Answer:
defining characteristics
Explanation:
The nursing diagnosis, also known as the defining characteristics, is the clinical judgment on the response of a person, family or community to health problems, real or potential, or to vital processes, which provide the basis for the selection of nursing interventions and the achievement of objectives for which the nurse is responsible.
It is characterized by:
- It is the exposition of a problem of the user
- It is a conclusion that is deduced
- It is based on subjective and objective data that can be verified.
- It is the exposition of a nursing trial
- It deals with issues that nurses are authorized to attend
- It deals with spiritual, physical, psychological and sociocultural aspects.
- It deals with situations that the nurse can attend independently.
You come upon a child who has collapsed. The child is not breathing normally and does not have a pulse. You are alone and have no immediate access to a phone or other form of communication. Which action would you do first?
Final answer:
When you find a child collapsed without a pulse and not breathing normally, you should immediately start CPR, if you are trained, and seek emergency help at the first opportunity.
Explanation:
Immediate Action for a Collapsed Child
When you come upon a child who has collapsed and is not breathing normally and does not have a pulse, the first action to take, especially if you are alone without immediate access to communication, is to start Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR). Before initiating CPR, ensure that the area is safe for both you and the child. Once safety is confirmed, begin with chest compressions immediately. If you are trained in providing rescue breaths and feel competent to do so, include them in the CPR sequence. Otherwise, performing hands-only CPR is still beneficial. The goal is to artificially circulate blood and oxygen to vital organs until proper medical help can be obtained. After two minutes of CPR, if there is no response and if it's an option, quickly look for help or a phone to call emergency services, then return to the child and continue CPR.
If the child was found submerged in water, remove them from the water first before starting CPR as performing CPR in water is ineffective. In the case of a choking child, if conscious, administer back blows and the Heimlich maneuver if you are trained. For an infant, follow proper choking protocol, which involves turning the baby upside down and giving back slaps. Remember, fast action and proper technique are critical for increasing the chances of survival.
Who is the leading health education specialist? Who believes that the most fundamental outcome of health education is the enabling of individuals to achieve a level of freedom, avoiding unnecessary encumbrances to make enlightened choices?
Answer:
John Seffrin
Explanation:
John Seffrin wrote about health education as the primary tool needed in the pursuit of personal freedom. He believes what is most important when trying to achieve a level of freedom is health education. This is because he claims that it helps an individual avoid encumbrances that are irrelevant and unnecessary to help them make enlightened choices.
A study by Walline et al., (2009) randomly assigned one group of children to wear contact lenses and another group to wear glasses to correct myopia. Did the results of the study indicate any differences between the two groups?
Final answer:
The study by Walline et al. (2009) did not indicate any significant differences between the group of children wearing contact lenses and the group wearing glasses to correct myopia. Both methods showed similar outcomes in terms of visual acuity, comfort, and satisfaction.
Explanation:
The study by Walline et al. (2009) aimed to compare the outcomes of wearing contact lenses versus glasses to correct myopia in children. The researchers randomly assigned one group of children to wear contact lenses and another group to wear glasses. The results of the study showed that there were no significant differences between the two groups in terms of visual acuity, comfort, or overall satisfaction with the vision correction methods.
A nurse assesses an older adult client who reports a 2 day history of vomiting and diarrhea. which findings will the nurse expect during the physical exam?
Final answer:
During the physical exam of an older adult client with a 2 day history of vomiting and diarrhea, a nurse would expect to find signs of dehydration, fatigue, and possible changes in blood pressure and heart rate.
Explanation:
In evaluating an older adult client with a 2 day history of vomiting and diarrhea, the nurse can expect to find signs and symptoms that commonly accompany these conditions. Notable findings may include evidence of dehydration, such as decreased skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, and possibly an orthostatic (postural) change in blood pressure and heart rate indicating volume depletion. The client may also show signs of fatigue due to the loss of fluids and electrolytes.
In assessing dehydration, the nurse should be vigilant for symptoms like a marked decrease in urination, a very dry mouth and throat, and dizziness or lightheadedness with position changes. Due to the prolonged vomiting and diarrhea, which can significantly affect hydration and electrolyte status, additional findings could include changes in mental status, such as confusion, particularly in older adults.
The _____ route of contamination states that once food is eaten that a food handler touched with feces on their fingers, a foodborne illness may result.
Answer: Fecal-oral
as gross as it sounds lol
Answer:
The fecal oral route of contamination
Explanation:
For instance, if a food handlers doesn't wash and tidy his/her hands after using the convenience and get contaminants in food and substances from feces from their fingers, and these foods get ingested, it may cause a food borne illness leading to fecal oral contamination.
During a marriage counseling session, the therapist suggests to Mr. and Mrs. Gallo that they each restate their spouses comments before making their own. The therapist was applying a technique most closely associated with _________.A. EMDRB. psychoanalysisC. cognitive-behavioral therapyD. systematic desensitizationE. client-centered therapy
The technique of having Mr. and Mrs. Gallo each restate their spouse's comments is closely associated with client-centered therapy. This approach encourages active listening, reduces misunderstandings and promotes understanding between the partners.
Explanation:During a marriage counseling session, the therapist suggested that Mr. and Mrs. Gallo each restate their spouse's comments before making their own. This strategy of active listening is most closely associated with client-centered therapy.
Client-centered therapy was developed by Carl Rogers, and is based on the belief that clients have an innate capacity for personal growth and healing. In this framework, the therapist acts as a supportive facilitator, rather than an authority figure, aiding the client's exploration of their feelings, thoughts and behaviors.
In the context of marriage counseling, having each spouse restate the other's comments encourages empathetic listening, reduces misunderstandings, and validates each person's perspective.
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The technique of restating comments before making one's own, as suggested by a therapist to Mr. and Mrs. Gallo, is most closely associated with client-centered therapy, specifically active listening developed by Carl Rogers. This approach maintains emphasis on acknowledging, restating, and clarifying what clients express.
Explanation:During a marriage counseling session, the therapist asked Mr. and Mrs. Gallo to each restate their spouses comments before making their own. This technique is most closely associated with client-centered therapy, specifically active listening. This therapeutic approach, developed by Carl Rogers, involves the therapist acknowledging, restating, and clarifying what the client expresses, and emphasizes unconditional positive regard and self-acceptance.
Cognitive-behavioral therapy is also often used in couples therapy, focusing on current conflicts and issues rather than past experiences or childhood traumas. The goal is to understand how individual behaviors, beliefs, and backgrounds are impacting the relationship. However, in this case, the technique of restating the partner's comments is clearly related to client-centered therapy.
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Nancy consumes fewer kcalories per kg body weight at 14 months than she did at 11 months. This change in appetite probably indicates that she is:
Here is the complete question
Nancy consumes fewer kcalories per kg body weight at 14 months than she did at 11 months. This change in appetite probably indicates that she is:
a.ill and needs medical attention.
b.not as physically active now as when she was 11 months old.
c.in a less rapid stage of growth now.
d.becoming malnourished.
Answer:
in a less rapid stage of growth now
Explanation:
The calorie is a unit of energy that is ubiquitously used in nutrition. A measure of how much energy a food contains is dependent on the number of calories in the food. Estimation by researchers have proven and shown that a gram of carbohydrates has 4 calories, a gram of protein has 4 calories and a gram of fat has 9 calories and Compilation of these three are essential for body body build up.
If Nancy consumes fewer kcalories per kg, the body weight at 14 months will be less rapid than she did at 11 months, it is likely acceptable to justify there is a less rapid stage of growth now in Nancy after consuming fewer amount of calories in subsequent months than earlier.
"The epiphyseal line is the bone marking that results when the growth plate becomes calcified or 'closed.' The line is slightly raised and rougher than the surrounding bone." Based on this passage and your knowledge of bone growth, which of the following describes how the epiphyseal plate is replaced by the epiphyseal line?
a. Osteoclasts break down the cartilage within the epiphyseal line.
b. Osteocytes communicate to the body replace the bone with cartilage.
c. Osteoblasts build the bone needed within the epiphyseal line.
d. Osteocytes maintain the osteoclasts needed to build the bone.
Answer:
c. Osteoblasts build the bone needed within the epiphyseal line
Explanation:
At epiphyseal plate , bone grows in length . Cartilage present in epiphyseal plate continues to grow by the process of mitosis.Osteoblasts are the bone forming cells which move in and ossify the matrix to form the bone. The chondrocytes begin to degenerate then and the large epiphyseal plate is replaced by a thin epiphyseal line.
The epiphyseal plate is replaced by the epiphyseal line due to the action of the osteoblasts that build new bone tissue, thereby calcifying the growth plate and forming the epiphyseal line.
Explanation:The epiphyseal plate is a cartilaginous layer within the long bone where growth occurs. It is gradually replaced by the epiphyseal line as a person reaches adolescence or adult maturity. This happens due to the process of bone growth and remodeling, where osteoblasts build new bone tissue that replaces the cartilage in the epiphyseal plate.
This growth plate calcifies, or hardens, thereby halting bone growth and forming the slightly raised, rough line known as the epiphyseal line. Therefore, the best description would be option 'c': Osteoblasts build the bone needed within the epiphyseal line.
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Willianne is training to run in a half-marathon (13.1 miles). She has run in 5K and 10K races before, but never in a half-marathon. To prepare, Willianne has been following a training plan for the past several months. What are some of the specific effects of endurance training on carbohydrate metabolism?
Answer:
Endurance training promotes adaptations and shifts in substrate utilization and increases the maximal capacity for carbohydrate oxidation (as well as fat oxidation).
Explanation:
Endurance training reduces the reliance on carbohydrate as a source of energy during submaximal excercise. There is an increased effectiveness of insulin to stimulate glucose transport, there’s also an enhanced glucose uptake. Trained muscles are also characterized by increased concentration of glycogen, which is an important factor in the decreased rates of fatigue with prolonged exercise. As it was said, exercise training can increase insulin sensitivity and improve overall glucose homeostasis, which are important in cases of metabolic deseases.
Final answer:
Endurance training enhances glycogen storage and efficiency of use in the muscles, increasing available energy through improved carbohydrate metabolism and delaying fatigue during extended exercise such as a half-marathon.
Explanation:
Endurance training has a significant impact on carbohydrate metabolism, particularly in how the body stores and uses glycogen. During intensive training, such as preparing for a half-marathon, the muscles adapt by increasing their capacity to store glycogen. Glycogen is a form of stored glucose, derived from carbohydrates, which serves as a readily available source of energy for muscle contraction during prolonged exercise.
As the endurance athlete trains, their muscles become more efficient at utilizing glycogen, ensuring that there is a sustained release of glucose to produce adenosine triphosphate (ATP), which is the biochemical way to store and use energy. This process happens through cellular respiration, a metabolic pathway that converts glucose to ATP in the presence of oxygen, which endurance athletes heavily rely on during a race. The practice of carbohydrate loading before an event further maximizes glycogen stores, making more energy available and potentially enhancing performance and delaying fatigue.
Moreover, consistent endurance training can alter fuel utilization, increasing the muscle's ability to oxidize fatty acids. This shift could spare glycogen during exercise, preventing the runner from “hitting the wall,” a state where glycogen stores are depleted, and the body has to rely on less efficient energy sources like fats. Therefore, combined with a strategic diet, endurance training profoundly affects carbohydrate metabolism.
Litigation resulting from improper restraint use is a common nursing legal issue. A nursing student is listing points related to the use of restraints. Which factor needs correction?1. Restraints can be used when less restrictive interventions are not successful.2. Restraints can be used when all other alternatives have been tried and exhausted.3. Restraints can be used only to ensure the physical safety of the resident or other residents.4. Restraints can be used anytime without a written order from the healthcare provider.
Answer:
Litigation may be defined as the process of setting any problem or dispute in the court. The litigation must be follow in the health and medicine as well for the proper justice with people.
The restraints is used in the case when no positive response is obtained even after complaining. If the other alternatives are not in use then the restraint is important. The restraints always require the written order that can be given to the health care provider.
Thus, the correct answer is option (4).
Column A Column B Column C Column D textbooks gas money doctor's office co-pay movie tickets tuition parking pass medicine prescription television on-campus food plan car repair insurance payment online game subscription Which column of expenses can be most easily eliminated if income decreases? Column A Column B Column C Column D
Answer:
Column D
movie tickets
television
online game subscription
Answer: The best answer for this is D. I just took the test
Explanation:
Mr. Garcia has been diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease. As it progresses, the ____ cell(s) lining his brain's blood vessels will shrink, and harmful chemicals will enter the brain.
Answer: Endothelial
Hope this helps! :)
Final answer:
In Alzheimer's disease, shrinking endothelial cells in the brain's blood vessels lead to harmful chemicals entering the brain, with amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles causing neuronal death and shrinkage of brain regions like the cerebral cortex and hippocampus.
Explanation:
Mr. Garcia has been diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease, a neurodegenerative disorder marked by cognitive decline and personality changes. As the disease progresses, the endothelial cells lining his brain's blood vessels will shrink, facilitating the entry of harmful chemicals into the brain. This condition is characterized by the buildup of amyloid plaques between brain cells and neurofibrillary tangles inside neurons, leading to synaptic loss and neuronal death. The loss of neurons causes significant cell loss and shrinkage in brain regions like the cerebral cortex and hippocampus, while the ventricles within the brain enlarge due to this cell loss.
The neurotransmitter acetylcholine is also affected in Alzheimer's disease, which impairs neuron communication, further reducing brain functionality. The comparison of brain cross-sections from patients with Alzheimer's disease to healthy individuals illustrates the severity of neurodegeneration, with marked differences in brain volume and structure.
According to Aaron Beck's cognitive theory, one illogical thought process regularly found in depression is _____, the drawing of broad negative conclusions on the basis of a single insignificant event.
The question is incomplete asit does not have the options which are:
a. overgeneralization
b. catastrophizing
c. dichotomous thinking
d. selective abstraction
Answer:
Overgeneralization
Explanation:
During the time period when a person feels depressed, the mind is occupied by the negative thoughts which make a person feel bad about his or her life.
Many psychiatrists has given the theory to solve the psychic problem in which one of the psychiatrists was Aaron Beck who gave the cognitive theory of the depression.
The cognitive theory of the depression states that the negative feelings, behaviour and experience to the environment are the cause of the depressive symptoms.
In the given question, the given condition is a type of cognitive therapy distortion called overgeneralization in which one event or experience is applied to generalize all the experiences of the past and future.
Thus, Overgeneralization is the correct answer.
The illogical thought process found in depression, according to Aaron Beck's cognitive theory, is 'overgeneralization,' where one draws broad negative conclusions from a single event. This cognitive distortion leads to feelings of worthlessness and hopelessness. Cognitive-behavioral therapy aims to address these negative thought patterns.
According to Aaron Beck's cognitive theory, one illogical thought process regularly found in depression is overgeneralization. In this cognitive distortion, a person draws broad negative conclusions on the basis of a single insignificant event. For example, if someone fails an exam, they might think, "I am a total failure; I will never succeed in anything," instead of acknowledging the failure as a one-time event.
Overgeneralization is a common cognitive distortion seen in those suffering from depression, leading to feelings of worthlessness and hopelessness. Cognitive-behavioral therapy often focuses on identifying and reframing such negative and pervasive thought patterns to alleviate depressive symptoms.
Examples of Cognitive Distortions:
All-or-nothing thinking: Viewing situations in black-and-white categories.Jumping to conclusions: Making negative interpretations without definite facts.Overgeneralization: Drawing broad conclusions based on a single event.
A woman is told that her weight has a standard score ( z z ‑score) of − 1.5 . −1.5. This means that:
a. her weight is 1.5 standard deviations below average.
2. her weight is 1.5 pounds above average.
3. her weight is 1.5 pounds below average.
4. her weight is 1.5 standard deviations above average.
Answer:
a. her weight is 1.5 standard deviations below average
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
z score of the weight of the woman = - 1.5
Now,
The relation with the actual value and the z score is given as
x = Average + ( z × Standard deviation )
now,
substituting the value of z = - 1.5
We have
x = Average - 1.5 × Standard deviation
Hence,
z score = -1.5 means a. her weight is 1.5 standard deviations below average.
True or False? Advertising over-the-counter drugs relays the message that if you are experiencing some symptoms, taking drugs is an acceptable option.
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
This is because taking the drug that they are advertising implies that you can solve whatever problems or complications you are having and you wont need to see a specialist who basically robs you of your money and livelihood due to your income.
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which statement best indicates that the client understands the need for long-term treatment?
Answer:
The client agrees to detoxification, rehabilitation, and participation in an aftercare program.
Explanation:
The alcohol addiction may be defined as the dependency of the individual on the alcohol. If the individual is not given alcohol he might develop the anxiety or stress.
The alcohol addiction requires proper medical and other rehabilitation treatment. Detoxification removes the harmful substances of the body that might develop due to the alcohol. The proper family support and rehabilitation of the individual is important to remove the alcohol addiction.
While the government cannot guarantee health and safety for each individual, its role is to provide for maximum health and safety for the community as a whole.A) True B) False
Answer:
(A). True.
Explanation:
'The government cannot guarantee health and safety for each individual, its role is to provide for maximum health and safety for the community as a whole'.
The above statement is true, the government by protecting public health, financing public health sector, improving health policies.
The government through the executive arm of the government appoint people, for example, ministerial appointment to the health ministry, the people appointed will have to work in order to improve the health sector.
The Government also,during planning of national budget, the government release money into the health sector for its improvement.
This improvements in health sector is for the provision for maximum health and safety for the community as a whole.
A nurse is discussing the role of vitamin D in calcium regulation with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?A. "Adequate amounts of vitamin D occur naturally in the diet." B. "Vitamin D3 is preferred over vitamin D2."C. "Vitamin D can promote bone decalcification."D. "Vitamin D increases the absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the intestine."
Answer:
Adequate amounts of vitamin D occur naturally in the diet.
Explanation:
The vitamins are the chemicals that are required in the diet in the small amounts. The deficiency and its excessive presence in the body can cause the disease in the individual.
Two main types of vitamin are fat soluble vitamins and water soluble vitamins. The vitamin D is the fat soluble vitamin and its deficiency can cause rickets. These vitamins must be obtained from the external source and not present naturally in the diet.
Thus, the correct answer is option (A).
By providing benefits that are appealing to employees, Patagonia demonstrates that they view employees as ________ that creates value for the organization.
Answer:
E. Human Capital
Explanation:
Human capital is a unique capital, which is the sum of knowledge, intangible assets, health, personality qualities, skills and experience of an employee that can be of economic value both to an individual and their employer.
Providing benefits that are appealing to employees is a form of investment on employees as human capital, which can increase productivity of employees, thereby creating value for the organization.
A professor at Big State University proposes to study attitudes about obesity in Chile by giving subjects in Chile surveys to complete. Which is a question that the Big State University IRB should ask the researcher in order to determine if this study should be reviewed by a local Chilean IRB or ethics committee, as well as the Big State University IRB? Will the researcher have collaborators at the research site abroad?
Answer:
The obesity may be defined as the deposition of the excessive fat layer on the specific body parts. Obesity occurs due to the increase in the body weight and increases the risk of heart related disease.
As the information given in the question, the university must ask the researcher about the collaboration of the research at the research site in the abroad. The survey must include the individual from the different states and countries. All these surveys must be complied at the different research site present in abroad.
Choosing healthy portion sizes is easier if you equate the portion to an easily recognizable, everyday item. Complete the following sentences.1. A fruit serving is 1 cup of fresh fruit, 1 cup of 100% fruit juice, or one-half cup of dried fruit. A small or medium fruit is about the size of a _____2. Three ounces of meat is equivalent to the size of a _____3. One cup of ready-to-eat breakfast cereal is roughly the size of a _____.4. Two tablespoons of salad dressing, peanut butter, or margarine is the same size as a _____.
A fruit serving is about the size of a tennis ball, three ounces of meat is equivalent to the size of a deck of cards, one cup of ready-to-eat breakfast cereal is roughly the size of a baseball, and two tablespoons of salad dressing, peanut butter, or margarine is the same size as a ping-pong ball.
Explanation:1. A small or medium fruit is about the size of a tennis ball.
2. Three ounces of meat is equivalent to the size of a deck of cards.
3. One cup of ready-to-eat breakfast cereal is roughly the size of a baseball.
4. Two tablespoons of salad dressing, peanut butter, or margarine is the same size as a ping-pong ball.
Which drug can be used to treat three types of seizures (tonic-clonic seizures, complex partial seizures) and status epilepticus?
Answer:
Lamotrigine
Explanation:
Lamotrigine is an adjunctive therapy for the treatment of partial seizures, primary generalized tonic–clonic seizures, and generalized seizures of Lennox–Gastaut syndrome in patients two years of age and above.
Baby Billy calls his favorite blanket a "blankie." When he sees other blankets in the house, however, he does not refer to them as a "blankie" because he uses that name only for his favorite blanket. This is an example of _________.a) underextension. b) overextension. c) referential style. d) holophrasic speech.
Answer:
a) underextension.
Explanation:
Psychologically, underextension can be defined as a classification term used in language to account and relate one object or an entity as opposed to all objects or all entity that is linked to that class. This phenomena is rampant in children when beginning to acquire and reinforce a new language.
In the case of Baby Billy, Baby Billy calls his favorite blanket a "blankie.", he has already learns the word(blanket) for something else callled (blankie), without extending it to other things in the same category because when he sees other blankets in the house, he does not refer to them as a "blankie".
A client exhibits knee instability while performing ball squats. Which of the following should a fitness professional suggest to the client to reduce the discomfort?
Answer:
Decrease the range of motion involved in the exercise.
Explanation:
A ball squats activity is the dorsoflexion of ankle and contraction of muscles around the joint to produce maximal contraction. People who have an unstable knee shall not perform ball squat in depth and shall decrease the range of motion. These people with knee instability shall have a knee flexion restricted to 50-60° so that shear forces applied on posterior joints are minimized.
When asked to explain why teenage gang membership is rising, Dr. Yale responds, "Generally speaking, these children are driven by conflicts between what they wish to do and what society wishes them to do." It is most likely that Dr. Yale would be a proponent of ____ theory.A. psychodynamicB. social cognitiveC. ecologicalD. cognitive-developmental
Answer:
A. psychodynamic
Explanation:
The theory of psychodynamics argues that behavior is the consequence of psychological forces inherent in the individual that occurs outside of consciousness. The psychodynamic theory adduces 5 propositions they are.
1. That we behave unconsciously
2. Conflicts arise in our mind
3. Personality begins to be formed by early childhood experiences.
4. The way we think about ourselves influences how we socialize with others.
5. Having a developed personality influences how we handle sexual or aggressive feelings if we are dependent instead of independent
The psychodynamic orientation in the field of mental health follows a line that includes psychoanalytic thinking, based on the fact that the act of conduct is always an act with meaning and purpose, regardless of whether or not the subject possesses knowledge of same. The methodology derived from this conception points, consequently, to the exploration and objectification of that internal world of which the subject has no knowledge, considering the inadvertent or unconscious behavior as an essential component of it, precisely because it is considered to be the unconscious which gives meaning and support to manifest behavior. This objective marks the difference that distinguishes it from other methodologies, which treat the inadvertent components of behavior in a more marginal way.
Although the phospholipid molecules can be in constant lateral movement, they very rarely flip from one side of the bilayer to the other. Which of the following could explain this?
A., The molecular attraction between the fatty acid tails is too strong.
B., The head groups are too large to fit between the interior fatty acid tails.
C., The head groups are repelled by the hydrophobic membrane interior.
D., The cholesterol keeps the phospholipids on the correct side.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The cell membrane of the organism are semipermeable which means it allows only some of the molecules to pass through the cell membrane. It structure of the cell membrane is made of phosphorous and lipids.
The two main regions of cell membrane is polar head region which is hydrophillic in nature and other region is the tail region which is non polar hydrophobic region.
The tail regions repeals the head region of the cell membrane.
An optimum number of overlearning opportunities is approximately _____% of the number of trials required for acquisition of the behavior. a. 50% b. 25% c. 33% d. 75%
Answer:
a. 50%
Explanation:
Overlearning is a condition in which an individual undergoes repeated practice after which the main objective of the practice has already be achieved. The probability of acquistion of the behavior in the practice is either the individual was successful after learning it once again or not successful . In both cases, the number of the required outcome is 1 and the number of all possible outcome is 2.
∴ The sample space can be given as:
Sample Space (S) = [tex]\frac{number of required outcome}{total number of possible outcome}[/tex]
Sample Space (S) = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]
= 0.5; (in percentage, we have)
= 50%
Final answer:
In educational psychology, the recommended optimum number of overlearning opportunities is around 50% of the required trials for initial behavior acquisition. Thus,option A is correct.
Explanation:
An optimum number of overlearning opportunities is a concept in educational psychology that refers to the amount of additional practice beyond initial mastery needed to consolidate learning. The commonly recommended amount is approximately 50% of the number of trials required for acquisition of the behavior. This practice ensures that the learned behavior is solidified and can be recalled more easily in the future.
A nurse is teaching a client who is awaiting a heart transplant. Which statement indicates the client understands what is required to help minimize rejection?a) "There is no risk of rejection if the donor heart is an exact match."
b) "I will receive medication before and during surgery which will eliminate the risk of rejection."
c) "I will need medication following surgery to prevent rejection and if my body does not reject the new heart I will not have to take any medication at home."
d) "I will need to take three different types of medications for the rest of my life to help prevent rejection."
Answer:
d) "I will need to take three different types of medications for the rest of my life to help prevent rejection."
Explanation:
Clients who have had heart transplants depends on many factors, including age, health, and response to the transplant and they are constantly balancing and trying to cope with the risk of rejection and with the risk of infection.
They are needed to take follow up measure which involves usage of varieties of complex medications, biopsies of the transplanted heart (to diagnose rejection), and clinical visitations.
They need to understand that there are 'three classes of medications prescribed for a transplant client to help minimize rejection': these are corticosteroids, calcineurin inhibitors, and antiproliferative agents.
A woman has been treated for a tumor of the left breast that has not responded to chemotherapy. The woman has just found out that she has the BRCA mutations and discusses her options with her primary care provider. Which treatment would be most difficult for this woman?
Answer:
Chemotherapy
Explanation:
The philosophy that health has physical, emotional, spiritual, and social components, and that each is just as important as the others is termed___________.
Answer:
Philosophy of Symmetry
Explanation:
In the philosophy of health, we have the philosophy of symmetry, wellness philosophy, and the holistic philosophy. From the philosophy of symmetry point of view, health has "physical, emotional, spiritual, and social component". with all of them being equally important and should always be kept in a balance. The wellness philosophy has 6 dimensions and the holistic philosophy, with environmental and intellectual joining the list of philosophy of symmetry.
Answer:
Wellness
Explanation:
This is a state of complete physical, mental and social-welbeing but not necessarily absence of disease.