Answer:
If the electrical activity of the brain were measured while they were having this negative emotion, then their right prefrontal cortex are more electrically active.
Explanation:
The brain controls many of the actions that people do. It is regarded as the most important organ in a person. When it comes to the positive and negative emotions of a person, the "prefrontal" part of the brain plays a vital role. The right prefrontal cortex governs negative behaviors and feelings while the left prefrontal cortex governs positive behavior and feelings.
It is clearly stated that Tessa and Noah were immediately disappointed by the strong smell of cigarette smoke and cat urine in the house, that they decided to leave. This means that they were having a negative emotion, which in turn proves that the right prefrontal cortex is more electrically active at that moment.
It is common to have an unbalanced electrical activity between the right prefrontal cortex and the left prefrontal cortex. However, in some cases, one side is very active while the other is super inactive. An example of this is a depressed individual. A depressed person will have a super active right prefrontal cortex and a super inactive left prefrontal cortex.
Final answer:
When Tessa and Noah were disgusted by the smells in the house, their negative emotion would have been associated with increased activation of the amygdala in their brains.
Explanation:
When Tessa and Noah were disgusted by the smells of the house, their negative emotion would have been associated with increased activation of the amygdala in their brains. The amygdala is responsible for processing emotions, especially fear and aversion. This reaction is similar to what has been observed in animal research, where odor cues paired with negative experiences lead to aversion and increased amygdala activation. Therefore, in this situation, the electrical activity of Tessa and Noah's amygdala would have been heightened.
Which of the following is most likely NOT a symptom of acylcarnitine translocase deficiency? A. Hyperglycemia. B. Muscle weakness. C. Liver damage. D. High ammonia levels in blood.
Answer:
A. Hyperglycemia is the correct answer
Explanation:
Acylcarnitine translocase deficiency is the disorder in which the body is not able to break fatty acids into energy and due to this too much unused, fatty acids get build in the body.
Symptoms of Acylcarnitine translocase deficiency are
feverblood sugar level gets lowweakness in musclebreathing problemdiarrheaVomitingDue to acylcarnitine translocase deficiency, blood sugar level gets low known as hypoglycemia whereas Hyperglycemia means that sugar levels get high in the blood which is not a symptom of acylcarnitine translocase deficiency.Which document is used to assess risk associated with an applicant's lifestyle and character?a- Investigative Consumer Report.b- Character Assessment.c- Non-medical Risk Assessment.d- Applicant Lifestyle Assessment.
Answer:
a- Investigative Consumer Report.
Explanation:
An investigative consumer report is a document that insurance companies may ask to have information about your lifestyle. To obtain information about how you live, your habits and reputation, the insurance company interviews relatives, colleagues, and friends. After they have collected the necessary information, they evaluated if you are suitable for their insurance service.
Pete's mother is ill and nobody else can take his little sister to school. He has a learning license and is 17. What can he do?
Answer:
He should apply for a Minor Restricted Driver License.
Explanation:
A hardship license – also known as a minor restricted driver license (MRDL) – is a Texas driver license that you can get before you’re 16 years old or without holding your permit for a minimum of 6 months. In order to obtain a hardship license, you must show proof of why you need to drive as soon as possible.
Final answer:
Pete with a learning license faces a dilemma as he cannot legally drive his sister to school without an adult. Alternatives such as seeking help from others should be considered to avoid legal issues. It's crucial for Pete to understand the legal implications of driving with only a learning license.
Explanation:
Pete is in a complex situation as he holds a learning license and wants to help his ill mother by taking his sister to school. As a 17-year-old with a learning license, there are specific legal restrictions he must follow. Typically, a learning license does not allow a person to drive without a qualified adult driver present. Pete's choices are limited, and he needs to consider the consequences of driving without the proper license.
The most responsible action would be to seek alternative transportation for his sister, perhaps reaching out to friends, family, neighbors, or understanding community services that might assist him during this difficult time.
If Pete decides to drive with only a learning license, he may face legal consequences including fines, points on his driving record, or even suspension of his driving privileges. It's essential for Pete to understand the legal implications of his actions before making a decision.
Which nutrient requires the LEAST amount of energy to digest, transport, and store?
1. alcohol
2. carbohydrate
3. fat
4. protein.
Answer:
The correct answer is - option 3.
Explanation:
Fat is one of the major nutrients that are taken by the most of the humans. Fat is easily transported in the body in comparison of other nutrients such as protein, carbohydrates as it is directly enter through the villi.
The storage is also need less energy in comparison to the other nutrients. The digestion of the fat is tough but energy is in over all is less to the other nutrients.
Thus, the correct answer is - option 3.
Among alcohol, carbohydrates, protein, and fat, fat requires the least amount of energy to be digested, transported, and stored due to its efficient conversion and storage in adipose tissue.
Explanation:Of the four options listed: alcohol, carbohydrates, fat, and protein, the nutrient that requires the least amount of energy to digest, transport, and store is fat. This is because fats are a concentrated source of calories and are stored directly in the body's adipose tissue with minimal processing. In comparison, carbohydrates and proteins, require more energy to digest and metabolize while alcohol, although it does have energy value, is not considered a nutrient as it lacks essential elements that the body needs.
Learn more about Nutrient Metabolism here:https://brainly.com/question/28704153
#SPJ3
Which of the following is most likely to be caused by smoking cigarettes?Brain damageStomach ulcersHeart diseaseKidney failure
Answer:
Heart disease is the correct answer.
Explanation:
Smoking is very dangerous for health.
Smoking can cause heart disease, lung cancer, stroke, contracts, asthma.
The chemicals present in the tobacco damage the heart function and structure and damage the lining of the arteries which leads to build the fatty substance and that narrows and clog the arteries due to this blood supply get reduce and this causes heart disease such as heart attack, stroke, and angina.
Answer:
c
Explanation:
A condition in which blunt injury causes some bleeding in the muscle is commonly known as_________.
Answer:
a bruise
Explanation:
Muscle contusion is the injury caused by the mechanical damaging force that occurs without breaking the skin and can cause bruising or crushing or hide other serious internal injuries. The effects of a blunt blow vary according to the force and energy applied to the organism, resulting in a superficial lesion, such as ecchymosis, or injuries to organs and viscera that can compromise the life of the subject, such as a bruise or fracture.
The way to proceed with a bruise is similar in all three cases. It is convenient to apply cold, without direct contact with the skin, for twenty minutes every hour. If the affected area is a limb, it will remain raised above the height of the heart. In third grade, it should be immobilized as if it were a bone lesion. Hematomas should never be manipulated.
A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition?Select one:
A. Exacerbation of his COPDB. Acute pulmonary embolismC. Spontaneous pneumothoraxD. Rupture of the diaphragm
The most likely cause of the patient's condition, considering the given symptoms and his history of emphysema, is Spontaneous Pneumothorax. It is likely that a forceful cough caused air to leak into the space between the lung and chest wall, leading to a lung collapse.
Explanation:The MOST likely cause of the patient's condition, given the acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough, is C. Spontaneous pneumothorax. A person with emphysema has weakened lung tissues that are prone to rupture and can lead to a pneumothorax. This happens when air leaks into the space between your lung and chest wall, pushing on the outside of your lung and making it collapse. The symptoms outlined: barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia, are classic indications of a pneumothorax. Thus, in this case, it seems like an independent event was triggered by a forceful cough, causing the emphysema to worsen into a spontaneous pneumothorax.
Learn more about Spontaneous Pneumothorax here:https://brainly.com/question/33376099
#SPJ3
The most likely cause of the patient's condition is spontaneous pneumothorax. Symptoms align with the clinical features of a pneumothorax, and a forceful cough can exacerbate the condition. Immediate medical attention is essential as it can be life-threatening.
Explanation:The most likely cause of the patient's condition is spontaneous pneumothorax. Spontaneous pneumothorax occurs when there is an abnormal collection of air in the space between the lungs and the chest wall, leading to a collapsed lung. This condition is commonly seen in individuals with emphysema, as the damaged lung tissue is more susceptible to air leaks.
In this case, the patient's symptoms, such as worsening dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia, align with the clinical features of a pneumothorax. It is important to note that a forceful cough can result in increased pressure within the chest, potentially causing an exacerbation of a pneumothorax.
It is crucial for the patient to seek immediate medical attention as spontaneous pneumothorax can be a life-threatening condition. Treatment options may include chest tube placement or surgery.
Learn more about Spontaneous pneumothorax here:https://brainly.com/question/27974865
#SPJ6
You are working to bring a healthcare facility into compliance with the SDS-related provisions of OSHA’s HCS. You interview administrative personnel at the facility. You learn that the facility has compiled a list of all hazardous chemicals to which workers in the facility might be exposed. An SDS corresponding to each chemical on the list has been obtained and filed. For full compliance, you advise that this facility also must:
Answer: 1. the facility must display or keep the SDS for the chemicals in the chemical store.
2. A copy of the SDS is to be with the attending medic incase of accidental exposure
3. Mock drills should be done as refresher on actions to take after a chemical spill/ exposure.
4. Incase an antidote is required, it must be present as long as the chemical concerned is available.
5. Quantity, expiry information should also always be updated.
Explanation:
Which of the following would not be an appropriate activity for the end of a workout?1. slow arm rotations2. power sprints3. jog around the block4. toe touches
Answer:
2. Power sprints
Explanation:
It is dangerous to attempt a high-energy requiring exercise such as sprinting at the end of a workout. The end of the workout is known as a cool down period, in this period, it is wise to exercise with the intent to stop.
It is usually the time to stretch muscles so they are not sore the next day.
Which of the following pieces of equipment is acceptable for use in the prehospital stabilization of suspected cervical spine injuries?
A. 2 double prime′′ times ×4 double prime′′ wood cribbing
B. Soft cervical collars
C. Five-pound sand bags
D. Rigid cervical collars
Answer:
Rigid cervical collars
Explanation:
Rigid cervical collars
it is provided to have better stability to the one suffering from trauma and regarded as precautionary measure. As the name suggest it is composed of tough material which is the only reason for providing better stability by preventing neck movement.
It is provided when patients suffer from various and serious neck injury.
Answer:
D. Rigid cervical collars
Explanation:
A hard cervical collar is used for spine problems or injuries. It limits forward and backward movement more than a soft one does.
A nurse is auscultating the lung sounds of a client who came to the clinic for a physical exam.
The given question is incomplete. The complete question is as follows:
A nurse is auscultating the lung sounds of a client who came to the clinic for a physical exam. There is not any history of lung disease. What should the nurse expect to hear?
a. adventitious breath sounds
b. bronchial breath sounds
c. bronchovesicular breath sounds
d. vesicular breath sounds
Answer:
Bronchovesicular breath sounds .
Explanation:
The inspiration and expirations are equal, this denotes the normal sound in the posterior chest area or mid area of the chest. These sounds might gets disturbed in case of the lung disease.
The nurse should ausculates all the breath sounds from the side to side while moving from the upper chest area to the lower chest area. They must listen the sound laterally, posteriorly and anteriorly. If the normal breath sounds appear, this indicates the bronchovesicular sounds.
Thus, the correct answer is option (c).
Which of the following techniques would surgeons use in mapping the areas of the brain?
Answer:
PET (Positron emission tomography)
Explanation:
The question was incomplete. I think the complete question is the following:
Q. Which of the following techniques would surgeons use in mapping the areas of the brain responsible for specific activities such as movement and speech?
A. Surgeons take imaging tests of the brain by using the PET (positron emission tomography) method through which they anaylze diagonose the deffects or disease.
An important concept within a healthcare organization involves joining two or more healthcare professionals to work on achieving similar goals within a change initiative. This concept is a complex and dynamic process in healthcare and it is known as
Answer:
Collaboration
Explanation:
An important concept within a healthcare organization involves joining two or more healthcare professionals to work on achieving similar goals within a change initiative. This concept is a complex and dynamic process in healthcare and it is known as collaboration.
Which of the following trauma triage criteria would justify transportation to a trauma center based on mechanism of injury alone
Answer:
D. Auto versus pedestrian
Explanation:
Pedestrians are those that use the walk way of the road.
Trauma triage criteria based on mechanism of injury include blunt force, sharp force, projectile, and thermal trauma. These categories help determine the need for transportation to a trauma center. Proper identification of the mechanism is crucial for appropriate and timely medical intervention.
In general, the four categories of trauma mechanisms that would justify such transportation include:
Blunt force: Typically results from a collision, such as those seen in car accidents or falls, leading to significant internal injuries.Sharp force: Involves injuries from objects like knives, which can cause deep lacerations and penetrate critical organs.Projectile trauma: Results from high-velocity impacts, such as gunshot wounds, which can cause severe internal damage.Thermal (burning): Involves injuries from high temperatures, such as burns, which can destroy skin and underlying tissues.Understanding these categories helps in the rapid assessment and decision-making critical for the timely transport of trauma patients to specialized care centers, where they can receive appropriate and potentially life-saving treatment.The correct question is
Which of the following trauma triage criteria would justify transportation to a trauma center based
on mechanism of injury alone?
O Auto versus pedestrian
O Vehicle rollover
Vehicle crash-generated telemetry data
Intrusion into the occupant area greater than 8 inches.
PLEASE HELP ASAP
Which of the following describe a biomedical equipment technician (BMET)? Check all of the boxes that apply.
requires a two-year associate’s degree
installs and maintains biomedical equipment
requires a bachelor’s degree
works in clinical or research setting
allows person to obtain a proficiency certification
requires a state license
It requires a two year associate's degree, installs and maintains biomedical equipment, works in clinical or research setting and allows person to obtain a proficiency certification.
Answer: Options 1, 2, 4 and 5.
Explanation:
A bio medical equipment technician is also known as the bio medical engineer or a bio medical technologist. He is an electro-mechanical technician or he is a technologist who makes sure that all the medical equipment which are required are well maintained or not, do they functional safely and are they properly configured.
A person who wants to be bio medical equipment technician, he requires a two year associate's degree and he maintains the equipment related to the bio medical and works in a research or a clinical setting.
A biomedical equipment technician (BMET) is a professional who installs and maintains biomedical equipment in clinical or research settings. They typically require a two-year associate's degree and can obtain a proficiency certification.
Explanation:A biomedical equipment technician (BMET) is a professional who installs and maintains biomedical equipment in clinical or research settings. They do not require a bachelor's degree but typically require a two-year associate's degree. BMETs can obtain a proficiency certification and may be required to obtain a state license, depending on the state.
Some of the options selected that describe a BMET are: requires a two-year associate's degree, installs and maintains biomedical equipment, works in a clinical or research setting, and allows a person to obtain a proficiency certification.
Learn more about Biomedical Equipment Technician (BMET) here:https://brainly.com/question/36832827
#SPJ3
The spherical compounds made up of bile and phospholipids that transport dietary fat into the intestinal mucosal cells are the.
Answer:
Micelle
Explanation:
Micelle are lipids which are arranged in spherical form in an aqueous solution, and they possess both hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions.
They aid the body in the absorption of molecules that are insoluble in water like lipids and fat soluble vitamins. They also help in the transportation of fat soluble vitamins, complex lipids, to the small intestine.
Final answer:
The compounds made of bile and phospholipids that transport dietary fat are called micelles. These micelles facilitate the absorption of fats by forming chylomicrons in the intestinal mucosal cells, which then enter the lymphatic system and bloodstream.
Explanation:
The spherical compounds made up of bile and phospholipids that transport dietary fat into the intestinal mucosal cells are called micelles. These micelles are critical in the process of fat digestion and absorption. They have a hydrophilic (water-attracting) outer surface and a hydrophobic (water-repelling) core where the lipids are carried. The bile salts and phospholipids make up the outer surface, preparing the fats to be absorbed into the enterocytes of the intestinal lining.
Once the micelles reach the absorptive cells of the small intestine, the lipids they are carrying - which include long-chain fatty acids and monoglycerides - diffuse out of the micelles and enter the enterocytes. Here, the lipids reassemble into triglycerides and form chylomicrons, which are large lipoprotein particles. Chylomicrons are then released into the lymphatic system and eventually the bloodstream to be used by the body.
The American College of Sports Medicine's recommendations for physical activity include a minimum of
Answer:
75 minutes of vigorous aerobic activity per week.
Explanation:
To be healthy the American College of Sports Medicine recommends 150 minutes of moderate aerobic exercise or 75 minutes of vigorous aerobic activities per week. Also, the person should do strength training using weights or resistance.
Vigorous aerobic exercise includes running, swimming, cycling, and aerobic dancing, such as Zumba.
____________ refers to placing demands on the body systematically and progressively over time to cause physiologic adaptation.
Answer:
Overload.
Explanation:
Overload may be defined as the second most important principle that main aim is to improve the physical fitness of the individual. Overload improves the strength of the individual.
Different muscles are involved in the process of overload. Overload can be achieved by lifting the heavier objects for few time. The stress on the muscle is applied during the overload. The continuous overload changes the physiologic adaptation of the body.
Thus, the answer is overload.
they are good source of fiber they Supply the body with very little energy they are unable to insulate the body.
Answer:
The correct answer is - carbohydrate.
Explanation:
Carbohydrate is one of the three main nutrients that are a major source of energy. Carbohydrates provide 4 calories one gets from a gram of carbohydrates.
Fibers are one of the carbohydrates that is helpful in digestion and makes an individual feel full. Carbohydrates are a good source of fiber.
Carbohydrates are not able to insulate the body like fats as they are utilized by the body and do not store for a longer time of period like fat.
Thus, the correct answer is - carbohydrate.
How have severe disability rate for premature infants changed between 1995 and 2006?
Answer:
This became possible because of advancement in medical technologies and proper facilities and social awareness.
Explanation:
This has became possible for several reasons like, proper care during the first week of life, i.e. giving warmth to the baby, infection reduction, better transportation facility to the specialized units. Steroids and surfactant treatment. Reducing the gestation period has also helped in reducing the disability earlier it was 26 weeks and in 2006 it has been reduced to 23 weeks. Awareness camps were conducted to make people aware of pros and cons needed to maintained and also about the social care.
About 20 percent of all children have difficulties that could be connected to behavioral teratogens.
True / False.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
About 20 percent of all children have difficulties that could be connected to behavioral teratogens, but it is hard to link the teratogens with the difficulties because the relation is not simple or direct.
First, it has to be determined if the brain or emotional problems that the kid has are due to behavioral teratogens or not, which can be hard since there are a lot of factors that can influence teratogens and affect the baby differently.
This data for a cohort of females shows the relationship between smoking and incidence of stroke:_________ A) Smoking History of Stroke Cases Person-Yrs of Observation (over 8 yrs) B) Stroke Incidence person-yrs Never smoked C) Ex-smoker D) Current smoker E) What is the relative risk of stroke in women who smoke compared with those who never smoked?
Answer:E
Explanation: The relationship between smoking and stroke should be compared with smokers and non-smokers
Litigation resulting from improper restraint use is a common nursing legal issue. A nursing student is listing points related to the use of restraints. Which factor needs correction?
1
Restraints can be used when less restrictive interventions are not successful.
2
Restraints can be used when all other alternatives have been tried and exhausted.
3
Restraints can be used only to ensure the physical safety of the resident or other residents.
4
Restraints can be used anytime without a written order from the healthcare provider.
Answer:
Restraints can be used anytime without a written order from the healthcare provider.
Explanation:
Medical restraints may be defined as a type of the physical restraints that are used during the medical procedures. This is mainly done to restraint the patient to provide minimum pain and discomfort.
Restraints can only be used on the written statement of the health care providers. This can also be used when low restrictive interventions are unsuccessful. If all other options cannot be used then restraints are used. This only provides the physical safety.
Thus, the correct answer is option (4).
1. Explain how the 4 C's of mental commitment are necessary for one to compete at a high level in sports.
Answer:
The 4 C's of the mental commitment are Concentration, confidence,control and commitment.
Explanation:
These 4 C's are considered to be an important part for successful performance in sports. Concentration is the capability by which a person can maintain the focus on important cues for a certain period. Confidence is the belief in one's own caliber. Control is the capability by which a person maintains its emotional composure despite of various distractions. Commitment is the ability for which a person continues working towards its goal to archive it.
Where should you park the ambulance when responding to a vehicle crash involving a hazardous material spill?
Answer:
In general, you should park uphill and upwind from a hazard.
Explanation:
An elite runner who lives and trains in Colorado is traveling to Florida to participate in an international competition. When should she plan to arrive in Florida to make sure that she is acclimated for the change in environment?
A. 1 to 2 days before the eventB. 7 days before the eventC. 14 days before the eventD. 1 month before the event
Answer:
C. 14 days before the event
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that the elite runner should arrive about 14 days before the event. This is because new climate acclimatization usually happens in a period of two weeks if the individual is completely healthy. This process may vary on the climate as well, since it is faster when the new climate is heat as opposed to cold. Therefore to be safe and ready for the competition the runner should arrive at least 14 days before the event.
Answer:
The main character witnesses the crime.
She shares what she saw with a trusted friend.
She considers whether to change her look so she won't be identified by the perpetrator of the crime.
Her younger brother asks her about standing up to a bully at school, which prompts her to think about her own dilemma.
She pokes around for information about the person she saw commit the crime.
She imagines a debate in which character A and character B give her opposing advice.
She devises a strategy for effectively reporting the crime.
Explanation:
The deductible that applies after the Basic Plan is exhausted and before the Supplemental Major Medical Coverage begins is called:_______
Answer:
The answer is: The broker's deductible.
Explanation:
The broker's deductible is used during the period between coverage of basic and major medical expenses for an insured. The benefits of the basic policy are paid first, and when the benefits of the basic policy are exhausted, the broker's deductible applies. Once the broker's deductible is paid, the main benefits of the medical plan take effect.
The answer is: The broker's deductible.
A client’s left adrenal medulla has been injured in a motor vehicle accident. What is a possible implication of this injury?
Answer:
Change in the hormone levels.
Explanation:
Adrenal medulla is the inner part of the adrenal gland. The adrenal medulla release different hormones and play important role in maintaining the physiology of the body.
The adrenal medulla secretes the epinephrine and nor epinephrine hormone. These hormones prepare the body during the normal condition and in case of fight and flight situation of the body. During injury, the hormone level may gets disturbed.
Thus, the answer is change in the hormone levels.
Answer:
The correct answer is - Disruptions in the levels of epinephrine and norepinephrine.
Explanation:
The adrenal medulla is the inner region of the adrenal gland regulates that are responsible for the fight or flight response. The hormones that are secreted by the adrenal medulla are epinephrine and norepinephrine.
Any type of injury in the medulla of the adrenal can cause disruption in the levels of these two hormones directly as they are released from the left adrenal medulla.
Thus, the correct answer is - Disruptions in the levels of epinephrine and norepinephrine.
As you use alcohol do the automatic functions of the body controlled by the brain like the heartbeat and breathing also become impaired?
Answer:
Yes they do become impaired
Explanation:
In your heart:
Alcohol acts as a vasodilator and causes the peripheral blood vessels to relax resulting in increased peripheral blood flow and in turn a drop in blood pressure. For the body to keep sufficient blood flow to organs, it increases the heart rate and breathing rate
In the brain:
The alcohol is absorbed in the bloodstream and goes to the nrain where it can cause impaired cognitive function which can cause deterioration in the long term
A 29-year-old pregnant woman has had severe vomiting for the last 2 days. Today, she is vomiting large amounts of blood. Her skin is cool and pale and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect: Select one:
A. esophagitis.
B. Mallory–Weiss tear.
C. acute pancreatitis.
D. esophageal varices.
Answer: B Mallory–Weiss tear
Explanation:
This result from tear in the mucus membrane or inner lining at the joining of the oesophagus with the stomach, leading to bleeding .
It results from prolong vomiting from prolonged use of alcohol or bulimia