Signs of a sprain, fracture, or dislocation might include

A: Bruising

B: Pain

C: Swelling

D: All of the Above

Answers

Answer 1
The correct answer should be D: All of the above. 
Answer 2

Signs of a sprain, fracture, or dislocation might include bruising, pain and swelling.

What is sprain?“It is a wrench or twist the ligaments of an ankle, wrist, or other joint violently so as to cause pain and swelling but not dislocation.”Its treatment include: medication, massaging with ice or giving rest to the affected area.What is fracture?“The cracking or breaking of a hard object or material such as bone is known as fracture.”It causes: pain, swelling, bruise, etc.The treatment includes: plaster, braces and surgery.What is dislocation?“An injury or disability caused when the normal position of a joint or other part of the body is disturbed is called dislocation.”It leads to swelling, pain, discomfort, etc.Its treatment include: medication, plaster and surgery.

Hence, the correct option is: D: All of the Above.

To know more about fracture here

https://brainly.com/question/10618232

#SPJ2


Related Questions

What phase of the menstrucal cycle is associated with fertility?

Answers

I believe this would be when it sheds if you get what i mean? 
During Ovolulation the release of a mature egg from the surface of the ovary. This happens occurs midcycle  about two weeks or so before menstruation starts ( a womans "period") During the follicular phase, the developing follicle causes a rise in the level of estrogen.  The egg is  then funneled into the Fallopian tube and towards the uterus by waves of small, hair-like projections. The life span of the typical egg is only around 24 hours. Unless it meets a sperm during this time, it will die. If it is fertilized it will move on to the uterus to implant .

Which type of stretching must be done under the supervision of a coach or a trainer? general stretching sport-specific stretching dynamic stretching static stretching

Answers

It is definitely C. My personal trainer said that to me many times. Hope this was useful

Answer: Dynamic stretching

Dynamic stretching must be done under the supervision of a coach or a trainer.

Explanation:

Dynamic stretching refers to a form of active movement-based type of stretching. It makes use of the muscle to bring a stretch. It takes the body through ranges of motion that prepares an individual for workout or sporting activity. It makes the body ready for physical exertion and sports performance. It increases the range of movement, blood and oxygen flow to soft tissues before exertion. It must be done only under the supervision of a professional sport coach or trainer.

Renee has been trying to conceive a baby for a long time. After studying her medical history and doing an ultrasound analysis, the doctor told Renee that her Fallopian tubes are scarred and may prevent conceiving a baby. Which disorder best describes Renee’s current condition?

a. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
b. cancer
c. Sexually transmitted disease
d. Endometriosis

Answers

Endometriosis because it occurs in the fallopian tubes, ovaries, or intestines. most symptoms include abdominal pain and can prevent pregnancy.

Answer:

endometriosis

Explanation:

A person with dissociative identity disorder has just experienced “switching.” what most likely has happened

Answers

The switching is term to a person who has a dissociative identity disorder as a way of changing his or her subpersonality to another. When the person experience the switching is is likely that the person would change in a different personality of which this person has. Dissociative Identity Disorder is a type of mental disorder where a person has different personalities residing on his or her body.

Answer: Aaron who has different personalities

Explanation: For apx

Many mixed drinks (Long Island Iced Tea, Margaritas, Etc.) have increased amounts of _____ and one of these drinks may equal two, three, or more of a standard drink. The combination can decrease the perception of the driver.
a.) Alcohol
b.) Calories
c.) Proteins
d.) Caffeine

Answers

Answer:

a.) Alcohol

Explanation:

Long Island Iced Tea is a combination of different alcoholic drinks like tequila, vodka, and sour mix with a small amount of cola and lemon juice that intoxicates quickly. It is a type of drink that does not contain tea even though from its name, it can be said to contain tea. It is usually garnished with a lemon wedge and served with ice.

Margaritas is also a combination of tequila, vodka, sour mix with lime juice and sugar. Both Long Island Iced Tea and Margaritas contain a high level of calories and can increase weight gain if one does not exercise often.  So, the combination of both Long Island Iced Tea and Margaritas have a large amount of alcohol which is beyond the standard of a normal drink.  These combinations can decrease the perception of a driver.

Final answer:

Many mixed drinks have increased amounts of alcohol and can equal multiple standard drinks. Consuming these drinks can decrease a driver's perception.

Explanation:

Many mixed drinks, such as Long Island Iced Tea and Margaritas, have increased amounts of alcohol. These drinks can contain two, three, or more standard drinks in terms of alcohol content. Consuming these mixed drinks can impair a person's perception, including the perception of a driver.

After a third arrest for abusing a neighbor's cat, a client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for treatment of antisocial personality disorder. this client has a history of conduct disorder. which action is most appropriate for the nurse assigned to this client?

Answers

The answer to the question above is this: Examining personal feelings toward the client. Based on the history of the client above, it says that he has been diagnosed with conduct disorder. This is a kind of psychiatric disorder wherein a person often violates the basic rights of others and major norms. The behaviors presented by someone who is diagnosed with CD is called as antisocial behaviors. In examining the personal feelings toward the client done by the nurse, the nurse is able to assess of what might be the deeper reason that the client does these actions towards animals and others. 
Final answer:

The most appropriate action for the nurse assigned to a client with antisocial personality disorder and a history of conduct disorder is to establish clear boundaries and rules, provide consistent and structured care, and teach appropriate coping skills and healthy ways to interact with others.

Explanation:

The most appropriate action for the nurse assigned to a client with antisocial personality disorder and a history of conduct disorder is to establish clear boundaries and rules.

Nurses should provide consistent and structured care, setting clear expectations and consequences for behavior. They should also focus on teaching the client appropriate coping skills and healthy ways to interact with others.

In addition, the nurse should collaborate with the treatment team to develop an individualized plan of care that addresses the client's specific needs and goals.

All of the following are subtheories of the triarchic theory of human intelligence except __________ subtheory.
A.
practical
B.
creative
C.
analytical
D.
emotional

Answers

the answer is D(emotional)

Answer: D. emotional subtheory

All of the following are subtheories of the triarchic theory of human intelligence except emotional subtheory.

Explanation:

Triarchic theory of human intelligence put forward that there exist three distinct types of intelligence which are: practical, distinct and analytical. It was formulated by Robert J. Sternberg, a well-known psychologist. It comprises of three subtheories which are: contextual subtheory, experiential subtheory and componential subtheory. Contextual subtheory is the ability to function successfully in the environment, experiential subtheory is creative intelligence and componential subtheory is an individual’s ability to solve problems.

Emotional intelligence means the capability of an individual to identify and manage his or her own emotions and the emotions of others.

In which trimester does the following occur? The placenta begins absorbing nutrients and oxygen from the mother's body. first second third

Answers

Answer:

it begins in the first trimester

Explanation:

Answer:

The placenta begins absorbing nutrients and oxygen from the mother's body during the first trimester

__________ is the drug administration method with the highest risk of damage to the respiratory system.
A. Absorption
B. Injection
C. Inhalation
D. Ingestion

Answers

__________ is the drug administration method with the highest risk of damage to the respiratory system

Ans: C) Inhalation

Answer: C. Inhalation

Explanation:

Drugs administered in the body through inhalation through nostrils can be taken in the form of small droplets. These are taken to the nasal route so that the drug can enter into the windpipe and then finally into the lungs. This way the drug directly enters into the respiratory system and then finally absorbed to the blood stream.

The drug administration through this way irritates the respiratory tract and causes diseases related to the respiratory system. For example, drugs like opioids, may cause labored breathing and makes the symptoms of the asthma worse.

8) If a victim is coughing or wheezing forcefully with a partial airway obstruction:

Answers

If you find yourself in the scenario presented above, do not interfere. Just stay with the victim to make sure that he recovers. The coughing and the wheezing action of the victim will help him to clear his airways of the partial obstruction so that he can recover normal breathing. 

think about the price method for treating an injured athlete. according to PRICE, which three items in a first aid kit would be most helpful for treating a knee injury?

Answers

PRICE stands for protect, rest, ice, compress, and elevate. Three items in a travel first aid kit that would help achieve these aims include a gel ice pack to ice, an ace or elastic sleeve bandage to compress, and something soft to aid the injured athlete in elevating the knee (though not strictly necessary). Acetaminophen or ibuprofen would also be useful to treat pain.

The nurse is assessing the pupils of a patient who has had a head injury. what does the nurse recognize as a parasympathetic effect? dilated pupils rothâs spots one pupil is dilated and the opposite pupil is normal constricted pupils

Answers

Constricted pupils are the parasympathetic normal neurologic response to light shining on the retina. It is called the Pupillary light reflex.
Dilated pupils are a normal sympathetic nervous response to poor lighting, alarm or startle responses, or use of stimulants such as cocaine or amphetamine analogs, known as sympathomimetic drugs. Dilated pupils despite light shining into retinae may indicate increased intracranial pressure caused by or leading to cranial nerve or brain injury.
Roth's spots on the retinae are indicative of retinal hemorrhage, often due to endocarditis (heart valve infection), cancer (leukemia), or diabetic vessel damage. This sign us due to a more chronic condition than acute head injury.

Final answer:

In the context of assessing pupils after a head injury, the nurse would recognize constricted pupils as an effect of the parasympathetic nervous system, part of the body's response to reduce the amount of light entering the eye.

Explanation:

The question asks, "The nurse is assessing the pupils of a patient who has had a head injury. What does the nurse recognize as a parasympathetic effect?" The parasympathetic nervous system primarily works to conserve energy and restore the body to a state of calm. In the context of pupil size, the parasympathetic effect would be constricted pupils.

This response is due to the action of the parasympathetic nervous system that releases acetylcholine onto circular fibers of the iris, causing them to contract. This mechanism decreases the size of the pupils to reduce the amount of light hitting the retina, especially in bright conditions. This effect is part of the body's homeostatic pupillary light reflex, which aims to protect the retina from excessive light and assist in vision sharpness by adjusting the amount of light entering the eye.

THe root stabilizes the tooth and is covered by the

Answers

The root stabilizes the tooth and is covered by cementum.

Answer:

cementum

Explanation:

A patient is scheduled to have a left nephrostomy. this means that the patient will have:

Answers

If a patient will have a left nephrostomy then it means or it is likely that the patient will have an opening in their kidney. It is because the nephrostomy is being done in a way of having an opening, done artificially, in the kidney of the individual in order to create a path when inserting a tube or catheter in the individual.

A left nephrostomy is a procedure where a tube is inserted through the skin into the left kidney to allow urine to bypass any obstructions and drain externally, often critical in conditions like ureteral stones, nephritis, or kidney failure.

A patient scheduled to have a left nephrostomy will undergo a medical procedure to insert a tube through the skin into the left kidney. This tube will drain urine from the kidney directly to the outside of the body. This may be necessary when there are obstructions preventing normal urine flow, such as due to ureteral stones, or when there is a need for the kidney to heal from an injury or surgery. It is also used as a supportive measure in patients with kidney failure who require dialysis. Nephrostomy can also help in cases of nephrolithiasis or nephritis, conditions that affect the kidney's ability to function normally.

Which is the healthiest strategy for coping with strong emotions?

A. Write down the reason you are upset and focus on the person who upset you.
B. Engage in an activity you like such as listening to music or another hobby.
C. Express your emotions freely by yelling and stomping your feet.

Answers

i'd say b
hope i could help

Answer:

I say B too

Explanation:

because that is what I do to stay calm since I have anger issues I listen to music It really help.

A patient with a heart condition complained of adhesions from the scar, leg cramps, and joint stiffness. he seemed to be hurting all over, but no medical reason could be found to explain the symptoms. the best diagnosis for this disorder is:

Answers

The best diagnosis for this disorder is somatic symptoms disorder, which means that the patient has predominant pain pattern. This condition usually occurs when an individual express extreme anxiousness about physical symptoms because of their thoughts and feelings in relation to the symptoms. 

On a visit to the well-baby clinic the parents are upset because their 9-month-old infant has severe diaper rash; one parent wants to know how to treat it and prevent it from recurring. what cause of diaper dermatitis should the nurse include when answering the parent's question?

Answers

Hi.

Diaper rash is most commonly caused by irritation from stool and urine. If a baby diaper is filled with their stool or urine for a prolonged amount of time, it will irritate and cause a rash.

The Nurse should include that this is typical with newborns and babies. They will most likely cry when they need a diaper change because of the irritation in the 'lower' region.

Hope this helps! :)
Final answer:

Diaper dermatitis can be caused by contact dermatitis or a yeast infection. To treat and prevent diaper rash, it is important to keep the diaper area clean and dry, change the diaper frequently, use gentle wipes or water and mild cleansers, apply barrier creams or ointments, and give the baby diaper-free time.

Explanation:

Diaper dermatitis, also known as diaper rash, can have multiple causes. When addressing the parent's question about treating and preventing diaper rash, the nurse should include the potential cause of the dermatitis. One common cause is contact dermatitis, which occurs when the baby's skin comes into contact with irritants such as urine or feces for a prolonged period. The moisture, friction, and lack of air circulation in the diaper area can contribute to the development of diaper dermatitis.

To treat and prevent diaper dermatitis, it is important to keep the diaper area clean and dry. Changing the baby's diaper frequently and using gentle wipes or water and a mild cleanser can help prevent irritation. Applying a barrier cream or ointment, such as zinc oxide, can create a protective layer between the baby's skin and moisture. It is also important to allow the baby's skin to breathe by giving them some diaper-free time.

Learn more about Diaper dermatitis here:

https://brainly.com/question/31718659

#SPJ12

_______ is an approach to assisting dying people that emphasizes pain management and death with dignity. palliative care hospital care hospice care final care

Answers

The answer to this question is hospice care. Hospice care is also known as end of life care where patients are being taken cared of which helps them to be at peace when they are in the final phase of their life.  Hospice care is being provided to patients who are diagnosed of living 12 months or less.   

Hospice care is an approach designed to help dying individuals manage pain and face death with dignity.

Hospice care is the approach designed to assist dying people by emphasizing pain management and living out their final days with dignity. It focuses heavily on providing relief from symptoms, pain, and stress of a terminal illness, aiming to improve the quality of life for both the patient and their family. Hospice care professionals and volunteers deliver not only physical support but also provide psychological and spiritual assistance.

A role model is someone people admire and want to be like. Compare positive and negative role models for drug abuse. Write a paragraph that includes at least 2 characteristics for each type of role model.

Answers

Well, the types of role models for positive and negative effects on drug abuse is really easy to explain. A positive role model is a role model that would tell you that drugs are bad, and not only tell you that but ALSO explain WHY they are bad for you like the negative effects of drugs on the body, they would also help in telling you what to say to someone that offers you drugs such as saying NO or simply walking away. Whereas a negative role model would ENCOURAGE you to do drugs and might tell you that it's "cool" to do the drug because everyone "does it", they would also tell you such things as it will make you feel better and that it will be the greatest feeling that you've ever had. Positive role models will encourage you NOT to do drugs and negative role models will encourage you to DO drugs. 

hope this helps!! :)

The types of role models that have good and negative effects on drug misuse are quite straightforward to explain.

Who is a role model and why?

A role model is a person who serves as an example by influencing others.

A positive role model is someone who tells you that drugs are bad for you and not only tells you that, but also explains WHY they are bad for you, such as the negative effects of drugs on the body. They also tell you what to say to someone who offers you drugs, such as saying NO or simply walking away. A negative role model, on the other hand, would ENCOURAGE you to use drugs and might even tell you that it's "okay" to do drugs because everyone "does it," as well as telling you that it will make you feel better and that it will make you feel better.

Learn more about Drug abuse here:

https://brainly.com/question/13294633

#SPJ2

What disease is caused when fungus grows in the warm, moist area of the groin?

A. Tapeworm

B. Ringworm

C. Jock Itch

D. Athlete's Foot

Answers

the answer is jock ich. tape worms and ringworms are parasites that effect the stomach and intestines. athletes foot is a fungus infection in between the toes.
Final answer:

Jock itch is a disease caused by a fungus growing in the groin area. It is a fungal infection that results in a red, itchy rash.

Explanation:

The disease caused when fungus grows in the warm, moist area of the groin is called Jock Itch. Jock itch is a type of fungal infection that affects the groin area, inner thighs, and buttocks.

It is characterized by a red, itchy rash and can be spread through direct contact with infected individuals or by sharing contaminated clothing or towels. Jock itch is more common in athletes and individuals who sweat a lot, as the warm and moist environment provides an ideal breeding ground for the fungus.

Learn more about Jock itch here:

https://brainly.com/question/32225746

#SPJ12

How long does it take to pass a kidney stone after it reaches the bladder?

Answers

Answer: A stone that's smaller than 4 mm may pass within one to two weeks.  A stone that's larger than 4 mm could take about two to three weeks to pass completely.

Explanation:

Final answer:

Passing a kidney stone from the bladder varies on size and individual circumstances. Drinking a lot of water can speed up the process by increasing urine production. The urine, carrying the stone, moves from the kidney to the bladder through the ureters due to peristalsis, and later passes out of the body.

Explanation:

The length of time it takes to pass a kidney stone after it reaches the bladder can vary greatly depending on the size of the stone and individual factors. However, typically, a small stone may take only a few minutes to pass if lots of water is being consumed, leading to increased urine production, also known as diuresis. In the body, the kidneys create urine that travels to the bladder through structures called ureters. This movement is not merely passive; it's propelled by waves of peristalsis. Ureters are designed to prevent urine from going back into them from the bladder, thus maintaining a one-way movement. It's the subsequent urination process that eventually helps pass the stone out of the body.

Learn more about Kidney Stones here:

https://brainly.com/question/36737099

#SPJ12

If Sam contributes $5,000 a year to his IRA, how can he expect the IRA to provide him with a $30,000 annual income after retirement?
A)The tax advantages of IRAs increase the value of contributions.
B)He will be contributing five times as long as he will be retired.
C)Exponential returns should increase his contributions.
D)The government guarantees a retirement income for IRAs.

Answers

The increasing value should change by a factor of 2/x but let's say it's a secure transaction. An event discharge such as a scam may eliminate that result. IRA tax scams are common so let's not hope that happens. The answer should be around C)
Cheers

Michael was subjected to much stress as an infant due to repeated episodes of family violence. now, as an adult, he shuts down emotionally whenever he starts to experience any type of stress. this response may be because during infancy stress hormones in his brain were

Answers

Michael was subjected to much stress as an infant due to repeated episodes of family violence. Now, as an adult, he shuts down emotionally whenever he starts to experience any type of stress. This response may be because during infancy stress hormones in his brain were: overproduced.

This emotional response by Michael may be because during infancy stress hormones in his brain were overproduced.

What is Stress hormone?

Stress hormones may be defined as those hormones which are secreted in the bloodstream when an individual feels like anxiety, distress, tension, etc. Cortisol is one of the major stress hormones.

During infancy, when a child is subjected to more violence, abuse, etc, the level of stress hormone is overproduced for the whole life. Now, an individual feels any violence or any abnormal activity, he/she shuts down emotionally with no wordings.

Therefore, this emotional response by Michael may be because during infancy stress hormones in his brain were overproduced.

To learn more about Stress hormones, refer to the link:

https://brainly.com/question/1131417

#SPJ2

1- Once a person’s red blood cells are all destroyed by HIV, a person develops AIDS.
T or F?

2-Which of the following ways can HIV NOT be transmitted?

from a mother to her baby

sexual intercourse

sharing needles

airborne transmission

3-
What part of a person’s body does HIV destroy?

liver

all of the vital organs

white blood cells

red blood cells

Answers

1) F, 2) airborne transmission, 3) white blood cells
 hope this helps!

9. What law provides access to government records, with exceptions for records with medical information? A. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act B. Federal Tort Claims Act C. Privacy Act of 1974 D. Freedom of Information Act

Answers

Freedom of Information Act 

The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client that has been prescribed ceftriaxone to take at home.what information should nurse provide regarding this medication? ati

Answers

Ceftriaxone is used to treat bacterial infections  and is an antibiotic but like so many chemical drugs of the pharmaceutics industry it can have serious side effects so the nurse should explain these to the patient taking the drug home to notify her if any of these symptoms occur. These can commonly include black, tarry stools, chest pain, chills, cough, fever, painful or difficult urination, shortness of breath, sore throat,ulcers for example. Often the side effects are worse than what the drug is supposed to do so alternative medicine including herbs if available for the particular ailment are often recommended instead.

The nurse is assessing an adolescent 1 hour after admission for a head injury. the nurse identifies that there have been changes since the baseline assessment, including apnea, bradycardia, and a widening pulse pressure. what is the primary reason for the nurse to notify the physician?

Answers

The answer to the question above is this: The changes suggest that the adolescent’s intracranial pressure is increasing. Given that the injury is specifically in the head and the client is experiencing apnea, bradycardia, and a widening pulse pressure, this indicates the the changes in the baseline assessment is a result of increased intracranial pressure. When there is an increase in the ICP, this results in headache and if persists, this would lead to the damage of the brain and the spinal cord. Increased intracranial pressure happens commonly when someone experiences a head injury, such as internal bleeding and swelling, or the presence of a mass in the brain.

You and your partner are preparing to apply a traction splint to a patient's deformed thigh. as you apply manual traction, the patient resists your efforts and states that the pain is getting worse. you should:

Answers

If the patient resists your efforts and states that the pain is getting worse when doing traction, you should stop and splint the leg in the deformed position.

Forcing splint in this condition might make more injury to the patient. It's safer to stop and wait for further test to assess the patient condition

A 31-year-old male with a history of diabetes had a seizure that stopped prior to ems arrival. he is unresponsive and has rapid, shallow breathing. his pulse is rapid and weak and his skin is cyanotic. the emt should:

Answers

in this case, the emt should: assist the patient's ventilations with a bag-valve mask.
The key factor of this diagnosis is the cyanotic skin. Cyanotic skin is a discoloration on the skin that's most commonly caused by low oxygen saturation (probably related to the diabetes). As a first aid, the emt should make it easier for the patient to inhale as much oxygen as possible.

Final answer:

The EMT should administer high-flow oxygen, ensure a maintained open airway, provide circulatory support, monitor and reassess the patient, and prepare for immediate transport to a medical facility.

Explanation:

The EMT should initially assess for immediate life threats and manage the patient’s airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs). Given the patient’s presentation with rapid, shallow breathing, rapid and weak pulse, and cyanotic skin, high-flow oxygen through a non-rebreather mask should be administered if the patient is breathing, and if not, consider assisted ventilation with a BVM (bag-valve-mask). The patient's unresponsive state necessitates a focus on maintaining an open airway and protecting the spine, as the history of seizures could point to a postictal state or another neurological issue. Circulatory support is critical due to the weak pulse, signaling potential shock or serious cardiac compromise. Immediate transport to a medical facility is necessary, with en route monitoring and reassessment. If the patient’s condition is due to hypoglycemia, which can be common in diabetics and possibly compounded by a seizure, glucose management would be the next step following ABC stabilization.

When caring for a patient who takes numerous medications, it is best to:?

Answers

What are the options?
Other Questions
How were people in the middle colonies different from those in the New England and southern colonies The population of a town is modeled by the equation P = 16,581e0.02t where P represents the population t years after 2000. According to the model, what will the population of the town be in 2020? Given p(a)=0.40, p(b)=0.50. if a and b are independent, what is the value of p(a intersection b)? Find the circumference and area of a circle with a diameter of 10 inches. Leave your answers in terms of pi. C = 5; A = 20 C = 10; A = 20 C = 10; A = 25 C = 5; A = 25 Which of these statements about the early days of the war in the Pacific are true? Check all of the boxes that apply.The United States had lost many planes and ships during the attack on Pearl Harbor.Japan quickly captured many islands and parts of South Asia.The Allies offered no resistance and pulled out of the entire Pacific region.Japan was defeating Allied forces and capturing many prisoners.Japan was suffering few losses of its own. 9 - 12n 2 + 4n 3 - 7n wahts the quotient of 92 and 5 What age group shows the greatest occurence of PTSD sufferers A rectangular box has dimensions of length = 6, width = 4, and height = 5. the measure of the angle formed by a diagonal of the box with the base of the box is A proposed null hypothesis states that there is no difference in the population mean heights of males of two neighboring towns. The sample mean difference is found to be 10 cm, and the standard deviation of the difference of the sample means is 6 cm. Which statement is true? The null hypothesis must be rejected if we choose the 68% confidence level. The null hypothesis must be rejected if we choose the 95% confidence level. The null hypothesis must be rejected if we choose the 99.7% confidence level. The null hypothesis must be rejected if we choose the 100% confidence level. NextReset Puberty began for molly when she was 9 years old. her mother began puberty at 11 and her grandmother at 13. this is an example of a _____ trend. What is the y intercept of y=7?A.(0,7)B.(7,0)C.(7,7)D.(-7,7) Which system of equations can be graphed to find the solution(s) to x^2 = 2x + 3? Knowing what you learned about adjectives, how would you say "an English man" in French? un anglais homme un homme anglais anglais homme Which of the earth's spheres includes its mantle core and crust? Kite PQRS is dilated to form LMNO. what corresponding angle is congruent to angle QRS? type the essay in the box below Which element has a reddish color in a gas and liquid state? Those who have influence in a work group are referred to as significant others and include A 1.0-kg block is pushed up a rough 22 inclined plane by a force of 7.0 n acting parallel to the incline. the acceleration of the block is 1.4 m/s2 up the incline. determine the magnitude of the force of friction acting on the block. You are given a clear solution of KNO3. Using 3 4 sentences (in your own words) explain how you would determine if the solution is unsaturated, saturated or supersaturated. Steam Workshop Downloader