Mandy divided a 12-pound bag of sand into 5 equal pilss What is the weight of each pile

x = number of desks needed to make

equation:  150 +15.50x >= 400

solution:

150 +15.50x >=400

15.50x = 250

x = 250/15.50 = 16.129

he needs to assemble 17 desks

15.50*17 = 263.50 +150 = $413.50

The value of x would be equal to (180-y)/2

An equation represents equality of two or more mathematical expression.

To solve an equation, then they usually mean to find the values of the unknowns for which that equation would be true (the equality between expressions should hold true for those values).

Solutions to an equation are those values of the variables involved in that equation for which the equation is true.

We are given the equation as- 180=2x+y

Now solving;

180=2x+y

180=2x+y

180-y=2x

(180-y)/2=x

x = (180-y)/2

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Answer:

75% of the original volume is left.

Step-by-step explanation:

Deniz had a full gallon of milk, or 16 cups of milk, and then she poured out 4 cups of milk. That is:

Then,

The total left is:

[tex]\\ Total_{left} = \frac{16}{16} - \frac{4}{16} = \frac{12}{16} = \frac{3}{4}[/tex], since we are dealing here with fractions with the same denominator.

In other words, [tex]\\ \frac{3}{4} = 0.75[/tex] is the amount of milk left in the container.

In terms of percentage, [tex]\\ \frac{3}{4} = 0.75[/tex] is equivalent to [tex]\\ 0.75*100\% = 75\%[/tex] of the original volume, because Deniz poured out [tex]\\ \frac{4}{16} = \frac{1}{4} = 0.25[/tex] or [tex]\\ 0.25*100\% = 25\%[/tex] from the original volume.

So, Deniz left 75% of the original volume of milk after pouring out 25% of it.        

This can be represented in the graph below.

Answer:

75%

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Biweekly salary is $ 720.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given,

Annual salary = 18,720,

Number of weeks in a year = 52,

Thus, the number of bi weeks in a year = [tex]\frac{52}{2}[/tex] = 26,

Hence, the biweekly salary = [tex]\frac{\text{annual salary}}{\text{Number of bi weeks in a year }}[/tex]

[tex]=\frac{18720}{26}=\$ 720[/tex]

The problem is about converting between two units of currency from kursh to riyals. The two unit multipliers from this scenario are: 1 riyal equals 20 kursh and 1 kursh equals 1/20 riyal. The conversion from 16,000 kursh to riyals would be 800 riyals.

The question is about converting between two units of currency, specifically from kursh to riyals based on the exchange rate provided. It's a classic problem in unit conversion.

a. The two unit multipliers implied by this relationship are:

b. To convert 16,000 kursh to riyals, you would use the first unit multiplier. Given that 1 riyal equals 20 kursh, you simply divide the amount in kursh by 20 to get the equivalent amount in riyals. So, 16000 kursh ÷ 20 = 800 riyals.

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To determine what percent 2/3 is of 1/4, convert both fractions to percent form, where 1/4 is 25%. Converting 2/3 to a percent gives approximately 66.67%, and dividing this by 25% gives 266.68%. Thus, 2/3 is 266.68% of 1/4.

To find out what percent 2/3 is of 1/4, you first need to express the fractions in a way that allows comparison. A standard way of expressing a fraction as a percent involves having a denominator of 100. Since you know 1/4 equals 25 percent, you can use this as a basis for comparison with 2/3.

To convert 2/3 to a decimal, divide the numerator by the denominator: 2 divided by 3 equals approximately 0.6667. To then convert that decimal to a percent, multiply by 100, getting approximately 66.67 percent. To find what percent 2/3 is of 1/4, divide 66.67 by the percent value of 1/4, which is 25, and then multiply by 100 to get the percentage. This gives you (66.67 / 25) x 100 = 266.68 percent. So, 2/3 is 266.68 percent of 1/4.

total of the fine = C

you would need to multiply the amount of the fine by the number of days

 so the equation would be C=Fd

Answer: a0 =$97.5  ; a1 =$87.96 ; a2=$282.48; a3=$1,722.5 ; a4=$1,553.96 ; a5=$4,990.48

Step-by-step explanation:

Hi, to solve this problem we have to multiply each total by the commission in decimal form (6 / 100= 0.06).

So:

$1625 x 0.06 = $97.5

$1,466 x 0.06 =$87.96

$4,708 x 0.06 =$282.48

And finally, to obtain the total costs we have to add to each total the commission of the total.

$1625 + $97.5 = $1,722.5

$1,466 +$87.96 = $1,553.96

$4,708 +$282.48 = $4,990.48

Feel free to ask for more if it´s necessary or if you did not understand something.

x = 3

y = 15

Let's establish the proportion below to find the value of x and y

XP / DN = XS / DF = PS / NF

Since only 2 sides of XPS is given, then

Therefore,

4y = 60

y = 60 / 4

y = 15

17x = 57

x = 57 / 17

x = 3

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The area of a circle is given by A = π*r²

If diameter is 10 units, the radius is 5, so:

A = π * 5² = 78,54units²

The value corresponding to the 90th percentile (p90) is 94.84. Option  A is correct.

To find the value corresponding to the 90th percentile (p90), we first need to find the standard deviation of the scores.

We know that the third quartile (Q3) is 83, which corresponds to the 75th percentile (p75). Since the distribution is approximately normal, we can use the properties of the normal distribution to find the standard deviation.

In a standard normal distribution, the value corresponding to the p75 is approximately 0.6745 standard deviations above the mean. So, we can set up the following equation:

70 + 0.6745 * standard deviation = 83

Now, solve for the standard deviation:

standard deviation = (83 - 70) / 0.6745 ≈ 19.3047

Next, to find the value corresponding to the p90, we use the properties of the normal distribution again. The value corresponding to the p90 is approximately 1.2816 standard deviations above the mean.

Now, calculate p90:

p90 = 70 + 1.2816 * standard deviation
       ≈ 70 + 1.2816 * 19.3047
       ≈ 94.84

Rounding to two decimal places, we get p90 ≈ 94.84. So, the answer is (a) 94.84.

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To find p90 in a normally distributed set of scores, we need to find the standard deviation. Using the mean and q3, we can find the IQR and estimate the standard deviation. Finally, we can use the standard deviation to find the value corresponding to the 90th percentile.

To find the value of p90 in a normally distributed set of scores, we need to first find the standard deviation of the scores. We know that the mean is 70 and q3 (the third quartile) is 83. Using the formula for the interquartile range (IQR = q3 - q1), we can calculate the value of q1. Subtracting q1 from q3 gives us the IQR. Since the distribution is approximately normal, we can assume that the IQR is approximately 1.35 times the standard deviation. Dividing the IQR by 1.35 gives us the standard deviation. Finally, we can use the standard deviation to find the z-score corresponding to the 90th percentile and then find the corresponding value in the original distribution using the mean and standard deviation. The correct answer is option (a) 94.84.

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71,000 *(1-0.15)^10 =

71,000*0.85^10 =

$13,978.08

we apply the exponential decay formula leading to an estimated worth of approximately $13,978.37 in 2013.

To calculate the value of a BMW that cost $71,000 in 2003 and depreciates at a rate of about 15% per year for 10 years, we will use the formula for exponential decay, which is:

V = [tex]P(1 - r)^t[/tex]

Where:

V is the final value after depreciation

P is the principal amount ($71,000)

r is the rate of depreciation (15%, or 0.15)

t is the time in years (2013 - 2003 = 10 years)

So, our calculation will be:

V = $71,000 *[tex](1 - 0.15)^{10}[/tex]

V = $71,000 * [tex](0.85)^{10}[/tex]

V = $71,000 * 0.19687

V ≈ $13,978.37

Therefore, the BMW would be worth approximately $13,978.37 in 2013.

Final answer:

The wallet contains a total of $55, given that there are 8 $5 bills and 15 $1 bills.

Explanation:

The student's question involves determining the total amount of money in a wallet given a specific mix of $1 bills and $5 bills. According to the information provided, there are 23 bills in total, with 7 more $1 bills than $5 bills.

Let's denote the number of $5 bills as x. Therefore, there are x + 7 $1 bills. The total number of bills is the sum of the number of $1 bills and the number of $5 bills, which gives us the equation:

x + (x + 7) = 23

Solving the equation for x will give us the number of $5 bills:

2x + 7 = 23

2x = 23 - 7

2x = 16

x = 8

Now, since there are 8 $5 bills, and 7 more $1 bills than $5 bills, we have:

Number of $1 bills = 8 + 7 = 15

Thus, the total amount of money in the wallet is:

($5 × 8) + ($1 × 15) = $40 + $15 = $55

Therefore, the wallet contains $55.

when x is on 2

 y is on -3

 answer is y=-3