Answer:
Test his hypothesis.
Explanation:
The scientific hypothesis gives the detailed information about the particular phenomena. The hypothesis is generally made on the observation of the scientists.
The scientific hypothesis needs to be explained by the scientific tests if need to become a scientific hypothesis. If the Josiah has a doubt in her theory, she must test her hypothesis again and again so that the new correct theory can be made.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
Humoral control of blood flow involves the effect of vasodilator and vasoconstrictor substances in the blood. Select the factor that has a powerful vasodilator effect on arterioles and increases capillary permeability.
Answer:
Histamine.
Explanation:
Histamine is the factor that increases the capillary permeability and has a vasodilator effect on arterioles. Histamine is generally in mast cells and in a type of white blood cells. It increases the permeability and vasodilates arterioles so that proteins and white blood cells that are in the blood can fight pathogens in a tissue.
The research method used by Wilhelm Wundt in which volunteers were taught to carefully observe, analyze, and describe their own sensations, mental images, and emotional reactions is called _______________.
Answer:
trained introspection
Explanation:
Introspection is an act of self-consciousness that involves thinking and analyzing your own thoughts and behaviors, being one of the defining characteristics of the human being. We are naturally curious about ourselves. We repeat our own experiences and actions in the hope of understanding who and how we are, but the term is also used to refer to an experimental technique that consists in analyzing our own thoughts and feelings in a structured and rigorous way. Therefore, when we talk about introspection, we can be talking about the informal process of reflecting on oneself or the formal method used in experimental research in psychology many years ago.
The first meaning of introspection is that most people are probably more familiar with. This is the process that involves informally examining our own inner feelings and thoughts. When we reflect on our thoughts, emotions and memories and examine what they mean, we are doing introspection.
The second meaning would be a research technique developed by Wilhelm Wundt, also known as experimental self-observation. This technique consisted of training people in the most systematic and objective way possible to analyze the content of their own thoughts.
Wilhelm Wundt used a method called introspection to analyze and describe conscious experiences, which was fundamental to his approach in psychology and laid the foundation for structuralism.
Explanation:The research method used by Wilhelm Wundt, whereby volunteers were trained to observe, analyze, and describe their own sensations, mental images, and emotional reactions, is known as introspection. This method, also referred to as "internal perception," is crucial for understanding Wundt's approach to psychology. Wundt, often considered the father of experimental psychology, utilized introspection to break down consciousness into its basic elements. He further believed in voluntarism, emphasizing that participants in psychological experiments should be aware of the intentions of such experiments. His work in structuralism laid the groundwork for subsequent psychological theories and methods.
Those diagnosed with an intellectual disability score approximately 70 or below on an intelligence test and also demonstrate a limitation in_______.
Answer:
This question is comes related to the following options:
A. intrinsic motivation.
B. hybrid vigor.
C. physical health.
D. adaptive behavior
Intelligence tests are designed to calculate or assess various mental functions, including comprehension, reasoning, judgment, social skills, independence amid others; people with such low rate scores usually have a hard time living by themselves in society, they lack social competence, which is also known as "Adaptive Behavior".
Thereby the answer is D).
Which of the following joint movements from the anatomical position has an average range of motion of 0 degrees in healthy adults?
A. Lumbar rotation.B. Elbow extension.C. Subtalar inversion.D. Hip extension.
Answer:
The correct option is B: Elbow extension
Explanation:
The elbow is a very complex joint in the human body and it comprises of the proximal radioulnar, the humeroradial, and the humeroulnar; three entirely different articulations. The elbow is most times subjected to a great deal of weighty loads and thus must have the potential perform certain functions. The elbow's range of motion start approximately at 0 degrees of extension and 140 degrees of flexion in healthy adults.
A client in active labor is admitted with pree-clampsia. Which assessment finding is most significant in planning this client's care? A. Patellar reflex 4+. B. Four-hour urine output 240 ml. C. Blood pressure 158/80.D. Respiration 12/minute.
Answer:
A. Patellar reflex 4+
Explanation:
Pree-clampsia in pregnant women shows some few symptoms which include; high blood pressure, protein in urine, swelling in legs and hands. Pree-clampsia is can be caused by poor nutrition or high amout of body fat, this high amount of blood fat can increase cholesterol which blocks the blood flow into the uterus. Now, a client in active labor who is admitted with pree-clampsia may increase the chances of long-term problems for both mom and baby in the labor process. The best assessment finding that is most significant in planning this child's care is Patellar reflex 4+.
This is because Patellar reflex 4+ test the L4 segment of the spinal cord.
The patella located at the knee region is being strike with a reflex hammer to stretch the muscle fibers in the quadriceps muscles. The effect of this activity give a signal to the spinal cord and synapses. Afterwards, motor neurons conduct an efferent impulse and relay the message back to the quadriceps muscle, thereby igniting contraction. This contraction can assist the client in active labor when planning for the client's suitable care.
The most significant finding for a client in active labor with preeclampsia for planning care is a Patellar reflex of 4+, indicating severe hyperreflexia which may require urgent intervention.
Explanation:The question is regarding the assessment of a client in active labor with preeclampsia and what finding is most significant in planning the client's care. Among the presented options, Patellar reflex 4+ (A), is the most significant. Preeclampsia can lead to hyperreflexia, and a patellar reflex of 4+ indicates severe hyperreflexia, which can be a precursor to eclampsia, a severe complication that can manifest as seizures. Options B (Four-hour urine output 240 ml), C (Blood pressure 158/80), and D (Respiration 12/minute) also require monitoring, but the exaggerated reflexes are a more immediate concern that may require urgent intervention.
A victim with a foreign body airway obstruction becomes unresponsive. what should you do?
Answer:
Start CPR beginning with chest compressions.
Explanation:
Airway obstruction may be defined as any obstacle in the normal process of respiration. This might occur due to some allergy, disease or the inhalation of the foreign substance.
The airway obstruction might cause problem in the inhalation of the oxygen and its deficiency in the specific organs of the body. In this case the CPR (Cardiopulmonary resuscitation) must be performed on the individual. The chest must be compressed so that pulmonary attack can be prevented. The artificial ventilation must be given to the patient.
Thus, the answer is start CPR beginning with chest compressions.
If an individual with an airway obstruction becomes unresponsive, immediately call for emergency medical support and begin CPR if trained to do so. Check for the obstruction between compressions. It is paramount to only provide such aid if one has appropriate training.
Explanation:If a victim with a foreign body airway obstruction becomes unresponsive, it is crucial to call for emergency medical care immediately. Assess the situation quickly; if you are trained in providing aid, begin CPR with chest compressions. After each set of compressions, check to see if the object causing the obstruction has become dislodged. It's essential to be trained in the correct CPR and choking relief techniques to avoid further harm to the victim.
The person experiencing a foreign body airway obstruction may show signs like difficulty speaking or breathing, gasping or wheezing, clutching at the throat, and potentially turning blue from lack of oxygen. Immediate action can be lifesaving. However, remember that it's important only to perform such maneuvers if you are properly trained.
In cases of choking under anesthesia, a procedure called an endotracheal intubation is performed. This involves placing a tube into the trachea to maintain an open airway and ensure that oxygen reaches the lungs.
Clinical signs of compensated shock include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: a. absent peripheral pulses. b. cool and clammy skin. c. restlessness or anxiety. d. rapid, shallow breathing.
Answer:
a. absent peripheral pulses.
Explanation:
Shock is a syndrome that is characterized by the inability of the heart and / or peripheral circulation to maintain adequate perfusion of vital organs. It causes tissue hypoxia and cellular metabolic failure, either by low blood flow, or by an irregular distribution of it.
The signs are as follows:
• Superficial veins disappear
• Cold and pale skin and mucous membranes
• Dryness of the mucous membranes
•Muscular weakness
• Anxiety
• Oliguria
• Accelerated or shallow breathing
• Gastrointestinal Dysfunction
Which Dimension of Wellness includes openness to new ideas, continued learning, a sense of humor, and the ability to find solutions to challenges?
Answer:
Intellectual Dimensions of wellness
Explanation:
Intellectual Dimensions of wellness -
This dimension of wellness include , creative and innovative activities .
It refers to the ability and desire of the human mind to adapt and initiate new experiences and ideas , which would help the professional as well as personal lives , is referred to as Intellectual Dimensions of wellness .
The people learn and apply new innovative skills and challenges for better development .
Hence , from the question,
The correct term is Intellectual Dimensions of wellness.
The client explains to her new provider that she receives periodic phlebotomies to decrease her red blood cell mass. The provider believes the client may have:________.
Answer:
Polycythemia vera
Explanation:
A absolute increase in total red blood cell mass is characterized by primary polycythemia, or polycythemia vera. Treatment aim is to reduce the viscosity of the blood. That can be done by removing blood by periodic phlebotomy to reduce the volume of red blood cells. Transfusions are used to treat sickle cells and beta-thalassemias. Megaloblastic anemias, caused by deficiencies in vitamin B12 and folic acid, are treated by replacing those nutrients.
___________ term that is synonymous with foreign animal disease, it describes a disease that is not currently found in the country but found in other places in the world
Answer: Exotic disease
Explanation: Exotic disease is a term used to describe infectious disease which are currently absent in a particular country but present in some other countries in the world. An exotic disease could result either due to the fact that such disease has never surfaced in the country or it has been completely eradicated through through quarantine or any other eradication scheme.
For Instance, pseudorabies is an exotic disease in Denmark because it has been eradicated in the country, while it isn't in Ireland.
A 68 Y/O male was admitted to the ICU after a coronary artery bypass procedure. He was unstable with several episodes of hypotension for 3 days and then began to improve and stabilize. The pressure injury survey was conducted on day 6 of hospitalization and the survey team saw a Stage 2 pressure injury over his coccyx.
Review of his hospital admission assessment record revealed his skin was warm, dry, and intact.
For the pressure injury survey, this would be reported as:
a. Community Acquired Pressure Injury
b. Hospital Acquired Pressure Injury Only
c. Hospital Acquired and Unit Acquired Pressure Injury
Answer:
c. Hospital Acquired and Unit Acquired Pressure Injury
Explanation:
The pressure injury was not observed during the documentation of hospital admission record. This pressure injury was developed after hospital admission and is thus a hospital acquired pressure injury. Moreover, he was admitted into the ICU where the pressure injury survey was conducted. Therefore, this injury will also be reported as unit acquired pressure injury.
Final answer:
The pressure injury found on the patient in the ICU is a Hospital Acquired Pressure Injury only, as it occurred post-admission and was not present at the time of hospital admission.
Explanation:
The pressure injury observed on the 68-year-old male patient at the intensive care unit (ICU) after a coronary artery bypass procedure, and identified on day 6 of hospitalization is a Hospital Acquired Pressure Injury. Since the patient's skin was documented as warm, dry, and intact upon admission, and the pressure injury was noticed after several days in the hospital, it indicates that the injury occurred during the patient's hospital stay. Therefore, the correct notation for this injury in the pressure injury survey would be b. Hospital Acquired Pressure Injury Only.
Hospitals must take preventive measures such as regularly turning patients who are at risk for bedsores, and addressing any skin injuries as soon as they are noted, to reduce the occurrence of pressure injuries in patients, especially those who are immobile for long periods.
it is your turn to give a presentation in class. your heart beings to pound and your palms become sweaty. these reactions are an example of______-
Answer:a stress response
A woman arrives at the clinic for a pregnancy test. The first day of her last menstrual period (LMP) was February 14, 2013. Her expected date of birth (EDB) would be:
Answer:
October 14th
Explanation:
Child birth is the most miraculous time of a human beings life. It takes a period of 9 months and a new human baby is brought into this life.
Being pregnant simply means that the female stops having menstrual cycles because the child is in the process of formation. Every specie has a designated time period in which the reproduction process completes. For human beings, it is nine months, for cats, it is 2 months and it varies.
A woman who had her last menstrual period on February 14th, would expect child birth on October 14th. It can be before or after too.
Ashya wants to focus on the diagnosis and treatment of psychological disorders and other problematic patterns of behavior. What area of psychology should she work in?
Ashya should consider pursuing a career in clinical psychology. Clinical psychology is a specialized field within psychology that focuses on the diagnosis and treatment of psychological disorders and problematic patterns of behavior. The correct answer is clinical psychology.
Clinical psychologists are trained to assess and provide therapy for individuals facing a wide range of mental health issues, such as anxiety, depression, schizophrenia, and substance abuse, among others.
In this field, Ashya would work to understand the underlying causes of psychological problems, provide evidence-based treatments. Clinical psychologists often work in various settings, including hospitals, mental health clinics, private practices, and research institutions. They play a crucial role in improving the well-being of their clients by applying psychological theories and therapeutic techniques.
To become a clinical psychologist, Ashya would typically need to earn a doctoral degree in psychology (Ph.D. or Psy.D.), complete an internship, and obtain a license to practice in her jurisdiction. This path would equip her with the necessary knowledge and skills to make a positive impact in the field of mental health and well-being.
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Ashya should consider working in the field of Clinical Psychology. This area of psychology is dedicated to the diagnosis and treatment of psychological disorders and problematic behavioral patterns.
Definition: Clinical psychology focuses on assessing, diagnosing, and treating mental disorders.
Scope: This includes a wide variety of issues such as anxiety disorders, mood disorders, personality disorders, and more. Psychologists in this field aim to alleviate psychological distress through various treatment methods.
Approach: Clinical psychologists often use evidence-based practices, integrating scientific research with practical applications to provide effective treatments.
Research Component: While clinical psychology is primarily applied, many professionals also engage in research to better understand psychological disorders and improve treatment outcomes.
Related Fields: There are related disciplines, such as Counseling Psychology, which focuses on emotionally healthy individuals and improving their quality of life in various contexts, including social and vocational aspects.
Career Path: Typically, individuals aspiring to become clinical psychologists pursue advanced education, such as a Ph.D. or Psy.D., and complete supervised training through internships.
Setting: Clinical psychologists can work in various environments, including hospitals, private practices, schools, and community health organizations.
In summary, pursuing a career in clinical psychology would allow Ashya to actively contribute to diagnosing and treating psychological disorders, making a significant impact on the lives of individuals facing mental health challenges.
An adult is swinging a small child by the arms, and the child screams and grabs his left arm. It is determined in the emergency department that the radial head is partially dislocated. What is this partially dislocated radial head documented as?A) Volkmann's contractureB) SubluxationC) Compartment syndromeD) Sprain
Answer: B) Subluxation
Explanation:
A partial dislocation is referred to as a subluxation. A Volkmann's contracture is a clawlike deformity that results from compartment syndrome or obstructed arterial blood flow to the forearm and hand. Compartment syndrome is a condition in which a structure such as a tendon or nerve is constricted in a confined space and affects nerve innervation, leading to subsequent palsy. A sprain is injury to the ligaments surrounding the joint.
A 6-year-old girl presents with a limp. The parents noted that the girl was having difficulty walking for the past two days. They deny trauma or fever but did note a cold one week prior. On physical exam, the girl appears well and is afebrile, with the left hip held flexed and abducted. Laboratory tests reveal normal erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), C-reactive protein (CRP), and WBC. Ultrasound shows the presence of joint effusion of the left hip. Which of the following of the most likely diagnosis?a. Myositis
b. Septic arthritis
c. Stress fracture
d. Transient (toxic) synovitis
Answer:
d. Transient (toxic) synovitis
Explanation:
From the symptoms stated in the question, the girl has suffered from Transient (toxic) synovitis. Transient (toxic) synovitis results from inflammation in the synovium (inner linnings of the capsule) situated in the hip joint. Studies have shown that it is one of the most causes of hip pain in children.
It is known that symptoms can start suddenly before it typically shows up within 1-2 weeks. At the earlier stage during 1-2 weeks, an upper respiratory illness is noticed in affected patients. The symptoms usually develop afterwards with acute pain in the depressed area of the thigh, the junction of the trunk at the thigh, knee joints, hip and the srrounding region, thus the children walk with pain.
Also, in affected patient,they are often afebrile or have no or low-grade fever.
Ultrasound shows the presence of joint effusion(fluid collection) of the left hip causing monoarticular disorder of synovial joints, Hence,the hip is held flexed or abducted. Treatment includes Clinical administration of nonsteriodal anti-inflammatory drugs and weight barrier capable of inducing the patient by exertion some force and pressure towards the weight should be limited.
The minimum intensity of physical stimulation required to produce any sensation at all in a person is the just noticeable threshold. True or False
The just noticeable threshold is the minimum intensity of physical stimulation required to produce any sensation in a person.
Explanation:The statement is True. The just noticeable threshold refers to the minimum intensity of physical stimulation required to produce any sensation in a person. This threshold varies for each sense. For example, in vision, the threshold is the minimum amount of light needed to perceive a visual stimulus. In hearing, it is the minimum sound intensity required to detect a sound.
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Cheryl is trying to teach her son to do the laundry by having him watch her. According to observational learning theory, to be effective what must occur?
Answer:
To be effective, Learning through observation requires keen attentive abilities. This model does not meet reinforcement to occur, but instead, requires a social model such a friend, parent, teacher with surroundings.
Explanation:
This theory needs an individual learning a behavior by observing another individual and that individual serving as a model through whom other individuals learn the behavior. It suggests that an individual’s environment, cognition and behavior all incorporate and ultimately determine how the individual functions and model. There is a reciprocal determinism in which the environment can influence people’s behavior and vice versa.
According to observational theory, B. Her son must be motivated to learn how to do the laundry, must occur.
Cheryl wants to teach her son to do the laundry by having him watch her, which involves observational learning. According to Bandura's observational learning theory, four key steps must occur for learning to be effective: attention, retention, reproduction, and motivation.
Attention: Cheryl's son must pay attention to what she is doing while doing the laundry. Without attention, he won't be able to observe the steps involved in the process.
Retention: He must be able to remember what Cheryl did. This means that he needs to retain the sequence of actions and any specific techniques she uses during the laundry process.
Reproduction: Cheryl's son must be able to reproduce the behavior. In other words, he needs to practice and perform the steps he observed and remembered to be able to do the laundry himself.
Motivation: Finally, he needs to be motivated to learn and perform the task. This could involve Cheryl explaining the importance of doing the laundry or offering some form of reinforcement for completing the task.
Given the options provided, the most critical factor, according to observational learning theory, is motivation, because without the desire to learn and perform the behavior, the son may not engage fully in the learning process.
Complete question:
Cheryl is trying to teach her son to do the laundry by having him watch her. According to observational learning theory, to be effective what must occur?
A. Her son must always model the behavior immediately.
B. Her son must be motivated to learn how to do the laundry.
C. Her son must be able to complete other tasks while watching her.
Suzy just spent a hot summer afternoon having a picnic. The food has been lying out for a few hours. Explain what she should do with the food and why.
Final answer:
Suzy should discard any perishable foods that have been out for more than two hours in the temperature range of 4°C to 60°C to avoid foodborne illnesses, as they are at high risk for bacterial growth.
Explanation:
Suzy should analyze the picnic foods that have been left out during the hot summer afternoon to determine if they are safe to eat or need to be discarded. Perishable foods that have been left out at temperatures between 4°C (40°F) and 60°C (140°F) for more than two hours are at risk for the growth of microorganisms that cause foodborne disease, and consequently should be thrown away to avoid illness. Foods that are meant to be eaten hot should have been kept hot, and those meant to be cold should have been kept refrigerated; any deviation from these guidelines potentially makes the food unsafe.
Regarding leftovers, since they have been exposed to outdoor temperatures for a few hours, it is likely that they have entered the temperature danger zone where bacteria can rapidly multiply. Following the safety guideline, these foods should not be consumed. It is crucial for food safety to prevent foodborne illnesses that can result from the consumption of improperly handled foods.
Dr. Levy's research showed that a dose of 200 mg of experimental Drug R had a minimal effect in reducing the symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). He then revised the study's hypothesis by increasing the dosage to 300 mg. In this context, reduction of GAD symptoms is the:
Answer:
In this context, the reduction of GAD symptoms is the dependent variable.
Explanation:
In this experiment, drug R dose is the independent variable and the reduction of GAD symptoms is the dependent variable. The increase in drug dose is negatively associated with decrease in GAD symptoms. At 200 mg Drug R dose had a minimal effect on GAD symptoms. However, increase in drug dose to 300 mg had a marked decrease in GAD symptoms making the independent and dependent variable inversely proportional.
In this case, the reduction of GAD symptoms is the dependent variable. It is the outcome of interest that Dr. Levy is studying the effects of different dosages of experimental Drug R on.
Explanation:In the given context, the reduction of GAD (generalized anxiety disorder) symptoms is considered as the dependent variable. In research, the dependent variable is the outcome that a researcher is trying to explain or predict, which in this case is the effect of dosage of Drug R on reducing GAD symptoms. The dosage of experimental Drug R is the independent variable as this is manipulated by Dr. Levy in his study. By increasing the dosage from 200 mg to 300 mg, Dr. Levy is testing if this change will have an improved effect on reducing GAD symptoms.
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What is the minimal number of kilocalories that should come from carbohydrates in a diet of a body builder who consumes 4,100 total kilocalories daily?
Answer:
1845 kcal/day
Explanation:
According to dietary guidelines, 45% to 65% of kilocalories should come from carbohydrates in a daily uptake. A minimal number of kilocalories from carbohydrate should be 45%. If a body-builder consumes 4,100 kilocalories in a day, 1845 kilocalories comes from the carbohydrate.
45% of 4,100 kcal
= 45/100 x 4,100 kcal
= 0.45 x 4,100
= 1,845 kcal per day
It does not matter how much protein intake takes a bodybuilder. 45% of kilocalories should come from carbohydrates.
Delilah is overweight. She likes to eat cookies and other sugary snacks, and often eats an entire package at one sitting. She is upset by this because she knows how important weight is to health, but she does not engage in any compensatory behaviors. Which of the following would be a likely diagnosis?
Answer:
Binge eating disorder
Explanation:
Binge eating disorder is the a type of eating disorder that is characterized by the individual’s uncontrolled appetite resulting in the frequent consumption of huge quantity of food.
People who suffer from binge eating disorder often have the habit of overeating. They are usually overweight and would often feel helpless controlling their appetite even though they may not be happy with such behavior. They also do not involve in compensatory behaviors like vomiting, exercising or the use of laxative to loss the extra calorie consumed.
An older adult presents with a pearly-domed nodular looking lesion on the back of the neck. It does not hurt or itch. He does not know how long he's had it. What is the most likely etiology?
Answer:
Basal cell carcinoma .
Explanation:
Cancer may be defined as the uncontrolled division of the cell that might occur due to mutation. The different type of cancer are carcinoma, sarcoma and leukemia.
The basal cell carcinoma depicts the skin cancer cell that occur due to the mutation in the cell responsible for the production of new skin cell. This cancer is generally occur due to the areas that are directly exposed to the sun especially in the neck. These cancer can cause nodular like lesion.
Thus, the answer is basal cell carcinoma.
Noor has gained twenty pounds over her optimal weight. We would expect her levels of leptin and insulin to _____ in order to _____ her feelings of hunger.
Answer:
The correct answer is - decrease and increase respectively in order to increase her feeling of hunger.
Explanation:
Insulin is the hormone that is made by the pancreas that permits the cells to absorb sugar or glucose to acts as energy. If insulin level is increase in the blood it will lead to increase the feeling of the hunger even however physiological you not need more food.
Leptin in other hand has the role as hunger hormone which include the lowering the feeling of the hunger if present in high level.
Thus, the correct answer is - decrease and increase respectively in order to increase her feeling of hunger.
Describe at least four ways an epidemiologist could have helped in handling and analyzing the outbreak of hemorrhagic fever in Africa. How do epidemiologists play a role in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of chronic illnesses, such as cancer or heart disease?
Final answer:
Epidemiologists could have helped in handling and analyzing the outbreak of hemorrhagic fever in Africa by identifying the mode of transmission, conducting rapid investigations, developing public health policies, and collaborating with historians and other experts. They also play a significant role in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of chronic illnesses such as cancer or heart disease by gathering data and developing strategies.
Explanation:
An epidemiologist could have helped in handling and analyzing the outbreak of hemorrhagic fever in Africa in the following ways:
Identifying the mode of transmission: Epidemiologists track the spread of a disease and collect data to determine how it is transmitted. By identifying the mode of transmission of hemorrhagic fever, they can develop strategies to prevent its spread.Conducting rapid investigations: Epidemiologists conduct thorough investigations during outbreaks to gather information and recommend immediate control measures. In the case of hemorrhagic fever, they would have fast-tracked the investigation to contain the outbreak.Developing public health policies: Based on the data collected, epidemiologists can design and implement public health policies to reduce the incidence of the disease. They could have developed specific policies to address the hemorrhagic fever outbreak in Africa.Collaborating with historians and other experts: Epidemiologists often work with historians and other experts to understand the geographical and historical context of a disease. This collaboration helps in analyzing the outbreak and developing effective control measures.Epidemiologists play a crucial role in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of chronic illnesses such as cancer or heart disease. They gather data on the frequency and risk factors associated with these diseases in populations. This information is used to develop strategies for prevention, early diagnosis, and effective treatment.
Scott, age 24, has withdrawn from most social contact and stopped dressing appropriately. When you speak with him, his conversation tends to make no sense. Of the following options, Scott is most likely to be diagnosed with ________.A. generalized anxiety disorder.B. a specific phobia.C. schizophrenia.D. an addiction.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Scott is most likely to be diagnosed with generalized anxiety. It lasts for longer than six months. Thus, the correct option is A.
What is Generalized anxiety?Generalized anxiety disorder is a mental condition of excessive worry about the everyday issues and situations which one face. It lasts for longer than six months. In addition to feeling worried a person may also feel restlessness, fatigue, trouble in concentration, irritability, increased muscle tension, and trouble in sleeping.
The two main treatments for generalized anxiety disorder include psychotherapy and medications. A person may benefit most from a combination of the two treatments. It may take some trial and error method to discover which of the treatments works best for a person.
Therefore, the correct option is A.
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Cardiovascular exercise affects brain structures in nonhuman animals by promoting neuron growth and increased synaptic connections in a brain structure called the _____.
Answer: Hippo campus
Explanation:
The cardiovascular exercise affects the brain structure in non human animals. It is done by promoting growth of the neurons and hence increasing the synaptic connections.
The synaptic connections in the hippo campus are improved because of which the development takes place. The brain is adaptive and the damaged part of the brain is replaced by the functional part of the brain.
According to longitudinal population studies, the five factors commonly found to affect well-being include all of the following except_____________.
Answer: income
Explanation: longitudinal population studies are observational studies that track the same population, wherein the differences in such population are less likely to be the result of cultural differences. In it they study variations in thoughts, behaviors, emotions etc at instantaneous moments. As regards income, since these studies are instantaneous, there's no comparison to previous income or progression in income that affects wellbeing.
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Over the past few decades, what has been shown about school readiness programs?
A.They are too challenging and should be redesigned.
B. They have a positive impact on the pre-kindergarten child.
C. They promote anxiety because children are too young to be away from home.
D. They teach children more about functioning in a social institution than elementary school
Answer:
c
Explanation:
Answer:the answer is b
Explanation:
Nurses in acute care settings must work with other health care team members to maintain quality care while facing pressures to care for patients who are hospitalized for shorter periods of time than in the past. To ensure positive health outcomes when patients return to their homes, what action should the nurse prioritize?
Answer: A nurse on a postsurgical unit is providing care based on a clinical pathway. When performing assessments and interventions with the aid of a pathway, the nurse should prioritize what goal? A) Helping the patient to achieve specific outcomes B) Balancing risks and benefits of interventions C) Documenting the patient's response to therapy D) Staying accountable to the interdisciplinary team Ans: A Feedback:Pathways are an EBP tool that is used primarily to move patients toward predetermined outcomes. Documentation, accountability, and balancing risks and benefits are appropriate, but helping the patient achieve outcomes is paramount
Explanation: