Answer:
Answered below
Explanation:
A codon is a sequence of nucleotide triplets of messenger ribonucleic acids, or deoxyribonucleic acid. The start codon is defined as the first codon of a messenger ribonucleic acid transcript that is being translated by the ribosomes.
The ability to initiate the right AUG codon determines the correctness of translation. In eukaryotes, this is accomplished by scanning mechanism. In the scanning mechanism, the ribosomal subunit attached to the five prime end of the messenger ribonucleic acid and inspects base to base for an AUG using complementarity with the anticodon of methionyl indicator transfer RNA as the key to identifying AUG.
The start codon always code for a modified methionine in bacteria and codes for methionine in eukaryotes. Alternate start codons are found in bacteria and eukaryotes . They are different from standard AUG codon and are initiated by a separate transfer ribonucleic acid. They are rare in eukaryotes but common in bacteria.
Answer:
The method of identifying the correct codon for transcription is by means of the control STOP codons, which are those that face point mutations of the second, third or first position (the third position is the most imperceptible and usually goes unnoticed) they generate a STOP or stop of the process, causing a premature termination of the translation which causes an incomplete protein to be translated and, in most cases, not functional ... There are also start codons that are those that are in charge of start said process.
The start codon is not only a signal to start the translation, but it is translated effectively, so that, at least before their proteolytic processing, all eukaryotic proteins have a methionine at their amino terminus, which is the amino acid corresponding to the codon according to the genetic code. In prokaryotes, said methionine is modified as N-formylmethionine. This does not mean that all the components of the proteome possess said methionine at its end, since it is common for it to be enzymatically cleaved
Explanation:
Although AUG is the most widely used start codon in eukaryotes, there are other codons that are also valid as the start of translation. Such exceptions are much more common in prokaryotes, where GUG and UUG can be used as alternative translation start codons. For example, Escherichia coli, a bacterium in the Enterobacteriaceae family, uses ATG (AUG in RNA) in 83% of cases, GTG in 14% (GUG in the transcript) and TTG in 3% (UUG in RNA) and still someone else.
2. Is Ellie correct in thinking that TSH is a thyroid hormone? Why is her TSH level low instead of high?
Answer: Ellie is incorrect in thinking TSH is a thyroid hormone. TSH is a pituitary hormone. TSH is the hormone that tells the thyroid to either create more or less of T3 and T4. Ellie’s TSH islow because the hypothalamus is telling the pituitary gland to release lower levels of TSH because the thyroid is pumping out to high of levels of T3 and T4.
Explanation:
Final answer:
Ellie is incorrect because TSH is produced by the anterior pituitary gland, not the thyroid. A low TSH level can lead to a reduced metabolic rate, causing symptoms like weight gain and fatigue. TSH levels are controlled by a negative feedback system involving thyroid hormones T3 and T4.
Explanation:
Ellie is mistaken in thinking that TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) is a thyroid hormone. TSH is actually produced by the anterior pituitary gland and plays a crucial role in regulating the secretion of thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) by the thyroid gland. The thyroid hormones are the ones that are produced by the thyroid gland, not TSH itself.
When there is a deficiency in TSH, it suggests that there is insufficient stimulation for the thyroid gland to produce the thyroid hormones necessary for maintaining a normal metabolic rate. A low metabolic rate can lead to symptoms such as weight gain and fatigue, which are commonly observed in hypothyroidism.
The levels of TSH are regulated through a negative feedback system.
If there's an overproduction of thyroid hormones (as seen in hyperthyroidism), the high levels of T3 and T4 will suppress the release of TRH (thyrotropin-releasing hormone) from the hypothalamus and TSH from the anterior pituitary gland to reduce thyroid hormone production, hence maintaining homeostasis.
Often only small amounts of DNA are found at a crime scene. Which technique uses an enzyme to replicate DNA regions from a small sample of DNA for use in DNA fingerprinting?
Answer:
Polymerase chain reaction(PCR)
Explanation:
PCR is used to replicate the DNA into bigger amount until it is enough to be analyzed by different methods
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A group of scientists is studying a protist species.
The species is currently classified in the phylum Chrysophyta because of its physical characteristics. However, after the scientists analyze the species' DNA, they discover that the DNA is most similar to protists in the phylum Phaeophyta.
What will the scientists most likely do next?
Answer:
Do further testing on the species to discover whether or not the species is related.
Explanation:
Answer:
They will reclassify the species in the phylum Phaeophyta.
Explanation:
according to study island
which oraginsm can be classified in domain Bacteria
A. a predatory organism that depends on hunting plant eaters for food
B. a multicellular organism that reproduces via spores and gets its food from a dead log
C. a photosynthetic organism that undergoes sexual reproduction and produces seeds in cones
D. a unicellular organism that has a simple structure and is commonly found in human intestines
Final answer:
The correct classification for an organism in the domain Bacteria is a unicellular, prokaryotic organism commonly found in human intestines.
Explanation:
The organism that can be classified in the domain Bacteria is D. a unicellular organism that has a simple structure and is commonly found in human intestines. Such organisms are prokaryotic, meaning they lack a defined cell nucleus, and domain Bacteria encompasses these types of unicellular life forms. Members of this domain are quite diverse and can be found in nearly every habitat, which includes being beneficial or benign residents within the human body. To further illustrate, d. bacteria living in the gut of humans fall under this domain because they are unicellular, prokaryotic, and can have positive interactions with their hosts.
In garden peas, tall plants (T) are dominant to short plants (t), and round pods (R) are dominant to constricted pods (r). A true breeding, homozygous tall plant with round pods (TTRR) was crossed with a true-breeding short plant with constricted pods (ttrr). All F1 plants were tall with round pods (TtRr). When the F1 plants were crossed, the F2 generation contain 75 tall/round and 25 short/constricted plants. What can you conclude about the chromosomal location(s) of these genes
Answer:
Based on the given information, the study of different varieties of the garden pea was done, that is, tall plants with round pods having homozygous genotype TTRR, and the short plants with constricted pods having homozygous genotype ttrr. Post crossing the mentioned varieties of garden pea, the F1 generation comprises tall plants with round pods having the genotype TtRr. While when the crossing of F1 generation plants was done, the plants obtained in the F2 generation demonstrated the phenotype, that is, tall plants with round pods, which is 75 in number and short plants with constricted pods, which is 24 in number.
This shows that the genes would have been the linked genes, as they would have been situated very close together on the homologous chromosomes, and because of this linkage, the expression of the genes would have taken together.
In case, if there was no linkage, then the genes would have assorted independently, and the offspring produced in the F2 generation would have shown the phenotypic ratio with the features of tall plants with round pods (9), short plants with round pods (3), tall plants with constricted pods (3), and short plants with constricted pods (1).
Though the above-mentioned situation did not occur and the plants obtained in the F2 generation demonstrated the phenotype, that is, tall plants with round pods, which is 75 in number and short plants with constricted pods, which is 24 in number. This further puts more emphasis on the fact that the genes for both the phenotypes were linked due to which expression of only the mentioned two varieties took place and the other two failed to do so.
W X
Urine is carried from the kidneys
to the urinary bladder.
Urine is temporarily stored before
it is released.
Y Z
Waste products are filtered
through nephrons.
Urine is carried from the urinary
bladder and released outside the body.
The functions of different parts of the urinary system are given in the boxes.
A) W → Y → Z → X
B) W → X → Y → Z
C) Y → Z → W → X
D) Y → W → X → Z
The correct sequence of the functions in the urinary system is b) W → X → Y → Z. This involves urine being transported from the kidneys to the bladder, stored, and then excreted. The nephron filters waste products from the blood to form urine.
The student asked about the sequence of functions in the urinary system. The correct order is W → X → Y → Z: Urine is carried from the kidneys to the urinary bladder (W) → Urine is temporarily stored before it is released (X) → Waste products are filtered through nephrons (Y) → Urine is carried from the urinary bladder and released outside the body (Z).
This aligns with the functions of the urinary system where the nephron filters blood to form urine, which is then transported by the ureters to the urinary bladder for storage and finally excreted via the urethra.
The excretory system filters and deals with waste
materials so that the body can maintain a stable internal
environment called
Answer:
Homeostasis
Explanation:
Homeostasis refers to the body's ability to maintain a stable internal environment (regulating hormones, body temp. by sweating for example, and internal water balance, etc.).
Answer:
Homeostasis
Explanation:
Meiosis produces what types of cells? A. nerve cells B. muscle cells C. egg and sperm cells D. white and red blood cells
Direct evidence can include all of the following except:
A toxicology report
A signed ransom note
A surveillance film
A sample of hair w/o the follicle
A sample of hair without the follicle
Direct evidence can include all of the following except a sample of hair without the follicle. Thus, the correct option for this question is D.
What is Direct evidence?Direct evidence may be defined as a type of evidence that significantly deals with the testimony that attests to the truth and reality of the fact to be proved. In a more simple sense, it may be characterized as evidence that proves a fact directly without any inference or presumption.
If a sample of hair does not have a hair follicle, it does not deliver an example of direct evidence. This is because a hair follicle reveals the exact fact and understanding behind the individual.
And the rest of the options like a toxicology report, a signed ransom note, and a surveillance film all illustrate the examples of direct evidence. If the evidence is significantly real and true, then the fact is conclusively established.
Therefore, a sample of hair without the follicle is a declaration that does not include direct evidence.
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An example of a type of bacteria which is an autotroph is ________
Answer:
Algae
Explanation:
Moving water has been utilized in hydroelectric plants to _________________, but in recent years negative environmental consequences have become known.
A.
provide heat to buildings
B.
refine oil
C.
power train engines
D.
generate electricity
The correct answer is D. Generate electricity.
Explanation
A hydroelectric plant is a construction in which, as its name implies, the movement of water is used to generate electricity. These are located in the cause of a river, where they dam the river water, and allow it to follow its current through a complex of tunnels where the water acquires high pressures. Later, the water meets turbines that are moved by the energy that water brings, which generates that this synthetic energy is transformed into electricity. Therefore, the option that best completes the sentence of the question is D. Moving water has been used in hydroelectric plants to generate electricity, but in recent years negative environmental consequences have been known. The environmental damages of hydroelectric plants can be alteration of terrestrial, aquatic ecosystems and their biodiversity, it also generates changes in the river regime, alteration of natural flood cycles.
Which of the following statements about hormones are correct? Hormones can be peptides, steroids, or amino acid derivatives. Hormones can stimulate the synthesis of target proteins through the activation of specific genes. Hormones can directly activate or inhibit enzymes through the action of signal molecules. Hormones can increase the cellular uptake of metabolites. View Available Hint(s) Which of the following statements about hormones are correct? Hormones can be peptides, steroids, or amino acid derivatives. Hormones can stimulate the synthesis of target proteins through the activation of specific genes. Hormones can directly activate or inhibit enzymes through the action of signal molecules. Hormones can increase the cellular uptake of metabolites. 1, 2, and 4 are correct. 1 and 2 are correct. 1, 2, and 3 are correct. All of the listed statements are correct. Provide Feedback
Answer:
Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct:
"Hormones can be peptides, steroids, or amino acid derivatives."
"Hormones can stimulate the synthesis of target proteins through the activation of specific genes."
"Hormones can increase the cellular uptake of metabolites."
Explanation:
Hormones are basically proteins that are released under particular conditions to bring about a certain response in the body. They can activate genes and even change how cells respond to metabolites, for instance, insulin and glucagon are two hormones that regulate the level of sugar in the blood. Another example is the hormone adrenaline, which is released in the 'flight-or-fight' response to prepare the body in taking action.
Hope that answers the question, have a great day!
Requires the blackworms to incubate 2 min in the test solution. If the worms were accidentally incubated for 4 min, how would the results be affected?
a. The results would not be affected since the test chemicals are known to not affect the pulse rate of blackworms.
b. The results would not be affected since an incubation time of 2 min is simply a time-saving device.
c. The pulse rate would be markedly increased due to excessive absorption of the test solution.
d. The pulse rate would be severely depressed or absent due to death of the worms.
Answer: Option C.
Explanation:
Blackworms are organisms most effeciently used by scientists to study the effect of drugs on the circulatory system. They have a transparent skin which make it easier to observe pulse rate. Drugs easily diffused through the skin of blackworms which cause immediate effect and they are easy to maintain in the laboratory. When the blackworms are incubated with extra 2 minutes, their pulse rate will increased due to excessive absorption of the test solution.
Final answer:
If the blackworms were accidentally incubated for 4 minutes instead of the required 2 minutes, the pulse rate of the blackworms would be severely depressed or absent, possibly leading to the death of the worms.
Explanation:
If the blackworms were accidentally incubated for 4 minutes instead of the required 2 minutes in the test solution, it can affect the results. The correct option would be (d). The pulse rate of the blackworms would be severely depressed or absent due to the extended incubation time, possibly leading to the death of the worms. Incubation time is a crucial factor in experiments as it determines the amount of time for the reaction or process to occur.
Jasmine is conducting an investigation and moves a magnet near a compass, causing the compass needle to move. However, the magnet never touched the compass. This observation is evidence for which characteristics of magnetic fields?
Answer:
This observation shows the ability of the magnetic fields to create lines that can align the position of the magnets.
Explanation:
Compasses have a small magnet on the pointer and this explains why the compass pointer aligns with a magnet, even if the magnet does not touch the compass.
That's because the magnet on the compass pointer creates a magnetic field around it. This magnetic field is capable of creating lines that have the ability to align the position of different magnets, even if they do not touch.
Answer:
They have a north pole and a south pole.
Explanation:
biology work pls help
Answer:
Tall people are normally underweight
Scientists have recently modified the bacteria that cause tooth decay by inserting a fragment of DNA into the bacteria's DNA that prevents it from producing lactic acid. What is the new DNA called?
Answer:
The correct answer would be A) genetic engineering.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A) genetic engineering.
The following information should be considered:
Genetic engineering defined the set of technologies that are applied manipulate the genes of an organism.It involved the isolation, cloning and transfer of of desired genes in to the host genomeLearn more: https://brainly.com/question/5763151?referrer=searchResults
Punnet Square 6. Claud has hereditary rickets, an X-linked dominant disorder. If his partner does not have this
condition, then ... a. If this couple has a son, then what are his chances of having hereditary
rickets? b. If this couple has a daughter, then what are her chances of having hereditary rickets?
Answer:
a) the son will not be affected by rickets (0% chance)
b) the daughter will have rickets (100% chance)
Explanation:
Since only the father has rickets and it is a X-linked dominant trait, the mother has two normal X chromosomes. The X chromosome received from the mother by the son will not result in the rickets since the father will have contributed the Y chromosome and that does not have the gene for rickets. In case of the daughter, she will receive the defective X chromosome from her father, which will cause her to have the rickets disease.
Hope that answers the question, have a great day!
Which conclusion is true based on the information in this passage?
Changing one organism in a food web would not have any effect on any other food web.
o
It is easy to see all the ways that food webs are connected.
Food chains are always separate from each other.
Food webs are connected to each other and sensitive to any changes,
Answer:
True
True
False
True
Explanation:
Answer:
Food webs are connected to each other and sensitive to any changes.
Explanation:
g four pairs of species are given, with descriptions of how they interact. Match each system of differential equations with a species pair, and indicate which species is and which is . (a) represents the population. represents the population. (b) represents the population. represents the population. (c) represents the population. represents the population. (d) represents the population. represents the population.
Answer:
c
Explanation:
Forests help to regulate the global climate by
A.) releasing oxygen
B.) preventing soil erosion
C.) emitting ozone
D.) absorbing carbon dioxide
Answer:
Absorbing carbon dioxide
Forests help regulate the global climate by absorbing carbon dioxide and releasing oxygen through photosynthesis.
Explanation:Forests help to regulate the global climate by absorbing carbon dioxide. They act as carbon sinks, taking in carbon dioxide from the atmosphere during photosynthesis and storing it in their biomass and soil. This helps to reduce the concentration of greenhouse gases, mitigating climate change.
In addition to absorbing carbon dioxide, forests also play a crucial role in releasing oxygen through the process of photosynthesis. They are often referred to as the 'lungs of the Earth' because they produce a significant amount of the oxygen we breathe.
While preventing soil erosion and emitting ozone are important functions of forests, they are not directly related to regulating the global climate.
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Which Punnet square would have 50% of the offspring be heterozygous and 50% of the offspring be homozygous recessive?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Answer:
Punnet square C
Explanation:
It would be DD, DD, dD, and dD, amking it a 50% chance
If y’all can help me on this I’ll be grateful
Complete hydrolysis of a nonapeptide gave 3 ala, 2 phe, 2 asp, gly, and ser. Reaction of the nonapeptide with Sanger's reagent (1-fluoro-2,4-dinitrobenzene) followed by hydrolysis gave N-(2,4-dinitrophenyl) alanine. Partial hydrolysis of the nonapeptide gave the following fragments: gly-ala-phe ala-asp-gly-ala phe-ser-ala ser-ala-phe-asp. Which one of the following is the nonapeptide's pripary structure? A) ala-asp-gly-ala-asp-ala-phe-sor-phe B) ala-asp-gly-ala-phe-ser-ala-phe-b C) ala-phe-asp-gly-ala-asp-ser-phe-ala D) gly-ala-phe-ser-ala-phe-asp-asp-ala
Answer:
Alanine is obtained as the first amino acid, taking into account that the reaction with the Sanger reagent hydrolyzes N- (2,4-dinitrophenyl) alanine. thus with the fragments of the partial hydrolysis they are organized to create a polypetidic chain
ala-asp-gly-ala
gly-ala-phe
phe-be-wing
be-wing-phe-asp
We obtain that the correct sequence of the peptide is "ala-asp-gly-ala-phe-ser-ala-phe-asp"
The primary structure of the nonapeptide is gly-ala-phe-ser-ala-phe-asp-asp-ala, determined by the amino acid composition, Sanger's reagent labeling, and partial hydrolysis results.
Explanation:The primary structure of proteins is simply the sequence in which amino acids are connected by peptide bonds. In your question regarding the primary structure of the nonapeptide, we need to determine the correct sequence of amino acids based on the given information. You provided data from a complete hydrolysis, reaction with Sanger's reagent, and results from partial hydrolysis. Sanger's reagent specifically labels the N-terminal amino acid of the peptide, which in this case is alanine. By analyzing the partial hydrolysis results and the amino acid composition of the nonapeptide, we can deduce the sequence. Considering the consistency with the partial fragments and Sanger's reagent labeling, the correct primary structure of the nonapeptide is gly-ala-phe-ser-ala-phe-asp-asp-ala. This takes into account the counts of each amino acid, the N-terminal label, and the partial hydrolysis results, putting the unique amino acid, glycine, at the N-terminus as indicated by the reaction with Sanger's reagent.
: Hair color is a human trait controlled by 7 genes with a Heritability of 1. Based on this, provide a 1-2 sentence explanation of the correct classification for what type of trait hair color is and how the information provided supports that classification (single-gene trait, polygenic trait, multifactorial polygenic trait, environmentally controlled trait).
Answer:
Polygenic trait
Explanation:
A polygenic trait is a type of trait whose phenotype observed is affected by more than one genes i.e expression of the trait is controlled by not only a single gene but many. These traits include height or skin color and they display that display a continuous distribution; the hair color is controlled by 7 genes as described which is more than more.
Final answer:
Hair color is a polygenic trait influenced by multiple genes, reflected in the heritability score of 1, which implies genetic factors account for the observed variation in hair color among individuals.
Explanation:
Human hair color is classified as a polygenic trait because it is influenced by multiple genes. The heritability of 1 indicates that genetic factors entirely determine the variation observed in hair color among individuals within a population. This classification is supported by the fact that hair color results from the interaction of several genes, each contributing to the production and distribution of melanin, the pigment responsible for hair color. Examples include genes like MC1R, which affects the type of melanin produced, contributing to the range of hair colors from black, brown, blond, to red. Other genes such as TYR and TYRP1 also play significant roles in melanin production and, consequently, in determining hair color.
Guys please I need help. Please show your answers like this
1)
2)
3)
The best answer will get 100 points transferred to their account
Answer:
I think number 10 across is bush because bush meat is raw meat prepared from animals
9 across is headache or vomiting
7 across fruit bats
4 across fever
Differentiate between population density and
population distribution.
Answer:
Explanation:
Population density just represents the average number of individuals per unit of area. Usually, individuals of a certain population are not spread out evenly.
Population distribution describes how the individuals are distributed or spread throughout their habitat, and their most concentrated areas (where you can find a lot of them, ex. humans in the city)
Answer:
Population density is the number of individuals in a population per unit area.
Population distribution is the pattern in which individuals in a population are dispersed in an area.
Explanation: answer on e2021
Many long‑distance swimmers carb‑load before an endurance event like a 5 km swim. Carbohydrate loading involves eating carbohydrate‑rich meals several days to one week before the event. In fact, many groups sponsor dinners the night before a race and serve high‑carbohydrate foods like pasta. However, studies are mixed about the usefulness of this practice. Regardless of its efficacy, what is the reasoning behind carbohydrate loading? Decreasing the amount of fat and protein in the diet helps with weight loss, which can improve endurance and speed. Excess glucose enables the body to produce more ATP, which is stored in the body and can be used during the event. Glucose is stored as glycogen, which can be broken down to supply energy during the event. Excess glucose is stored as muscle glycogen, reducing the amount of lactate generated in muscle during the event. Excess carbohydrates are stored as triacylglycerols, which can be oxidized during anaerobic metabolism.
Answer:
The correct answer is that the storage of glucose is done in the form of glycogen that can be further dissociated to provide energy at the time an event or competition or any kind of physical work out.
Explanation:
The athletes or swimmers generally enrich their bodies by consuming enough foods rich in carbohydrates. The prime reason for getting loaded with carbs is that the carbs present in the form of glucose get accumulated in the body in the form of glycogen that can be further dissociated to provide energy to the body of the athlete at the time of performing any kind of physical work.
The accumulated glycogen in the muscles works to provide energy for prolonged duration and thus helps in bettering stamina. Glycogen, which is a polysaccharide comprises energy that possesses the tendency to move towards the parts of the body that requires a quick burst of energy at the time of doing physical work like swimming.
describe how the host is damaged by the parasite
Answer:
A parasite is an organism that lives within or on a host. The host is another organism. The parasite uses the host's resources to fuel its life cycle. It uses the host's resources to maintain itself.
Explanation:
Chapter 23 Cancer GeneticsCOMPREHENSION QUESTIONS True/False1. Most cancers arise from defects in DNA. 2. The presence of a single mutated gene is sufficient for retinoblastoma cancer to develop. 3. miRNAs play a critical role in initiating tumor development. 4. A single gene mutation may predispose a person to developing cancer. 5. Overactive telomerase enzyme deletes the ends of chromosomes and can cause cancer. 6. Relatively few people inherit all of the genetic changes that cause cancer. 7. Proto-oncogenes do not cause cancer. 8. Most tumors arise from germ-line mutations that accumulate during our life span. 9. Xeroderma pigmentosum includes predisposition to cancer due to defects in a specific DNA repair system.
Answer:
Explanation:
1. Most cancers arise from defects in DNA. True defects in the DNA including mutations can lead to cancer.
2. The presence of a single mutated gene is sufficient for retinoblastoma cancer to develop. False: the presence one mutant copy of the gene of RB1 is not sufficient enough to cause cancer
3. miRNAs play a critical role in initiating tumor development. True: MiRNAs may function as either oncogenes or tumor suppressors under certain conditions. They have been shown as biomarkers for human cancer diagnosis.
4. A single gene mutation may predispose a person to developing cancer. False: many mutations in the cells coupled with other risk factors may predispose a person to developing cancer
5. Overactive telomerase enzyme deletes the ends of chromosomes and can cause cancer. False: Instead the enzyme just keeps adding more and more repeats to the telomereres and the cancer cell can keep dividing without losing DNA and genes at the ends of the chromosomes
6. Relatively few people inherit all of the genetic changes that cause cancer: True: there are some genetic changes that are not inherited but acquired.
7. Proto-oncogenes do not cause cancer. True: they do not cause cancer but a mutation in them might lead to the activation of oncogenes that causes cancer.
8. Most tumors arise from germ-line mutations that accumulate during our life span. False: most common cancers are as a result of somatic or acquired mutation that have accumulated during our life span. Germline mutations are hereditary
9. Xeroderma pigmentosum includes predisposition to cancer due to defects in a specific DNA repair system.
True: a defect in the DNA repair system paritcularly in enzymes invloved in this repair
A virus is often used as a carrier of the corrected gene in gene therapy. What is another name for the harmless virus?
(1 Point)
vector
plasmid
recombinant DNA
CRISPR
2Identify ALL the terms that are synonyms for biotechnology.
(3 Points)
genetic engineering
genetic modification
gene editing
hybridization
3A researcher chooses a plasmid, bacterial DNA, with a gene that gives resistance to the antibiotic ampicillin. She isolates a human gene that codes for a protein and inserts into the bacteria's DNA. Next, she cultures the new bacteria on a nutrient medium contaning the antibiotic ampicillin.
Which of the following would indicate that the bacteria contain the human gene?
(1 Point)
They produce ampicillin.
They are resistant to ampicillin.
They attack the human protein encoded by the human gene.
They produce the human protein encoded by the human gene.
4A clone is an ________copy of an organism.
(1 Point)
identical
similar
different
hybrid
5DNA can be cut up into shorter sequences using
(1 Point)
carbohydrates
enzymes
transgenics
gel electrophoresis
6Genetic engineering involves
(1 Point)
reading a DNA sequence.
editing a DNA sequence.
reinserting DNA into living organisms
all of the above
7How was genetic engineering used to develop treatments for diabetes?
(1 Point)
The gene for human insulin was inserted into the genome of diabetes patients.
The gene for human insulin was inserted into cow and pig genomes and taken from their pancreas.
The gene for human insulin was replaced by the gene for cow or pig insulin so that it wouldn’t be damaged.
The gene for human insulin was inserted into E. coli bacteria so that this microbe could produce an identical version of human insulin
8What is Bt corn?
(1 Point)
A type of corn that produces its own insecticide because of an inserted gene for toxin production
A type of corn that is organically produced and cannot be sprayed with insecticides
Any kind of corn that is genetically modified
Corn that is especially vulnerable to the corn pest, Bacillus thuringiensis
9Identify ALL the techniques that were learned about last week.
(2 Points)
Recombinant DNA
genetically modified organims
de-extinction
transgenics
10Which disease is currently being treated with gene therapy?
(1 Point)
Huntington''s disease
Down's Syndrome
colorblindness
hemophilia
11Identify the food that is not commonly genetically modified.
(1 Point)
corn
tomatoes
peaches
soybeans
12The best illustrations to use to truly understand CRISPR are:
(2 Points)
copy and paste
cut and paste
scissors and glue
camera and scissors
13A scientist finds a gene in the DNA of a wild-growing plant that could increase the amount of lycopene, a cancer fighting agent, in grapefruits. The scientist inserts the DNA into the genes of the grapefruit. What has the scientist just performed?
(1 Point)
hybridization
genetic modification
de-extinction
PCR
14A member of a population of genetically identical cells produced from a single cell is a
(1 Point)
plasmid
mutant
clone
hybrid
15Biotechnology has made wonderful advances in the world. However, certain issues need to be remembered. Identify ALL the issues that should be discussed when using biotechnology?
(3 Points)
medical
societal
ethical
physical
16What is the diagram to the right describing?
(1 Point)
CRISPR
PCR
genetic engineering
transgenics
17Dolly the famous sheep was cloned in 1997. How did they do it?
(1 Point)
Used a plasmid from a bacteria to insert into the sheep
Used a skin cell and placed the DNA into a cell without a nucleus
Used the DNA sequence of another sheep and used CRISPR to insert it into another sheep
Used PCR to make copies of the sheep DNA and inserted it in another sheep
18Which of the following is the first step in gene therapy?Immersive Reader
(1 Point)
splicing the normal gene to viral DNA
allowing recombinant viruses to infect human cells
using restriction enzymes to cut out the normal gene from DNA
identifying the faulty gene that causes the disease
Answer:
the answer to that question is a vector