:
The correct option is A.
Explanation:
Nutrient cycling refers to the process of movement and exchange of various organic and inorganic materials through the biotic and abiotic components of the biosphere. Nutrient cycling is a very important process that ensures that the ecosystem is balanced. The principal factor that controls the rate of nutrient cycling in ecosystem is detritus. Detritus refers to decomposed organic matters. Therefore, the rate of decomposition of organic and inorganic nutrients majorly determine the rate at which nutrient cycling occurs.
What decorative features were used on the prow of the oseberg ship?
a. a female viking head
b. a dragon head
c. a spiral ending in a serpent head
d. none of the above please select the best answer from the choices provided a b c d?
a spiral ending in a serpent head
Answer:
C) A spiral ending in a serpent head.
Explanation:
These are the decorative features used on the prow of the Oseberg ship as follows:
Animal head post from the Oseberg ship Burial is made of wood.Ship burial was a depiction of two highly placed women in the Vikings court.Eyes of the animal are staring wildly, Snarling mouth depiction.The head of the animal is filled with interlacing animal.depiction of animal nostrils flaring.The purpose of the head post is unidentified, might have been used on the prow of the boat or procession.
The sickle-cell allele is pleiotropic (that is, it affects more than one phenotypic trait). Specifically, this allele affects oxygen delivery to tissues and affects one's susceptibility to malaria. Heterozygous individuals who have one normal and one sickle-cell allele have a phenotype that has both costs and benefits. The cost: Under conditions of low atmospheric oxygen availability, individuals heterozygous for this allele can experience life-threatening sickle-cell "crises." The benefit: Such individuals are less susceptible to malaria. Thus, pleiotropic genes/alleles reveal that ________.
Answer:
adaptations are compromises
Explanation:
The pleiotropic gene involved in sickle-cell anemia is an example of heterozygous advantage. This means that the heterozygous genotype is favourale over other two genotypes (recessive homozygous and dominant homozygous). Eventhough it has harmful effect (sickle cell disease carrier) heterozygous genotype enables resistance to infection (malaria) and that is why this genotype is still favourable by natural selection. This phenomenon is evidence of compromise between harmful ad benefit.
Which of the following is not a possible cause of mass extinction?
A. Meteorite impact
B. Failure to evolve
C. Geographic isolation
D. Temperature reduction
***GENERAL SCIENCE***
Answer:
It's C.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C
The length and complexity of a food web in the arctic would be ____________ when compared to one in the tropical rainforest.
Answer:
Explanation:
yes
Final answer:
The Arctic food web is simpler and less complex than that of a tropical rainforest, and the introduction of polar bears onto land due to sea ice loss can disrupt the balance of this delicate ecosystem.
Explanation:
The length and complexity of a food web in the arctic would be less when compared to one in the tropical rainforest. If polar bears move to land to hunt due to loss of sea ice, the balance of the food web may be affected as polar bears may compete with other land predators such as foxes, lynxes, and birds of prey for food sources like caribou, hares, and small rodents. This shift could lead to overhunting of these species and a subsequent imbalance in the food web. Temperate and polar regions generally have less biodiversity than tropical regions due to factors such as lower temperature, less sunlight year-round, and simpler vegetation structure, which all contribute to lower net primary productivity.
The arctic food web on land typically involves fewer levels of trophic interactions compared to more biodiverse ecosystems, such as tropical rainforests, which have complex layered structures and higher biodiversity. Furthermore, arctic organisms like the arctic fox are well adapted to the extreme conditions but are a part of a delicate ecosystem that can be disrupted by changes such as the migration of predators, like polar bears, onto land.
Where in a phylogenetic tree would you expect to find the organism that had evolved most recently?
You would find the organism along the shortest branch
Answer:
The correct answer is at the branch tips.
Explanation:
A diagram that demonstrates the evolutionary associations between different biological species based upon the differences or similarities in the genetic or physical trait is called a phylogenetic tree. In a phylogenetic tree, the tips of the tree branches signify the taxa that are being studied. The most recently evolved species are positioned right at the phylogenetic tree tip.
can someone give me a little help please I don't really understand
Answer:
Active transport
Explanation:
In cellular biology, active transport is the movement of molecules across a membrane from a region of their lower concentration to a region of their higher concentration—against the concentration gradient. Active transport requires cellular energy to achieve this movement.
The chemical reactions involved in respiration in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are virtually identical. In eukaryotic cells, ATP is synthesized primarily on the inner membrane of the mitochondria. In light of the endosymbiont theory for the evolutionary origin of mitochondria, where is most ATP synthesis likely to occur in prokaryotic cells? a. on the nucleoid membrane b. in the cytoplasm c. on the endoplasmic reticulum d. on the plasma membrane
Answer:
d. on the plasma membrane
Explanation:
According to the endosymbiotic theory the origin of mitochondrion is from the prokaryotic organism: primitive host cell (future eukaryotic cell) engulfed prokaryotic cell (endosymbiont) that provided the functions that evolved into mitochondria. Both of them had benefits: the endosymbiont gained protection and some essential nutrients from the host, while host had the energy and oxygen source from the endosymbiont.
So, the plasma membrane of the endosymbiotic prokaryotic cell became the membrane of the mitochondrion.
ATP synthesis in prokaryotic cells, which lack the organelles found in eukaryotic cells, most likely occurs on the plasma membrane, similar to how ATP synthesis occurs on the inner membrane of mitochondria in eukaryotic cells.
Explanation:The chemical reactions involved in respiration in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells do hold a significant similarity. In eukaryotic cells, ATP is primarily synthesized on the inner membrane of the mitochondria. On the other hand, prokaryotic cells do not have mitochondria, but they do perform ATP synthesis. Endosymbiont theory, which proposes that mitochondria were formerly independent prokaryotic cells that were engulfed by another cell, provides a plausible explanation for this. Given that prokaryotic cells do not have the organelles found in eukaryotic cells, ATP synthesis is most likely to occur on the plasma membrane in prokaryotic cells, which is d) in your options.
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A runner is running the 60-meter dash, which is an oxygen-deficient race. What type of energy is the runner's body using to power through the race?
A. Catabolic
B. Aerobic
C. Anaerobic
D. Anabolic
Answer:
C
Explanation:
This type of cellular respiration occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell rather than the mitochondria. It is mainly powered by the glycolysis metabolic pathway that produces pyruvate as an end product of breaking down glucose. The pyruvate, if oxygen is availed to the cells, is converted to acetyl-CoA and enters the Kreb cycle in the mitochondria. However, if oxygen is unavailable (like in this case), the pyruvate is converted to lactic acid. Lactic acid if accumulated in the muscle causes muscle pulls hence needs to be broken down fast by cells and excreted.
Answer:
C. Anaerobic
Explanation:
Why are root tip cells better cells to study than the middle of the roots? a. Cells stop growing at the root tips so you would see more cells dividing b. Root tips are more colorful so you would see more cells dividing c. Only the tips of the roots have a nucleus d. Onion roots grow from the tip so you would see more cells dividing
Final answer:
Root tip cells are better to study than the middle of the roots because they are actively dividing. The root tip contains the actively dividing cells of the root meristem.
Explanation:
The root tip cells are better cells to study than the middle of the roots because they are actively dividing at the apex of the stem. The root tip can be divided into three zones: a zone of cell division, a zone of elongation, and a zone of maturation and differentiation. The zone of cell division is closest to the root tip and contains the actively dividing cells of the root meristem. By studying root tip cells, scientists can observe and analyze cell division and growth processes in plants.
The genes carried by all members of a particular population make up the population’s
A. allele frequency.
B. phenotype.
C. genotype.
D. gene pool.
The answer is D) gene pool
Blood returning to the mammalian heart in a pulmonary vein drains first into the
(A) right ventricle.
(B) right atrium.
(C) left ventricle.
(D) vena cava.
(E) left atrium.
Answer:
(E) left atrium.
Explanation:
Pulmonary veins are veins that carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart (left atrium). These veins are part of the pulmonary circuit:
Venae cavae are a vessels (vena cava interior and superior) that carry deoxygenated blood from the body to the right atrium. From the right atrium through the tricuspid valve the blood goes into the right ventricle. Then, from the right ventricle through the pulmonary valve the blood goes into the main pulmonary artery which carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs (to recieve oxygen). Oxygenated blood from the lungs travels to the heart: two pulmonary veins from each lung to the left atrium.
Blood returning from the lungs via a pulmonary vein enters the heart through the left atrium.
Explanation:Blood returning to the mammalian heart in a pulmonary vein first drains into the left atrium (E). The right atrium receives blood from the systemic circuit that is low in oxygen, which then moves to the right ventricle and is pumped to the lungs via the pulmonary artery. The oxygenated blood from the lungs then returns through the pulmonary veins and enters the left atrium. The pulmonary circulation involves the movement of blood from the right atrium, to the right ventricle, to the lungs, and back to the heart's left atrium.