Answer:
Foam cells
Explanation:
Foam cells are a form of macrophage that is restricted to fatty deposits on blood vessel walls. It feeds on low-density lipoproteins to become enlarge with lipids forming a foam like substance. Hence, it's name foam cells
Five different species of warblers, seed-eating birds, live in the same species of conifer trees. All of the birds migrate to coniferous forests during the summer, and different species reside in different areas in the same tree. They feed on the seeds of the conifer trees, but the different species do not mate with each other.
Which of the following best explains why the different warbler species can all have habitats in the same conifer trees?
a. Not all the warblers are residents in the forest at the same time of the year because of different migration patterns.
b. Physiological differences in beak structure allow the warblers to consume different species of seeds through symbiotic relationships.
c. Resource partitioning of the seeds reduces competition, and the five different species can live in the same tree.
d. Niche overlap occurs between the five different species, and living in the same tree increases competition for seeds.
Correct option is C. The different species of warblers can live in the same conifer trees by utilizing resource partitioning to reduce competition. They do this by specializing in different niches within the same habitat, foraging in different parts of the tree and utilizing different resources or behaviors such as caching seeds.
The question asks why different species of warblers can live in the same conifer trees without competing with each other. The best explanation is option c: Resource partitioning of the seeds reduces competition, allowing the five different species to coexist in the same habitat. Resource partitioning is a process where species divide the resources they use in an ecosystem, in such a way that different species utilize different times, areas, or resources, thereby reducing direct competition between them.
For example, with seed predators like birds that feed on conifer seeds, different species may have evolved unique adaptations such as beak structures that are specialized for extracting seeds in specific ways. These morphological features may allow them to access seeds from different parts of the cones, or utilize different species of conifers that coexist in the same forest. Additionally, behaviors such as caching seeds for later consumption can influence how resources are used over time and space, further reducing competition.
One species of warbler might forage at the treetops, another may stick to the middle branches, and yet another might forage closer to the ground, each thereby specializing in different areas of the same habitat. This is an example of niche differentiation, where similar species coexist in the same habitat by specializing in different ecological niches. Such specialization allows for the maintenance of biodiversity in ecosystems like coniferous forests.
following clear-cutting of a broadleaf forest several hundred years ago, the land was colonized by herbaceous species that were replaced largely over time by shrubs, then by forest trees. Assuming the growth of the shrubs and trees was enhanced by the soil-holding properties of the herbaceous plants, which of the following processes best describe the progression from herbaceous plants to forest trees?
The question is incomplete as it lacks the options which are:
A) primary succession; facilitation
B) primary succession; inhibition
C) primary succession; toleration
D) secondary succession; facilitation
E) secondary succession; inhibition
Answer:
The correct answer will be- secondary succession; facilitation
Explanation:
Secondary succession is the series of changes in the community which takes place on the disturbed or damaged land but previously colonized.
The succession takes place in one of the three ways: Facilitation, inhibition and tolerance model.
Facilitation model of succession occurs when the pioneer species growing in an area modifies the area and make it suitable for survival for themselves and other invading species.
The primary species are replaced by the competitive species which are replaced by another competitive species. Thus, the growing species facilitates the growth of the other species.
In the given question, since the herbs are replaced by the shrubs and then the forests on the disturbed land, therefore, secondary succession; facilitation is the correct answer.
A sudden natural catastrophe resulting in massive die offs would be categorized as a density ________ limiting factor.A. AutonomousB. IndependentC. DependentD. Reliant
Answer:
Independent
Explanation:
The answer would be Independent because in massive die offs the category usually specifies as independent
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Millicent sits up in bed several times a week, shouting and crying as if she is terrified. Her mother takes her to the pediatrician who suggests that she is having night terrors. Upon hearing this, Millicent’s father says, "This is probably just caused by nightmares. She’ll grow out of it!" Is Millicent’s father correct?
Answer:
Nightmares in children may disturb them mentally and a child can individual develop the fear against a particular thing. Children can see fearful images and unrelated pictures in their nightmares.
The Millicent father is not completely right as she does not completely have nightmares. Sleep terrors might occur during NREM ( non-rapid eye movement) sleep. The main and typical treatment is to see whether the fear or terror go away by itself or not otherwise some extra treatment must be given to the child.
An action potential is a. the tiny electrical charge that exists when a. a neuron is neither receiving nor sending information. b. an electrical signal that travels along the axon of a neuron. c. the small gap that exists between adjacent neurons. d. an electrical signal that travels along the dendrites of a neuron.
Answer:
b. an electrical signal that travels along the axon of a neuron.
Explanation:
An action potential is a nerve impulse or an electrical signal that travels down an axon which cause a change in polarity across the membrane of the axon.
In response to an electrical signal from another neuron, sodium ion (Na+) and potassium ion (K+) (i.e gated ion channels) open and close as the membrane reaches its threshold potential. Na+ channels open at the beginning of the action potential, and Na+ moves into the axon, causing depolarization.
Repolarization occurs when the K+ channels open and K+ moves out of the axon, causing a diferent change in polarity between the exterior of the cell and the interior of the cell. The impulse then travels down the axon in one direction only, to the axon terminal where it signals to other neurons.
An action potential is b. an electrical signal that travels along the axon of a neuron
An action potential is an electrical signal that travels along the axon of a neuron. It's a rapid change in voltage across the neuron's membrane that propagates a nerve impulse, essential for neuronal communication. This process is a fundamental component of neuronal communication. When a neuron receives a chemical signal or some form of stimulus, this leads to a sudden reversal in the electrical gradient across the neuron's membrane, initiating the action potential. This electrical signal travels rapidly down the neuron's axon as it conducts the nerve impulse. The phenomenon is marked by a swift change in voltage across the neuron's membrane, where sodium ions rush into the cell, causing the inside to become positively charged compared to the outside. This reversal triggers the signal to ripple down the axon, facilitating communication within the nervous system.
What is true about innate behavior, such as the tendency of bulldogs to want to chase larger animals or cars?
Explanation:
Behaviour is the activity of an organism when they respond to a stimulus. When we talk about an innate behavior, we refer to behaviors with and strong genetic component, this means that they are not affected by environmental factors. This innate behavior is also known as instinct.
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Chloroplasts are organelles that convert light energy to sugars. These organelles are found only in plants. Which organelles are found only in animals?
Answer: centrioles and lysosome
Explanation: centrioles are found in animals and most protists.
They usually occurs in pair and the pair is collectively called centrosome.
Centrioles are microtubules organizing center.they contain microtubules which controls the separation of chromosomes during cell division.they also help to produce spindles.
Centrioles provides functional internal structure of flagella and cilia
Lysosomes are vesicles that contains enzymes capable of digestion either food or dead cells.
Ribosomes create, or synthesize, proteins through the use of DNA and RNA. Which of these is a step in protein synthesis? A. The ribosome starts decoding when it attaches to the mRNA. B. The ribosome moves down the mRNA strand from one codon to the next as the tRNA brings each corresponding amino acid. C. When the ribosome reads the last mRNA codon, it signals the end of translation. D. All of these
Answer:
all of these
Explanation:
All of these are steps in the general process of protein synthesis:
First, when the mRNA attaches to the ribosome, the ribosome starts decoding. Then, the ribosome moves down the mRNA strand from one codon to the next as the tRNA brings each corresponding amino acid. Finally, when the ribosome reads the last mRNA codon, it signals the end of translation.
This mechanism is virtually the same in all life forms.
Ribosomes create, or synthesize, proteins through the use of DNA and RNA. All of these are the steps in protein synthesis.
What is protein synthesis?The process of making proteins in a cell takes place at an intercellular structure called a ribosome, which is formed of both RNA and protein.
The messenger RNA (mRNA) sequence is read by the ribosome, which then converts the genetic code into a specific string of amino acids that develop into lengthy chains and fold to create proteins.
The biological machinery that produces proteins is known as a ribosome. Each cell contains several ribosomes, which are each composed of two subunits. These two subunits form a tight seal around the messenger RNA molecule before moving down its length and reading each three-letter codon.
Therefore, Ribosomes create, or synthesize, proteins through the use of DNA and RNA. All of these are the steps in protein synthesis.
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Who mandates that employers of emergency responders must take certain measures to protect employees who are likely to be exposed to blood and other body fluids?
Answer:
A.OSHA
Explanation:
The complete question is as follows:
Who mandates that employers of emergency responders must take certain measures to protect employees who are likely to be exposed to blood and other body fluids?
A.OSHA
B.UNICEF
C.CDC
D.USMLE
OSHA is the short form for the Occupational Safety and Health Administration which is an agency of the United States Department of Labor located in Washington D.C, USA. The agency works to set and enforce standards for safe and healthy working environment for both men and women who work in private and public sectors. The employers of OSHA have the responsibility to provide a safe workplace and ensure that no serious health hazards take place in the same. Therefore the employers of emergency responders are mandated by OSHA to take measures to protect employees that are exposed to body fluids and blood.The hormone insulin, which is produced by the cells of the pancreas, is released into the surrounding extracellular fluid by an energy-requiring process called _____.
Answer: Active transport
Explanation:
Active transport can be defined as the process by which the molecules are transported against the concentration gradient by the help of energy.
The hormones like insulin are also transported by this process so that the hormone can reach to the place where it is required.
This is an energy consuming process because of sizeof molecule and the opposite of the concentration gradient.
Hamstrings is a collective name for the four muscles on the anterior and lateral aspects of the upper leg. Indicate whether the statement is true or false?
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Hamstring term is used to define the posterior thigh compartment. It has three parts and forms tendons at the backside of the knee. It is responsible for flexing the lower portion of the legs at the knees.
The anterior and lateral sides of the thighs are covered by Quadriceps femoris muscle. It has four major parts – one rectus femoris muscle and three vasti muscles which asre vastus lateralis, medialis, intermedius
Hence, the given statement is false
The hamstrings are a collective name for muscles on the posterior thigh, and the statement is true.
True. The hamstrings are indeed a collective name for four muscles located on the posterior thigh. These muscles include the semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and biceps femoris.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are drugs commonly prescribed for ________.
Answer:
Depression
Explanation:
Answer: depression
Explanation: they prescribe anti depressant for depression
The nurse is caring for a 22-year-old g2, p2 client who has disseminated intravascular coagulation after delivering a dead fetus. which finding is the highest priority to report to the health care provider (hcp)?
Answer: A. activated partial thromboplastine time(ATTP) of 30 secs.
B. Haemoglobin of 11.5g/dl(115g/l)
C. urinary output of 25ml in the last 1hour
D. platelets at 149000mm3(149*109/l)
Correct option is A
Explanation:
The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT or APTT ) is a blood test that characterizes coagulation of the blood.The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is often used in conjunction with another measure of how quickly blood clotting takes place called the prothrombin time (PT). The prothrombin time (PT) measures the speed of clotting by means of the extrinsic pathways
The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) reflect the underlying consumption and impaired synthesis of the
coagulation cascade.
Imagine you were able to travel back in time to any place you wanted to witness the evolution of humans. Answer the following questions related to your journeys. On which continent would you have seen the very earliest members of Homo sapiens?
Answer:
The answer is Africa.
Explanation:
If you had the ability to travel back in time and you wanted to experience the evolution of humans as a species, you would have to travel back about 200 thousand years back to Africa, to Omo Kibish to be exact, to see the earliest members of Homo Sapiens, which are descendants of older species that lived on the Africa continent.
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The double-lobed mass of tissue located in the mediastinum along the trachea behind the sternum that is involved in immunity is known as the
Answer:
The correct answer is thymus gland.
Explanation:
In the immune system, the thymus is considered as a primary lymphoid organ. Thymus is present behind the sternum, above the heart and between the two of our lungs. It is made up of two-lobed and is involved in releasing hormones and providing immunity.
Thymus is the primary site where T- cells become mature. T- cells are formed in bone marrow but reaches to thymus for maturation. These mature T- cells play a very important role in providing adaptive immunity against foreign molecules.
Thymus is larger till puberty and it slowly shrinks as the age increases. So the correct answer is thymus.
The base composition of an RNA virus was analyzed and found to be 14.1% A, 14.0% U, 36.2% G, and 35.7% C. Would you conclude that the viral genetic material is single-stranded RNA or double-stranded RNA? 2. The genetic material found within some viruses is single-stranded DNA. Would this genetic material contain equal amounts of A and T and equal amounts of G and C?
Answer:
The correct answer will be -
1. Genetic material of virus is- dsRNA
2. ssDNA does not have equal amount
Explanation:
According to Chargaff's rule the amount of Adenine=Thymine/Uracil and Guanine=Cytosine in the double-stranded DNA or RNA.
If the content of A and U are equal that is 14.1% and G and C are almost equal therefore it follows the Chargaff rule and thus the genetic material is the ds RNA molecule.
The Chargaff rule is not applicable where the genetic material is single-stranded so if the material is single-stranded therefore the A is not equal to T and G is not equal to C.
Thus, dsRNA and ssDNA does not have equal amount is the correct answer.
The genetic material of the organism can be DNA or RNA. The genetic material of the virus is dsRNA and the ssDNA will not have an equal amount of the bases.
What is the Base pairing rule?The genetic material of the organisms follows the base-pairing rule of the Chargaff and is applicable to the double-stranded DNA.
According to the rule, the amount of the adenine is equivalent to the thymine or uracil and cytosine to the guanine. The molecule follows Chargaff's rule of base pairing and hence can be a double-stranded RNA molecule.
In the case of the single-stranded DNA, the amount of the adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine does not follow the Chargaff's base and hence will not have an equal amount of the bases.
Therefore, the virus will have ds RNA and the ssDNA will not have the same composition of the bases.
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What do you expect to happen after administration of a dose of intravenous epinephrine?
Answer:
It will cause an increase in the heart rate, like a minute after administration.
Explanation:
The release of epinephrine which is also known as adrenalin, from the medulla of the adrenal gland is caused by anger or fear. And it release cause an increase in the heart rate, and blood pressure through the rushing of the blood to the brain and muscle.
The release of epinephrine can be controlled through meditation and deep breathing exercise.
What can be inferred from the phylogenetic tree shown? A) Flagellates and Animals are more closely related than Fungi and Animals. B) Ciliates and Diplomads are more closely related than Plants and Ciliates. C) Thermoproteus and Pyrodicticum are more related to each other than Methanosarcina is to Thermoproteus. D) Gram positives and Microsporidia are more related to each other than Cyanobacteria is to Gram positives.
Answer:
Thermoproteus and Pyrodicticum are more related to each other than Methanosarcina is to Thermoproteus.
Explanation:
Those two branch off closer to one another than Methanosarcina and Thermoproteus. This indicates a closer common ancestor.
Final answer:
Without the actual phylogenetic tree image, it is impossible to provide a confident answer regarding the relationship between the groups mentioned. Phylogenetic trees illustrate the evolutionary relationships based on shared characteristics, which are determined through various types of data.
Explanation:
The question asks which statement can be inferred from a given phylogenetic tree. Without the image of the actual phylogenetic tree, it is not possible to confidently provide which of the statements (A, B, C, or D) is correct. Phylogenetic trees are diagrams that represent the evolutionary relationships among various biological species, based on similarities and differences in their physical and/or genetic characteristics.
A phylogenetic tree is built using data from various sources, such as morphological features, DNA, RNA, or protein sequences, and it is essential to differentiate between homologous (traits inherited from a common ancestor) and analogous (traits that developed independently due to similar evolutionary pressures) structures before creating the tree. This helps in accurately depicting the evolutionary pathways.
An accurate diagram would show the branching patterns and divergence points, which indicate the relative relatedness of different groups. For example, if flagellates and animals share a more recent common ancestor than fungi and animals do, it would mean that flagellates and animals are more closely related, and the diagram would depict them branching closer together.
Assuming you begin with a single bacterial cell that has doubling time of 15 minutes, how many cells would you find at the end of one hour?
Answer:
16 cells
Explanation:
According to the given information, the generation time of the bacterial cell is 15 minutes. This means that the bacterial cell would have a total of 60/15= four divisions (1 hour= 60 minutes) in one hour. A division in a single bacterial cell produces two new bacterial cells. If both the newly formed bacterial cells enter the cell division, a total of four cells will be formed. Likewise, if all the newly formed bacterial cells enter the process of cell division, a total of 2^4= 16 cells will be formed by the end of four consecutive cell divisions.
Final answer:
Starting with a single bacterial cell, with a doubling time of 15 minutes, you would have 16 bacterial cells at the end of one hour after four doubling events.
Explanation:
If a single bacterial cell has a doubling time of 15 minutes, then it would double four times in one hour (since 60 minutes divided by 15 minutes equals four doublings). To calculate the number of bacterial cells after one hour, we apply the formula for exponential growth:
Final Population = Initial Population × 2(Number of Doublings)
Starting with one cell, we calculate the population after one hour as follows:
Final Population = 1 × 2⁴ = 1 × 16 = 16
Therefore, you would end up with 16 bacterial cells at the end of one hour, assuming the doubling time is exactly 15 minutes and there are no limiting factors affecting the growth.
Match the terms. endoplasmic reticulum, cell wall, digestion, cytoplasm, centrioles, ingestion, ribosome, cellular respiration, Golgi bodies, nucleolus1. food vacuoles and lysosome 2. all cellular material outside the nucleus 3. transportation routes in cell 4. phagocytosis 5. ribosome production 6. production of protein 7. passive diffusion 8. produce and package secretions 9. plant cell 10. spindle production for cell division
Answer:
The correct matches are given below.
Explanation:
The answer for the correct matches of the given options for a cell are;
Ingestion - Food Vacuoles And Lysosome
Cytoplasm - All Cellular Material Outside The Nucleus
Endoplasmic Reticulum - Transportation Routes In Cell
Cell Wall - Phagocytosis
Nucleolus - Ribosome Production
Ribosome - Production Of Protein
Digestion - Passive Diffusion
Golgi Bodies - Produce And Package Secretions
Cellular Respiration - Plant Cell
Centrioles - Spindle Production For Cell Division
I hope this answer helps.
Answer:
Ingestion Food Vacuoles And Lysosome
Cytoplasm All Cellular Material Outside The Nucleus
Endoplasmic Reticulum Transportation Routes In Cell
Cell Wall Phagocytosis
Nucleolus Ribosome Production
Ribosome Production Of Protein
Digestion Passive Diffusion
Golgi Bodies Produce And Package Secretions
Cellular Respiration Plant Cell
Centrioles Spindle Production For Cell Division
Explanation:
What state of mind does alcohol initially produce in most adults after the first drink?
Answer:
euphoria
Explanation:
When a person takes alcohol, he/she feels relaxed and euphoric. This happens because of the release of endorphins. Endorphins are a chemical that produces the feeling of pleasure and happiness. After the first drink, the content of alcohol in blood is 0.05-0.06% which is sufficient to develop euphoric feeling.
However, some of the consumers have also claimed that it act as a depressant.
Norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine are all examples of _______.A. bodily humors. B. synaptic clefts.
The question is incomplete as it does not have the options which are:
A.bodily humors. B.synaptic clefts. C.neurotransmitters. D.growth hormones.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option- C
Explanation:
Neurotransmitters are the chemicals released from the neurons at the synaptic junctions which helps in the transmission of the electrical impulse from one neuron to another.
The dopamine, serotonin and nor-epinephrine are the biogenic forms of neurotransmitters which are synthesized from the precursors of the amino acids. These neurotransmitters are produced in producing different functions in the body.
Thus, option- C is the correct answer.
While mosses can cover a significant area of land, they are never more than a few centimeters tall. Why do they not grow tall?
Answer:
They have no vascular system.
Explanation:
Vascular system contains an important feature they have series of tubes which helps to transport nutrients, and water over a distance in plants. The vascular system of phloem, and xylem allows trees (such as redwood) to grow a hundred feet tall.
Mosses do not have vascular system. Without the vascular system liverworts, and mosses are not able to grow large. Mosses are rarely one inch in height. Mosses are small flowerless waxy plants with no stem, and leaves.
Final answer:
Mosses do not grow tall because they are nonvascular plants without a complex system to transport water and nutrients, which limits them to surviving in moist conditions and growing only a few centimeters tall.
Explanation:
Mosses are fascinating plants that do not grow tall because they lack a vascular system. Unlike trees, which have a complex system to transport water, nutrients, and sugars, mosses must absorb these necessities directly through their leaves. Mosses have simple structures called rhizoids that help them attach to surfaces, but these are not true roots and cannot draw in water from deep within the soil. As nonvascular plants, mosses grow close together in clumps or mats, relying on moist conditions to survive. Furthermore, natural forces like wind and light create a demand for plants to grow taller, while water accessibility encourages a shorter stature. Mosses have not evolved to tackle this conflict, resulting in their characteristic low growth. They are prevalent in environments ranging from tundra to tropical forests, where they play a critical role in moisture retention, soil nutrition, and providing shelter and food for animals. However, their sensitivity to air pollution and certain substances like copper salts impacts where and how they can survive.
NAD and FAD work by loading and unloading _________ and _________ during energy transfers.
Answer:
Hydrogen and electrons
Explanation:
Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) and flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD) serve as reducing power during energy transfers. One NAD+ accepts one hydrogen ions and two electrons and becomes reduced into NADH. Likewise, FAD accepts two hydrogen ions and two electrons and is reduced into FADH2. Oxidation of NADH and FADH2 into NAD+ and FAD respectively releases both hydrogen ions and electrons.
For example, some of the energy of glucose released during glycolysis and Kreb's cycle is temporarily stored in the form of NADH and FADH2. Oxidation of NADH and FADH2 via electron transfer chain of mitochondria releases both electrons and hydrogen ions (protons). The protons are pumped across the inner mitochondrial membrane to generate the proton concentration gradient.
The net energy yield from this pathway, where glucose is broken down through several steps forming pyruvate, is ________ molecules of ATP and _____ molecules of NADH.
Answer:
2 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADH
Explanation:
Glycolysis is the first step of cellular respiration (break down of glucose to extract energy) which occurs in the cytoplasm. Glycolysis is a pathway common to all living organisms- prokaryotes and eukaryotes, as it does not require oxygen to occur.
Glycolysis occurs in two major phases (ten steps) requiring 10 enzymes catalyzing each step; the energy-requiring phase and the energy-requiring phase.
In the energy-requiring phase, the starting molecule (glucose) gets rearranged in a series of chemical reactions, and two phosphate groups gets attached to it producing fructose-1,6-bisphosphate which is unstable, This modified sugar then splits in half due to its instability to form two different but inter-convertible phosphate-bearing three-carbon sugars (Dihydroxyacetonephosphate, DHAP and Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate, G3P). Because the phosphates used in these steps come from 2 ATP molecules, 2 ATP molecules get used up in this phase
All the DHAP molecules get converted to G-3-P in order to enter the next phase.
In the energy-recovering phase, the 3-carbon sugar (G3P) is converted into another three-carbon molecule called pyruvate, through a series of reactions. In these reactions, two ATP and 1 NADH molecules are made. This recovery phase occurs twice (one for each of the two isomeric three-carbon sugars, DHAP and G3P). Hence, a total of 4 ATP and 2 NADH molecules are produced in this phase.
Overall, Glycolysis converts one glucose (six-carbon) molecule to two pyruvate (three-carbon) molecules and a net release of 2 ATP molecules (4 overall - 2 used) and 2 NADH molecules.
Flexible connective tissue found in the immature skeleton, epiphyseal plate, and on joint surfaces is called_________
People on high-protein diets are advised to drink lots of water. Why? A) To reduce the strain on the kidneys due to increased urea production. B) To provide the H2O necessary for peptide bond hydrolysis. C) To replace water lost due to the diuretic effects of some amino acids. D) To dilute out toxins consumed with the high-protein foodstuffs.
Answer:
Option C
Explanation:
When proteins are taken in extra quantity, they are used, recycled and excreted regularly. Unlike fat, these are not stored in body when in excess.
Therefore, high protein diet produces lots of metabolic waste which is excreted through urine and lot of water is removed out of body regularly. Thus, in order to prevent excessive loss of water or dehydration, it is advised to drink lot of water.
Hence, option C is correct
Given that equal amounts of the different mRNA’s were injected into fertilized frog eggs, which of the following conclusions is most consistent with the electrophoresis results?
a. B-hemoglobin mRNA is translated more efficiently than is a-hemoglobin mRNA
b. a-hemoglobin is present only in cells where B-hemoglobin is absent
c. a-hemoglobin mRNA is more stable than B-hemoglobin mRNA
d. Tubulin inhibits translation of hemoglobin mRNA
Answer:
Answer is A. B-hemoglobin mRNA is translated more efficiently than is a-hemoglobin mRNA.
Explanation:
The introduction of electric charge into a gel or fluid, causing or resulting in the movement of the charged particles in the gel or fluid, is referred to as the electrophoresis. It can also be explained as a separation method or technique which is based on the movement of particles or ions in an electric field.
The electrophoresis is used in separating DNA fragments , RNA or protein, based on their size and charge.
What is the sciatic notch? How can it be used to determine gender?
Answer:
a sciatic notch is a part of the pelvis.
Men have a more arched sciatic notch while women have a broader sciatic notch
Explanation:
Various measurements of the greater sciatic notch such as width, depth, and length of the posterior angles.
The demarking points identify sex with 100% accuracy.
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The sciatic notch is a part of the ileum. The ileum is a part of the pelvic bones. The sciatic notch can determine the gender, as the sciatic notch of males is narrower than that of females.
What is a sciatic notch?The sciatic notch is a shape that is present in the pelvic bone of animals. The pelvic bone is present in the middle of the body. It saves the organs like the bladder and other organs.
The sciatic notch is used to determine the sex of the human because in males and females the shape of the sciatic notch is different. The females have broader sciatic notch than males.
Thus, the ileum includes the sciatic notch. The pelvic bones include the ileum. The gender can be determined by the sciatic notch, since the male sciatic notch is smaller than the female sciatic notch.
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Regulatory and basal transcription factors regulate transcription by binding to the promoter.A) True B) False
Answer:
False
Explanation:
In eukaryotes apart from RNA polymerase, the transcription of genes requires many different proteins called transcription factors. These transcription factors are important to initiate and regulate transcription.
There are two types of transcription factors regulatory and basal transcription factors. Basal transcription factors regulate transcription by binding to a gene promoter and regulatory transcription factor regulates transcription by binding to some regulatory sequences for example enhancers and silencers.
Therefore only basal transcription factor binds to the promoter for regulating transcription. Therefore the statement is false.