Seasonal variations in the color of the snowshoe hare's fur is an example of ________

Answers

Answer 1

A seasonal variation in the color of the snowshoe hare’s fur is an example of environmental cues fluctuating gene expression. Gene expression is a progression by which the proprietorship of a gene leads to the presence of the phenotype of the equivalent character.



Related Questions

Which immune cells are disrupted when a child is infected with human immunodeficiency virus (hiv)?

Answers

The cells that are disrupted are the CD4+ cells

How do objects with the same charge interact? How do objects with opposite charges interact?

Answers

Two objects that are similarly charged will repel, while two objects with opposite charges will attract. Moreover, a neutral object will attract either charges.

During emerging adulthood, all body systems _____. function optimally age rapidly cease developing begin to develop

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function optimally

Emerging adulthood covers the age between 18 to 25 years old. During this stage of development, 68.4% of young adults reported that their physical health was either very good or excellent, and oftentimes, childhood ailments, such as asthma, are outgrown. Because body systems function optimally at this stage, it is an ideal time for physical work and successful reproduction. 

What occurs when an earthquake causes a sudden vertical change in the sea floor? a. isostasy b. soil creep c. sheet erosion d. a tsunami


apex D. a tsunami

Answers

D. A Tsunami would occur

Answer: d. Tsunami

A tsunami is a natural disaster in which high speed waves generate in the ocean due to the gravitational force exerted by the moon on the water of the ocean resulting in flood. But these may also occur because of the underwater earthquakes, landslides and volcanic eruptions. All these events causes changes in the sea floor.

Therefore, tsunami will occur when an earthquake causes a sudden vertical change in the sea floor.  

Biological rhythms that occur on a daily basis are called _____ rhythms.

Answers

Answer:  "circadian" .
_____________________________________________

"1. what can be done to motivate companies to evaluate training programs"

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as well as the five major categories of outcomes that can be measured to evaluate training effectiveness. The five outcomes (cognitive, skill-based, affective, results, and ROI) used in evaluating training programs were explained. Good training outcomes need to be relevant, reliable, discriminate, and practical. Next, threats to both internal and external validity were discussed. Various evaluation designs were explained with an emphasis on related costs, time, and strength. Return on Investment (ROI) and cost-benefit analysis were explained, and examples given. The chapter concluded with a listing of key terms, discussion questions,The company’s management would need to be made aware of the investment made by the company for the training and the need to summatively evaluate it to determine if the training program is effective, and formatively evaluate it to identify its strengths and weaknesses to better accomplish training. Evaluation is vital to improving a training program, or deciding whether to replace it completely with a better program or a non-training option. (p. 217-218) 2. What do threats to validity have to do with training evaluation? Identify internal and external threats to validity. Are internal and external threats similar? Explain. Answer: If threats to validity exist, the evaluator may question whether a training program was really effective or if possible benefits were the result of other factors. Internal threats to validity affect the believability of the study, while threats to the external validity affect the believability of the program’s benefits for future use. Characteristics of the company, the outcome measures, and the persons in the evaluation study are the internal threats to validity. Reaction to pretest, reaction to evaluation, interaction of selection and training, and interaction of methods are the external threats to validity. Internal and external threats are not similar. Threats to external validity relate to how study participants react to being included in the study and the effects of multiple types of training, whereas internal validity provides confidence that the results of the evaluation are due to the training program and not to another factor. (p. 232) 3. What are the strengths and weaknesses of each of the following designs: posttest-only, pretest/posttest comparison group, pretest/posttest only? Answer: 6-9

A sedimentary rock that shows ripple marks has been found. What do the ripple marks tell about the area where the rock formed?

A. The rock formed at very high temperatures.
B. The rock was blown out of volcano.
C. The rock formed from mollusk shells.
D. The rock formed in a fast-moving stream.

Answers

D is your answer hope this helps

The ripple marks show that the rock is formed in a fast-moving stream. So the correct option is D.

What are sedimentary rocks?

In comparison to metamorphic and igneous rocks, which are generated deep beneath the Earth, sedimentary rocks are formed on or around the surface of the planet. Erosion, weathering, dissolution, precipitation, and lithification are the main geological processes that result in the formation of sedimentary rocks.

The impacts of wind and rain, which gradually reduce huge boulders into smaller ones, are included in erosion and weathering. Boulders and even mountains become sediments, such as sand or mud, as a result of erosion and weathering. Chemical weathering, or dissolution, is one type of weathering. This method uses slightly acidic water to gradually wear away stone. The building blocks for new, sedimentary rocks are produced by these three processes.

New rocks or minerals are created through the processes of precipitation and lithification. Precipitation is the process through which chemicals that precipitate from water give rise to rocks and minerals. For instance, when a lake evaporates over thousands of years, mineral deposits are left behind; this is what happened in California's Death Valley. The process through which clay, sand, and another sediment on the bottom of the ocean or even other bodies of water are gradually compressed into rocks because of the weight of the sediments above them is known as lithification.

Therefore the correct option is D.

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A car has positive acceleration. what information can you infer from this? A. The car is changing direction B. The car is speeding up in the same direction as it traveling C. The car is slowing down is down and changing he direction it is traveling D. The car is slowing down

Answers

B
because velocity talks about the speed and direction of an object


Answer:

The correct answer is option B. "The car is speeding up in the same direction as it traveling".

Explanation:

A positive acceleration is defined as change of velocity upwards the direction that the object has taken. Therefore, a car having a positive acceleration means that the car is speeding up in the same direction as it traveling. Basically, after a positive acceleration, the car is traveling faster in the same direction that it was before.

The spinal cord ends between the first and second lumbar vertebrae. this area is called the:

Answers

The spinal cord ends between the first and second lumbar vertebrae. This area is called the conus medullaris.
In English, this term is translated as 'medullary cone.' It is the lower part of the spinal cord, which is a gathering of nervous tissue and support cells. 

Reef producing coral are called _______.

Answers

the answer is hermatypic

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What do organisms experience because of growing populations?


complex stability


increased competition


rapid maturation


heightened enrichment

Answers

The answer is increased competition.

Answer:

Increased competition

Explanation:

one of the effects of hurricane Katrina, which devastated new orleans in 2005 was the death of almost all of the plants in flooded areas. initially, toxic chemicals and bacteria were suspected as a possible cause. Scientist later determined that the salt concentration in the floodwater caused the plants to die. The death of the plants was most likely due to? A. water moving into plant cells from the surrounding environment. B. Water moving out of plant cells into the surrounding environment.
C. both water and salt moving from plant cells into the surrounding environment.
D. both water and salt moving into plant cells from the surrounding environment.

Answers

 B. Water moving out of plant cells into the surrounding environment is the cause of the plants death in flooded areas in New Orleans in 2005 because of the hurricane Katrina. Since the floodwater has a salt concentration that penetrates into the plant cells.




Final answer:

The plants in the flooded areas of New Orleans died after Hurricane Katrina in 2005 due to the high salt concentration in the floodwaters. This caused water to move out of the plant cells (plasmolysis) leading to dehydration and death.

Explanation:

The death of the plants in the flooded areas of New Orleans after Hurricane Katrina in 2005 was most likely due to B: Water moving out of plant cells into the surrounding environment. This effect is largely related to the concept of osmosis. Essentially, the high salt concentration in the floodwaters created a hypertonic environment, causing the water in the plant cells to move out towards the saltier environment in a bid to balance the concentration. This process, known as plasmolysis, results in dehydration and ultimately the death of the plant.

Furthermore, some plant species, known as halophytes, can tolerate such salty conditions due to special adaptations. However, the majority of the plants in the flood-hit areas of New Orleans were not halophytic, thus could not withstand the high salt concentrations. This demonstrates that while some organisms can well regulate the effects of osmosis, many cannot when faced with extreme conditions.

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The main hazard from a quiet volcanic eruption is a. volcanic gases. b. lava flows. c. geysers. d. pyroclastic flows.   Please select the best answer from the choices provided

Answers

The answer is B) lava flows 
Final answer:

The main hazards from a quiet volcanic eruption are volcanic gases and lava flows. These can have substantial long-term effects on the atmosphere, climate, and terrestrial landscapes. Explosive phenomena like geysers and pyroclastic flows are more characteristic of violent eruptions.

Explanation:

The main hazard from a quiet volcanic eruption is not geysers or pyroclastic flows, as these usually occur in explosive eruptions. Instead, the primary dangers are a. volcanic gases and b. lava flows. Volcanic gases, such as water vapor, carbon dioxide, and sulfur dioxide, are released massive quantities during eruptions. These gases can have long-term effects on the atmosphere and climate. Furthermore, even quiet eruptions can produce enormous amounts of lava. Lava flows can spread rapidly from long cracks during an eruption, forming vast lava plains, like those that exist on the Moon and some of the other terrestrial planets. These flows can cover large areas, causing significant harm to human settlements and ecosystems.

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A client with schizoaffective disorder is engaging in an extremely long conversation about a current affairs in the world. the client goes on to provide the nurse with minute details. the nurse interprets this as suggesting what?

Answers

Depending on the contents of the conversation it could mean a variety of things. If the client is interpreting world affairs correctly he is unlikely to be having a schizophrenic episode. However, if his interpretation is out of the norm, or intently self-focused it is likely that they are having an episode. This may also be indicative of how their medicine is working and if they are taking it.

Lancelets display how many of the four major characteristics of the phylum chordata? 1 2 3 4 next

Answers

The lancelets consist of approximately 32 types of fish-like maritime chordates in the order of Amphioxiformes, with an international dissemination in tropical seas and low temperate, they are commonly found half-buried in sand.  The lancelets show 4 of the major characteristics of the phylum chordata.

 

Cellular (aerobic) respiration takes place in the presence of and with the use of which o the following?

water

carbon dioxide

oxygen

sunlight

Answers

In the presence of oxygen

Cellular (aerobic) respiration takes place in the presence of and with the use of the following: oxygen.

Cellular respiration is the process that converts stored food or glucose into energy called ATP with carbon dioxide and H2O as byproducts. Cellular respiration is either aerobic or anaerobic respiration.

Aerobic respiration is divided into three main stages: Glycolysis, the Citric acid cycle, and electron transport chain.Oxygen is needed to help the process of turning glucose into ATP. The initial step releases just two molecules of ATP for each glucose.The later steps release much more ATP.Most of the reactions of cellular respiration are carried out in the mitochondria.

Thus, Cellular (aerobic) respiration takes place in the presence of and with the use of the following: oxygen.

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In the tonicity of red blood cells activity, why were you unable to read the lab manual through the tubes containing hypertonic or isotonic solution?

Answers

The reason why we were unable to read the lab manual through the tubes containing isotonic and hypertonic solution is  because the cells in those solutions remained intact, causing the solutions to be opaque, in the tonicity of red blood cells activity. The reason why we can't read the lab manual is because the cells in the solutions remained intact.

To locate the epicenter of an earthquake a seismologist must determine all of the following except

A The difference in the arrival times in the p and S waves
B seismograph data from the locations
C the distance from the epicenter to three different seismograph locations
D the intensity of the earthquake

Answers

The answer is B. Seismograph data from the locations
Hoped this helped
Feel free to ask anymore questions here at brainly.com

Answer: i think the answer is actuly D

Explanation: because u dont need to know how intence the earthquake is

hope this helps

Bone marrow transplant taken from a donor and infused through the central vein is coded to what icd-10-pcs code

Answers

The ICD-10-PCS code is 30240G4.

Firstly, select "Administration" (section 3) because the procedure is the administration of bone marrow to the patient. Secondly, select "Circulatory" (section 30) because it is being administered in a vein (circulatory system). Third, select "Transfusion" (section 302) because it is being done a transfusion of bone marrow. Then select "Central Vein" (section 3024) because that's the place of administration in the circulatory system. Lastly, go to "Bone Marrow" (section 30240G) as that is what's being transfused and then choose "Transfusion of Allogeneic Unspecified Bone Marrow into Central Vein, Open Approach" (30240G4) because it is not specified what type of transfusion it is.
Final answer:

A bone marrow transplant is coded in the ICD-10-PCS with a specific seven-character alphanumeric code, which should be referred to in the ICD-10-PCS manual. The code varies depending on procedure details but ensures matching of donor and recipient to avoid GVHD.

Explanation:

The ICD-10-PCS (International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision, Procedure Coding System) code for a bone marrow transplant taken from a donor and infused through the central vein involves a specific code that identifies the type of procedure. During the procedure, it is crucial to have a matching donor to prevent tissue rejection and minimize the risk of Graft-versus-Host Disease (GVHD). After a matching donor is found, the patient's own bone marrow is destroyed through radiation and/or chemotherapy, followed by the intravenous infusion of donor bone marrow stem cells. These stem cells then colonize the recipient's bone marrow to restore its function.

Based on the information provided, it seems like the index terms provided do not directly correlate with a specific ICD-10-PCS code. For the purposes of coding, one would need to refer to the ICD-10-PCS code manual to locate the precise procedure code, which is typically a seven-character alphanumeric code. The provided terms such as bone marrow transplant (792, 794) could refer to the index of a coding manual but not the exact code itself that should be used.

What type of cellular transport do they use for large molecules? what features of the cell membrane permit it?

Answers

this is called active transport or fully permeable

Answer: The type of transport that amoebas use for large molecules is endocytosis and exocytosis.

Explanation: Endo- and exocytosis are two types of active transport. In both of these forms of transport, small spheres of membrane called vesicles are used to move molecules.

How do biological organisms use energy worksheet answer key?

Answers

First, chemical energy from organic molecules is used to make ATP (Adenosine triphosphate) in cellular respiration, after which ATP provides energy for biological processes.

Answer:

Organisms use energy in two steps:

Conversion of food into adenosine triphosphate (ATP):

Organisms harness the chemical energy of the food and convert it into more usable for that is, ATP. The set of chemical reactions involved in this process is termed as cellular respiration. It may include glycolysis, Krebs cycle, electron transport chain, oxidative phosphorylation.

ATP hydrolysis:

Organisms use the energy associated with ATP through a hydrolysis reaction. The hydrolysis of ATP releases ADP, Pi,  and energy. ADP is further hydrolyzed to produce AMP, Pi, and energy.

Which best describes when our scientific body of knowledge was developed? A. It was developed in ancient times. B. It was developed in the 20th century. C. It was developed by scientists throughout history. D. It was developed in the last 300 years.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer will be option C.

Explanation:

Scientific studies started in ancient times but it has been developed throughout time as the study of science and development of scientific knowledge dates back from ancient times. In ancient times scientists were referred to as "natural philosophers" which tried to answer many natural phenomenon and made an attempt to classify the living world like Aristotle, Thales, Theophastrus but the scientific method has been employed since middle ages by philosophers like Ibn al-Haytham in 11th century and is considered as the first scientist as he invented the pinhole camera, studied rainbows and eclipses, and discovered the laws of refraction. The scientific revolution took place after 17th-century in Europe which led to the development of modern science.

Thus, option C is the correct answer.

The correct answer is C. It was developed by scientists throughout history.

Explanation:

Science is the field that studies the world and mos elements on it through the scientific method that is based on observing, questioning, creating a hypothesis, testing, etc. Additionally, science is trigger by a natural human curiosity for understanding the world. Due to this, science and the knowledge obtained through it are not exclusive of one historical period but have been developed throughout history.

Indeed, scientific knowledge can be traced back to ancient societies such as Mesopotamia or Egypt and during all centuries and periods including classical antiquity, the middle ages, the modern era, and the post-modern era it expanded through multiple fields including medicine, physics, chemistry or biology. However, the paradigms and ideas have changed over time as the development of more precise technologies sometimes prove previous theories or ideas are not true.

The only cells in the body that produce leptin are _______ cells.

Answers

Red blood cells or white blood celss

Which of the following statements about mining is true?
a). Mining has no long-term effects on the Earth.
b). Mining is unimportant to the economy.
c). Mining has no ecological impact.
d). Mining allows useful minerals to be extracted from the Earth.

Answers

The answer is D. Mining allows useful minerals to be extracted from the Earth.

Answer: d). Mining allows useful minerals to be extracted from the Earth.

Explanation:

Mining is a process of extraction of useful minerals from the surface, subsurface and deep regions of the earth which are of economic importance. The mining involves the formation of a huge crator on the land and underwater regions which takes long time to recover. It exerts a drastic ecological impact that is it destroys the habitat of plants and animals. The soil of the mining site becomes infertile.

On the basis of above information, d. Mining allows useful minerals to be extracted from the Earth is the correct option.

Which of these is an advantage of using wind as a source of energy? A. Wind energy doesn't pollute the air.
B. Wind turbines take up a lot of space.
C. Wind turbines can produce noise pollution.
D. Wind turbines can harm local wildlife, such as birds.

Answers

the answer to this question is A, as it states the positive effect of wind energy on the environment. 

Answer: A. Wind energy doesn't pollute the air.

Explanation:

Wind energy is a renewable source of energy due to abundance of wind in the atmosphere. The wind energy is harnessed by high speed wind currents used to run the wind turbine. The turbine convert the wind energy into electrical energy.

The wind energy does not generate pollutants like the energy generated by conventional fuels like fossil fuels.

What is required for reactants to form bonds?

Answers

Bond making is generally an Endothermic reaction so input energy would be required to make a reactants bond.

Answer:

energy input

Explanation:

Chemical reactions are the result of the transformation that takes place in substances (the reactants), where atoms rearrange themselves to their initial state, transforming them into what we call "resultants." Thus, chemical compounds undergo changes generating new molecules. For the reaction to occur it is necessary that there is already an energy input during the handling of the reagents. This energy will be used to rearrange the reagent atoms.

A child is admitted in the clinic with nausea, vomiting, constipation, hypophosphatemia, and glycosuria. after talking to the parents, the nurse learns that they are painting the house. what can the nurse deduce from the symptoms? the child is suffering from:

Answers

From the symptoms, the nurse can deduce from the symptoms that the child has a reaction to lead or an allergy.It is also possible that the child suffers from Crohn's disease, which is triggered by a variety of environmental elements.

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Stability returns to disrupted ecosystems because _____.


ecosystem disruptions are never catastrophic


ecosystems adjust to new conditions


conditions return to normal


organisms remain stable

Answers

Because ecosystems adjust to new conditions. Hope this answers your question !

Answer: Ecosystems adjust to new conditions.

Explanation:

Ecosystems have the ability to survive disturbances and damage caused to them and return to their normal state to continue functioning normally.This inherent ability of the ecosystem is known as ecosystem resilience. Ecosystems are able to survive the disturbances and damages by adjusting to the new conditions and recover quickly to again perform their critical functions.

What is occurring in the endocrine system during a "fight or flight" response?

Release of adrenaline by the adrenal glands
Release of cortisol by the adrenal glands
Release of adrenaline by the gonads
Release of cortisol by the gonads

Answers

You're answer would be A. Release of adrenaline by the adrenal glands.

Answer:

Release of adrenaline by the adrenal glands.

Explanation:

Adrenaline hormone also known as epinephrine is an important part of sympathetic nervous system. It is released from adrenal medulla through a sequence of events in a situation of "fight or flight" or we can say in a life threatening situation. This hormone causes our muscles to perform vigorous activities so that body could respond accordingly. Chemically adrenaline hormone is synthesized by using "tyrosine" as a precursor which after a series of enzymatic actions gets converted into L-dopa and then dopamine then nor-adrenaline and finally into adrenaline.

The information in the table shows the possible genotypes resulting from the mating of two heterozygotes aadd. the allele a codes for normal pigmentation, a for albinism, d for dimpled chin, and d for non-dimpled chin. what fraction of offspring would be expected to be albino with a non-dimpled chin?
a. 1/2
b. 1/4
c. 3/4
d. 2/8
e. 1/16

Answers

Admitting that the "a" is a capital A for normal pigmentation and "d" is a capital D for dimpled chin, meaning that these are the dominant traits, the fraction expected to be albino with a non-dimpled chin is of 1/16.
When two heterozygous are crossed and two characteristics are being analysed, the offspring quantity that will possess the two recessive traits can be represented by 1/16. This is easily confirmed when a Punnett square is made. Considering that both parents were heterozygous, on both sides of the crossing in the Punnett square, you would have the following alleles' combination: AD, Ad, aD, and ad. The offspring that would be homozygous recessive (aadd) would correspond to only 1/16. 
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