Answer:
The isobars that are close to each other indicate strong winds
Explanation:
The isobars that are close to each other indicate strong winds. The gap or spacing between two adjacent isobars represent the pressure difference between them. lower the gap between then higher is the chances of pressure difference. Therefore when two isobars are very close to each other then strong wind prevail due to movement of air to fill vaccum space
On a weather map, isobars that C. are close together indicate strong winds. Therefore , C. are close together is correct .
When isobars are close together on a weather map, it indicates a steep pressure gradient.
The pressure gradient force is directly related to the spacing of isobars; the closer the isobars, the stronger the pressure gradient force.
This force influences the speed and direction of the wind.
Here's how it works:
Pressure Gradient Force:
The pressure gradient force drives air from areas of high pressure to areas of low pressure.
The greater the pressure difference (indicated by closely spaced isobars), the stronger the pressure gradient force.
Wind Speed:
When isobars are close together, the pressure gradient force is strong, resulting in higher wind speeds.
Air moves more rapidly from high pressure to low pressure, creating strong winds.
Wind Direction:
Wind tends to flow perpendicular to the isobars, from high pressure toward low pressure. The closer the isobars, the more directly the wind is forced across them.
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Genetically modified foods are derived from organisms with the _____ modified in some way that does not naturally occur.
Answer:
The correct answer will be - DNA
Explanation:
The genetically modified food is the food crops produced by the modification of the genetic material or DNA of the organism.
Since the foods are produced by the modification of the genetic material which is DNA in almost all organisms therefore the foods are known as genetically modified organisms.
The modification includes the insertion and incorporation of the selected genes into organisms like resistance to stress conditions through vectors.
Thus, DNA is the correct answer.
Genetically modified foods come from organisms whose genomes have been artificially altered through genetic engineering, a process that includes the use of recombinant DNA technology to insert foreign genes. These genetically modified organisms (GMOs) often exhibit desirable traits such as disease resistance and improved nutritional value. Extensive testing is done to ensure their safety and minimal impact on the environment.
Explanation:Genetically modified foods are derived from organisms with their genomes artificially altered in ways that do not naturally occur. This artificial alteration is achieved by a process called genetic engineering, involving the use of recombinant DNA technology. Organisms receive foreign DNA in the form of recombinant DNA vectors generated through molecular cloning, making them genetically modified organisms (GMOs).
Significant examples of these include transgenic plants like corn, potatoes, and tomatoes, which were among the first crop plants to be genetically engineered. These GMOs exhibit desirable traits including disease resistance, herbicide and pest resistance, and improved nutritional value. It's important to note that, since these organisms are not naturally occurring, they undergo extensive testing to assure their safety for human consumption and ecological stability.
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How can a person stay healthy as an older adult? Choose exactly 3 answers that are correct.
A. Spend time with others.
B. Eat healthy.
C. Get regular medical care.
D. Exercise less.
Hey there!
The correct 3 answers are A. Spend time with others, B. Eat healthy and C. Get regular medical care
Hope this helps you!
God bless ❤️
xXxGolferGirlxXx
Will's coworkers go out to lunch every day, and they often ask Will to join them. However, Will always refuses because he is terrified of having others watch him eat. He worries that he will embarrass himself in front of his coworkers and they won't like him any longer. Will most likely will be diagnosed with __________________________.
Answer:
The correct answer is - social phobia.
Explanation:
A social phobia is a feature of the anxiety of social judgment, or being negatively judged or evaluated or rejected by the performance or social situation.
It is the social anxiety disorder which leads to embarrassment to do the certain activity so he would not have deal with the embarrassment or judgement. Will most likely will be diagnosed with social phobia.
Thus, the correct answer - social phobia.
Put the following events in the correct order. Rank the options below. a. A water-soluble hormone binds with a membrane-bound receptor.
b. Open choices for matching Enzymes that were already present are activated.
c. Enzymes that were already present are activated.
d. Open choices for matching cAMP molecules are synthesized. cAMP molecules are synthesized.
e. Open choices for matching G proteins are activated.
Answer:
a- water-soluble hormone binds with a membrane-bound receptor.
e. G proteins are activated.
b. Enzymes that were already present are activated.
d. cAMP molecules are synthesized.
Final answer:
The correct order of events when a water-soluble hormone binds to a cell's receptor is: hormone binds to receptor, G proteins activate, cAMP molecules are synthesized, and pre-existing enzymes are activated. This sequential process is essential for cellular communication and the resulting physiological response.
Explanation:
The sequence of events when a water-soluble hormone initiates a response inside a cell is a precise and coordinated process. The correct order of events is:
A water-soluble hormone binds with a membrane-bound receptor. This is the initial step where the hormone attaches to the receptor on the surface of the cell.
G proteins are activated. The binding of the hormone triggers a change that activates G proteins associated with the receptor.
cAMP molecules are synthesized. The activated G proteins then stimulate the enzyme adenylate cyclase to convert ATP into the second messenger cAMP.
Enzymes that were already present are activated. cAMP functions as a second messenger and activates enzymes known as protein kinases which in turn will regulate other cellular functions, often by phosphorylating other enzymes.
Proteins denature at low pH. What characteristic of acidic environments interferes with protein folding?
A. The lack of protons in the solution breaks covalent bonds in the protein
B. The excess protons in the solution break covalent bonds in the protein
C. The lack of protons in the solution breaks hydrogen bonds in the protein
D. The excess protons in the solution break hydrogen bonds in the protein
Answer: D. The excess protons in the solution breaks hydrogen bonds in the protein
Explanation: When adding acid it adds protons so it messes with the charges causing them to unfold.
The characteristic that interferes with protein folding in an acidic environment is D. The excess protons in the solution break hydrogen bonds in the protein.
Proteins are chains of amino acids with side chains. They fold due to the interaction between the hydrogens, which form hydrogen bonds. The denature occurs when the chain is unfolded.
Low pH means:
There is an excess of protons.The pH is below 7.The excess of protons interacts with the hydrogens that form the hydrogen bonds. As a consequence, the protein unfolds and losses its function.
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A clinical finding that is consistent with a diagnosis of adrenocortical insufficiency is:________.
Answer: Hyponatremia(low serum sodium level)
Explanation:
This is a condition where the sodium serum Level drops to less than 136mEqL.Sodium regulates electrolyte water balance of the body by regulating the amount of water that enter the cells.Therefore when it level drops water concentration rises increasing the water potential surrounding the cells(extracellular) but not of the intacellular fluids
.Less water is reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule(PCT) of tthe Nephon. Since low sodium is available little will be reabsorbed by the PCT for reabsorption of water.
it is cause by liver diseases,diarrhoea, intake of large or too much water,hormonal imbalances etc
Symptoms
Headache, confusion, nausea, vomiting.and coma.
Treatment.
Controlled or moderate water intake
Treatment of related diseases.
Necessary precautions during intense activities.
Fred is afraid to leave his house, and he is extremely apprehensive every time he has to go out in public. Fred is most likely to be diagnosed with which type of disorder?
Fred is most likely to be diagnosed with a specific phobia, an anxiety disorder characterized by an intense fear and avoidance of certain objects or situations.
Explanation:Fred is most likely to be diagnosed with an anxiety disorder, specifically a specific phobia. Specific phobias are characterized by an intense fear and avoidance of certain objects or situations. In Fred's case, his fear of leaving his house and apprehension when going out in public indicate a specific phobia.
It is important to note that specific phobias can be treated with therapy, such as cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), and medication if necessary. Seeking professional help from a mental health professional would be beneficial for Fred to address and manage his anxiety disorder
Aseptic technique is employed to maintain asepsis. Aseptic technique is an important component of infection prevention that is used to:
Answer:
Is used to prevent contamination from pathogens.
Explanation:
Pathogens are disease causing organisms. In a clinical setting or even in the laboratory, a person has to use the strictest means of disease prevention and even re-infection (for patients). Aseptic technique is important to protect yourself, other workers and patients from infection and from the spread of pathogens. It effectively maximizes the presence of pathogens and totally eliminate them. This is possible from simple measures like using your PPE which must all be sterile. From your gloves, gowns etc to your equipments used during any procedure. Also disinfection of your work place is important too either by concurrent disinfection or intermittent disinfection.
Affinity chromatography can be used to purify proteins such as growth factor receptors. The ligand of the growth factor receptor can be linked to resin, and then an extract containing membrane proteins can be poured over the resin. If a high concentration of free ligand were poured over the resin next, what would you expect to happen?
Answer:
If a high concentration of free ligand were poured over the resin next, the growth-factor receptor will be released from the resin since the excess ligand competes with ligand attached to the resin.
In affinity chromatography, adding a high concentration of free ligand would elute the protein from the column as it competes with the immobilized ligand for binding to the protein.
In affinity chromatography, a specific ligand for a protein of interest is covalently linked to an inert resin within the column. When a solution containing the protein is passed through the column, the target protein binds to the immobilized ligand due to specific affinity. If a high concentration of free ligand is poured over the resin next, one would expect the protein to be eluted from the column. This happens because the free ligand competes with the immobilized ligand for binding to the protein, reducing the affinity of the protein for the resin, allowing it to be washed out of the column.
All of the statements about Roosevelt’s group of advisers known as the ""Brains Trust"" are true EXCEPT what ?
Answer:
the "Brain Trust" believed that large corporations needed to be directed by the government.
Explanation:
The term Brain Trust has a wider application know and it is attributed to the people who are trained in a particular field and advice decision-makers in their area of expertise. However, the term is more popularly known for the group of informal advisers of Franklin Roosevelt who worked closely with the President to shape the policies and programs during his term. And the idea that the "Brain Trust" believed that large corporations needed to be directed by the government was not advocated.
Read the excerpt from the writings of Andrew Carnegie and answer the question.
How did the argument presented by Carnegie compare to his business practices?
Group of answer choices
Carnegie argued in the excerpt that only businesses run by the wealthy are likely to succeed, but as a business owner he promoted employees based solely on performance rather than background.
While Carnegie outlined the importance of philanthropy in the excerpt, he utilized monopolistic strategies as a business owner that negatively impacted small business and consumers.
As noted in the excerpt, Carnegie was a strong proponent of philanthropy and as a businessman he worked to keep prices low for his products for the benefit of average Americans.
The excerpt details Carnegie's belief that immigrants and the poor are often among the most hardworking individuals in a society, yet asa business owner he implemented restrictive hiring processes.
Answer:
Option C, As noted in the excerpt, Carnegie was a strong proponent of philanthropy and as a businessman he worked to keep prices low for his products for the benefit of average Americans.
Explanation:
Carnegie strongly believed that within the society exists wealth inequality and in order to curb this issue all wealthy businessmen must use their surplus income for the betterment of others. He urged all the rich business men to carefully use their wealth to reduce the stratification between the rich and poor and hence it is the responsibility of businessmen to curb this difference by keeping the price of their commodities at a lower price.
Hence, option C is correct
Argument are made so as to pass out some vital information. The argument presented by Carnegie compare to his business practices is that while Carnegie outlined the importance of philanthropy in the excerpt, he utilized monopolistic strategies as a business owner that negatively impacted small business and consumers.
The gospel of wealth was written by Andrew Carnegie. It was firsed callled “Wealth”. It was published in the North American Review in June 1889.
Andrew Carnegie’s believed so much in giving wealth away during one’s sojourn on earth and the book above includes some of his famous quotes.
His messages still rings a bell and inspire people all over the world. It pushes people to always give and not be greedy.
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British authorities based their colonial commercial policies on the theory of ________.
A) feudalism
B) laissez-faire
C) mercantilism
D) federalism
E) republicanism
Answer: British authorities based their colonial commercial policies on the theory of MERCANTILISM.
Explanation: Mercantilism is the system whereby a country amass wealth for itself at the expense of another country. The prosperity of a nation depends upon its supply of capital, and that the global volume of trade is unchangeable. This is done by increasing export significantly and reducing imports. It was used by the British to significantly amass wealth by importing commodities to Africa in exchange for gold and other precious metals.
The IUCN's Red List is ________.a. a list of ecologically harmful invasive speciesb. a list of unidentified speciesc. a scorecard of international failures at conservationd. an updated list of species facing unusually high risk of extinctionan identification list of known species
Answer:
An updated list of species facing unusually high risk of extinction.
Explanation:
The IUCN red list of threatened species also called as red data list. It is defined as the most comprehensive global conversation status of both animals and plants species.
The IUCN is a criteria to identify the extinction risk of lots of biological subspecies, and species. These criteria are relevant to all regions of the word, and all the biological species.
In eastern gray squirrels, Sciurus carolinensis, the allele for black fur (B) is dominant to the allele for gray fur (b). In a particular population of gray squirrels, 64% have black fur and 36% have gray fur. A researcher calculated the allelic frequencies to be B=0.4 and b=0.6. Five years later, the researcher returned to the location and determined the allelic frequencies within the squirrel population to be B=0.6 and b=0.4
Answer:
The correct answer is "The frequency of the B allele increased due to the selective pressures of the environment".
Explanation:
The missing part of the question is "Which of the following could best explain the increase in the frequency of the B allele in the population after five years?" at which the answer is "The frequency of the B allele increased due to the selective pressures of the environment".
In this study, the allelic frequency for black fur (B) in eastern gray squirrels Sciurus carolinensis changed from B=0.4 to B=0.6 within a lapse of five years. This increase is explained by the effect of selective pressures of the environment. For instance, is likely that new predators were more likely to detect squirrels with gray fur over black fur, or changes in the landscape benefited the black fur squirrels camouflage.
Allele frequency in a population is calculated by the division of the number of times an allele is observed by the total number of copies of all the alleles in a population.
The frequency of allele B increased due to selective pressures of the environment.
The allelic frequencies are used to calculate the number of times an allele in a population is observed. The allelic frequencies help to understand the gene flow in a population.
In the given research, the allelic frequency for Black fur is (B) changed from B = 0.4 to B = 0.6 within 5 years. The change in the allelic frequency can be due to selective pressure, such as producing offspring more than the environment can hold.
Thus, the new predator targeted the squirrels with gray fur and led to increasing the squirrels having black fur.
Thus, the allelic frequencies increased due to selective pressures in the environment.
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A family has two children. M represents male, and F represents female.What is the sample space for the gender of the children?
A) {F, M}
B) {FM, FF, MM, MF}
C) {FF, MM}
D) {MF, FM}
Answer: There are four (4) possible outcomes; {FM, FF, MM, MF}
Explanation: Sample space can be defined as the set of all possible outcomes or results of an experiment or random trial. The size of the outcomes constitutes the number of elements present in the space and this is called Sample size.
Since the question involves two children, there are four possible outcomes for the gender. The two children of the family could be in the following formations;
1. Female - Male
2. Female - Female
3. Male - Male
4. Male - Female
Hence, the sample space will be {FM, FF, MM, MF}
A woman with a long history of rectocele and perineal scarring from multiple episiotomies develops a rectovaginal fistula with perineal body relaxation. She has transperineal repair with perineal body reconstruction and plication of the levator muscles. What are the CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes reported for this procedure?
Answer:
N82.3
N90.89
Explanation:
In this case, the patient has a history(not current) of the rectocele
The first diagnosis is rectovaginal fistula(Alphabetic Index for Fistula/rectovaginal is N82.3).
The second diagnosis isperineal scarring(Alphabetic Index for Scar, scarring/vulva is N90.89)
Therefore, code N81.6 won't be reported since it's stands for a current rectocele
The CPT and ICD-10-CM codes for transperineal repair, perineal body reconstruction, and plication of levator muscles for a rectovaginal fistula depend on the specific clinical details and should be assigned based on current coding guidelines and manuals.
The transperineal repair with perineal body reconstruction and plication of the levator muscles in a woman with a rectovaginal fistula is a complex procedure that addresses complications arising from obstetric trauma, such as a long history of rectocele and perineal scarring from multiple episiotomies. The CPT (Current Procedural Terminology) and ICD-10-CM (International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision, Clinical Modification) codes for reporting these medical services are essential for billing and documentation purposes. Due to the complex nature of the procedure and the specific clinical details provided, the precise codes would depend on the individual case and the provider's clinical judgment. However, typically procedures like this could be coded under CPT codes for repair of rectocele and rectovaginal fistula and the proper ICD-10-CM codes denoting the presence of a fistula and related conditions. It would be advisable to consult the latest CPT and ICD-10-CM manuals or coding guidelines to ensure accurate coding.
What is the idea developed by Charles Lyell stating that the geologic processes that shaped Earth in the past continue to operate today?
a. inheritance of acquired characteristics
b. catastrophism
c. uniformitarianism
d. descent with modification
Answer:
c. uniformitarianism
Explanation:
Uniformitarianism is a doctrine that was popularized by Charles Lyell in his book published in 1830. It is a school of thought that belief that slow, uniform geologic processes shaped the earth in the past and the processes are still in operation as of today. In other word, the past processes that shaped the earth can still be studied in the present.
The idea is in contrast to catatrophism, a belief that the present earth is shaped by sudden, short violent occurrence as compared to the past.
Descent with modification and inheritance of acquired character are related to evolution of living organisms.
The correct option is c.
According to the lecture, hormone changes are often responsible for mood swings in teenagers.
A) True
B) False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Hormonal shifts can be a cause for mood swings, during teenage years the teens will experiment the production of estrogen (girls) and testosterone (boys) that will cause physical and emotional changes, as the time pass by these mood swing normally become less common as hormones reach an equilibrium.
I hope you find this information useful and interesting! Good luck!
Answer:
True
Explanation:
I got a 100 on the quiz
Kevin has been experiencing difficulty urinating now that he is over the age of 60. The doctor examines his prostate gland and finds no evidence of inflammation. Furthermore, Kevin's PSA test is normal. It is most likely that Kevin is suffering from
Answer:
It is most likely that Kevin is suffering from benign prostatic hypertrophy.
Explanation:
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH): it's also known as prostate enlargement and it's noncancerous. It's a noncancerous increase in size of the prostate gland.
It can be caused by:
Urinary tract infection, inflammation of the prostate (prostatitis), Narrowing of the urethra (urethral stricture), Bladder or kidney stones e.t.c.
The membrane has open K channels, and changing extracellular K concentration results in a change in membrane potential. Changing the extracellular Na concentration does not significantly change the membrane potential. What do your results suggest about the number or state (open or closed) of Na channels in the resting membrane of a neuron?
Answer: Closed
Explanation:
At resting membrane potential( RMP) sodium channels remained shut, this is because , previously in depolarisation,the voltage gated sodium channels were opened for sodium to diffuse into the Axon. However these channels closed after reaching their refractory period,s.
Therefore a change in the extracellular concentration of sodium will not open them
Describe compliance with public health statutes:
(a) communicable diseases
(b) abuse, neglect, and exploitation
(c) wounds of violence
Compliance with public health statutes involves following regulations and guidelines to prevent the spread of communicable diseases, protect against abuse and neglect, and address wounds of violence.
Explanation:Compliance with public health statutes:
Compliance with public health statutes regarding communicable diseases involves following regulations and guidelines set by the government to prevent the spread of contagious illnesses. This may include reporting cases of communicable diseases, implementing quarantine measures, and promoting vaccination.
Compliance with public health statutes regarding abuse, neglect, and exploitation involves ensuring the protection and well-being of vulnerable individuals, such as children, elderly, or individuals with disabilities. It includes reporting suspected cases, providing necessary support and intervention, and promoting awareness and prevention.
Compliance with public health statutes regarding wounds of violence involves addressing the physical and psychological trauma caused by violent acts. This may include providing immediate medical care, documenting injuries, offering support services, and collaborating with law enforcement in the investigation and prosecution of the perpetrators.
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When Allison was completing her medical forms in the doctor's office, she was asked to indicate her race. What may be an appropriate reason for including the question on the forms?
Answer: Strong links between race and health
Explanation:
Certain medical conditions like SICKLE CELL ANEMIA have been confirmed to be prevalent among people of AFRICAN descent.
Also, CYSTIC FIBROSIS have been known to be common among people of EUROPEAN race.
Therefore, Allison is required to include her race in the medical forms SO AS TO reveal any strong links her race has to do with her health
In the ABO series, the gene for blood type O is , while A and B are genes, and AB is .
Answer:
Gene for blood type O is recessive
Gene for blood type A and B is dominant
Gene for blood type AB is neither dominant nor recessive but a form of co-dominance
Explanation:
In the ABO blood group,
A and B are dominant genes, O is recessive genes.
So the different genotype and its corresponding phenotype is as follows –
Genotype Phenotype
AO A
BO B
AB AB
AA A
BB B
OO O
Hence, the two alleles AB occur and express together. Therefore, AB blood group is an example of co-dominance.
Blood type also varies with the presence of Rh factor. If Rh factor is present, the blood type will represented with a “+” symbol. And if Rh factor is absent, the blood type will be represented by “-“symbol.
Blood type O results from two recessive O alleles; blood types A and B result from dominant A or B alleles, respectively. Blood type AB exhibits codominance, where both A and B antigens are displayed on red blood cells.
Explanation:In the ABO blood group system, the gene for blood type O is recessive, while the A and B genes are dominant, and the phenotype AB results from codominance. Individuals with blood type O must inherit two recessive O alleles, one from each parent. A person with the genotype AO will exhibit the phenotype of blood type A, while someone with the genotype BO will have blood type B. The ABO alleles demonstrate Mendelian inheritance patterns, where individuals with both an A and a B allele will have blood type AB, showing both antigens on the surface of their red blood cells because of codominance.
Scarlet gilia (Ipomopsis aggregata) usually has red flowers in an inflorescence of up to 250 flowers. In certain populations in the Arizona mountains, however, the flowers range from red to pink to white. In early summer, most of the flowers were red. Six to eight weeks later, the same individual plants were still present; the flowers ranged from pink to white, and few red flowers were present. The major pollinators early in the season were two species of hummingbirds active during the day; they emigrated to lower elevations, and the major pollinator later in the season was a hawk moth (a type of moth). The hawk moth was most active at sunset and later, and it preferred light pink to white flowers after dark. When hummingbirds were present, more red flowers than white flowers produced fruit. When only hawk moths were present, more white flowers produced fruit (K. N. Paige and T. G. Whitham. 1985. Individual and population shifts in flower color by scarlet gilia: A mechanism for pollinator tracking. Science 227:315-17).
Refer to the paragraph on scarlet gilia. What is the significance of measuring fruit production?
A) It is a measure of pollination success.
B) It is an indication of predation on the seeds of the plants.
C) It is easier than counting flowers.
D) It is a measure of seed dispersal success.
Answer:
B) It is an indication of predation on the seeds of the plants.
Explanation:
Because the coloring of the flowers is linked with day and night which in turn is linked with the predator who is collecting seeds and pollinating flowers.
In which process do some macromolecules get assembled from smaller components and other macromolecules get degraded to yield energy?
Answer:
Digestion including hydrolysis
Explanation:
In the process of digestion, bigger food molecules are broken down into smaller macro molecules. These macro-molecules in later stage are absorbed or accumulated by cell and further broken down to release energy. It is during the process of hydrolysis,
Where big macro-molecules are broken into smaller polymers and further into monomers thereby releasing energy. This chemical process is assisted by an enzyme in the presence of water molecules.
In Mediterranean climate regions like portions of California, a wetter-than-normal winter often leads to greater severity of fires the following summer. This seeming paradox occurs because increased rain leads to _____.
Answer:
Collection of Chapparal biomass
Explanation:
In Mediterranean climate regions like portions of California, a wetter-than-normal winter often leads to greater severity of fires the following summer. This seeming paradox occurs because increased rain leads to breaking of plants and trees and it leads to collection of large amount of chapparal biomass,after winter this chapparal biomass becomes dry and it can catch fires.
Your partner informs you that he believes the 90-year-old male you are caring for is dehydrated. What signs or symptoms best reinforces his suspicion of dehydration?
Answer:
Dark yellow ,small volume pea.
Infrequent pea.
Dry mouth and tongue.
Sunken eyes.
Dehydration is a condition in which the rate at which the body looses t fluids is higher than the rate at which it takes fluids in.
It is caused by diarrhoea( watery stools )
2.Excessive sweating.
3 vomiting continusly.
4. No access to water intake
5.Polyuria(excessive urination)
6.Fever leading to hyperthermia.
The kidney is the main organ where the effect of dehydration is managed . As a result of increase in the solute potential of the blood,;the hypothalamus secrets ADH hormones which stimulates the Aquaporins(transmembrane proteins in the collecting duct and the distal convoluted tubules) to open .Therefore water moves in by osmosis to reduce the higher solute potential of the blood. Therfore low volume,high concentrated urine is produced.
This homeostatic function of the kidney ensures balanced in the electrolyte fluids of the body to manage dehydration,before medical intervention.
Explanation:
Plasmids are used as vectors in both plant and bacterial recombinant DNA technology. However, there is a major difference in the fate of genes introduced into bacteria on most bacterial plasmids and into plants on Ti plasmids. What is this difference?
Answer:
DNA carried on bacterial plasmids are generally not integrated into the genome. The DNA carried on Ti plasmids are usually integrated into the plant genome, meaning the genes are stably expressed
Explanation:
A single strand of the T-DNA from the Ti plasmid enters the plant cell through a transport channel and into the nucleus, where it is integrated into the plant's DNA. In contrast, the DNA introduced into bacteria on bacterial plasmids remains extra-chromosomal
Place the following steps in order for motor control.
1. Upper motor neurons stimulate lower motor neurons.
2. Sensory information is relayed back to the cerebellum so movement can be modified if needed.
3. Upper motor neurons in the premotor cortex select a motor program.
4. Lower motor neurons stimulate a skeletal muscle to contract.
5. The basal nuclei enable the thalamus to stimulate upper motor neurons of the primary cortex.
A) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4
B) 2, 5, 3, 1, 4
C) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
D) 5, 3, 1, 4, 2
Answer:
3, 5, 1, 4, 2.
Explanation:
Neurons are the structural and the functional unit of the nervous system. Two main types of neurons on the basis of their function are sensory neurons and motor neurons.
The motor control in order body occurs in a sequential step. The motor program is selected by the pre motor cortex. This neuron is further stimulated by basal nuclei of the thalamus. This further stimulate the lower motor neuron. This causes the contraction in the skeletal muscle. This information is further move to cerebellum if movement is required.
Thus, the correct order is 3, 5, 1, 4, 2.
Triangle ABC is an equilateral triangle with side lengths labeled a, b, and c. Triangle A B C is an equilateral triangle. The length of side A B is c, the length of B C is a, and the length of A C is b. Trigonometric area formula: Area = One-half a b sine (C) Which expressions represent the area of triangle ABC? Select three options. a c sine (60 degrees) One-half b c sine (60 degrees) One-half a squared sine (60 degrees) StartFraction a squared b sine (60 degrees) Over 2 EndFraction StartFraction a b sine (60 degrees) Over 2 EndFraction
Answer:
One-half b c sine (60 degrees)
One-half a squared sine (60 degrees)
StartFraction a b sine (60 degrees) Over 2 EndFraction
Explanation:
The area rule states that the area of any triangle is equal to half the product of the lengths of the two sides of the triangle multiplied by the sine of the angle included by the two sides.
From the question, Equilateral triangle refer to a triangle with equal angle and equal sides. The sum of an angle in a triangle = 180°; this implies that each angles have 60°.
∴ the three options that defines the expressions that represent the are of triangle ABC are:
One-half b c sine (60 degrees)
i.e [tex]\frac{1}{2}bcsin60^{0}[/tex]
One-half a squared sine (60 degrees) ; if the two opposite sides posses the same parameters.
i.e [tex]\frac{1}{2}a^{2}sin60^{0}[/tex]
StartFraction a b sine (60 degrees) Over 2 EndFraction
i.e [tex]\frac{absin60^{0}}{2}[/tex]
There are three options that defines the expressions to represent the area of triangle ABC:
One-half bc sin[tex]\bold {60^o}[/tex] One-half a squared sin[tex]\bold {60^o}[/tex] ; if the two opposite sides posses the same parameters. Start Fraction ab sin[tex]\bold {60^o}[/tex] Over 2 End Fraction
Equilateral triangle:
A triangle with equal angle and equal sides. The sum of an angle in a triangle is [tex]\bold {180^o}[/tex] this implies that each angles have [tex]\bold {60^o}[/tex]
The area rule of triangle:
It states that the area of any triangle is equal to half the product of the lengths of the two sides of the triangle, multiplied by the sine of the angle.
Therefore, there are three options that defines the expressions to represent the area of triangle ABC:
One-half bc sin[tex]\bold {60^o}[/tex] One-half a squared sin[tex]\bold {60^o}[/tex] ; if the two opposite sides posses the same parameters. Start Fraction ab sin[tex]\bold {60^o}[/tex] Over 2 End Fraction
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