In sheep, coat color is influenced by two genes. Gene A influences pigment production, while gene B produces black or brown pigment. If two heterozygous white sheep were crossed and offspring were produced in a ratio of 12 white sheep to 3 black sheep to 1 brown sheep, what are the genotypes of the offspring?
Answers
Answer:
White: A---
Black: aaB-
Brown: aabb
Explanation:
The given example represents dominant epistasis wherein the gene A masks the effect of gene B. Hence, all the genotypes having at least one copy of "A" allele will have white coat color (A---).
On the other hand, in absence of "A" allele, the "B" allele would be able to express itself. Hence, all the genotypes that have two copies of recessive "a" allele and atleast one "B" allele (aaB-) would have black coat color.
The brown coat color would be expressed in double homozygous recessive genotypes (aabb) only.
In sheep, when two heterozygous white sheep are crossed, resulting in a phenotypic ratio of 12 white:3 black:1 brown sheep, this demonstrates epistasis. White sheep could have various genotypes indicating a lack of pigment or color expression, black sheep would have AaBb genotype, and the rare brown sheep could be aaBB.
In the scenario described, where coat color in sheep is influenced by two genes - Gene A for pigment production and Gene B that decides the color of the pigment (black or brown), we observe an example of epistasis. Cross-breeding two heterozygous white sheep resulted in offspring with a phenotypic ratio of 12 white:3 black:1 brown. To understand the genotypes of the offspring, we must assign gene symbols. Let's say 'A' (dominant) allows pigment production, while 'a' (recessive) does not; and 'B' (dominant) codes for black pigment, while 'b' (recessive) results in brown pigment. The absence of A (aa genotype) results in white coat color regardless of the B gene's allele, which is an example of epistasis. Given the ratios, the probable genotypes for the offspring would be:
White sheep: aabb, Aabb, aaBb, or any combination where at least one gene lacks the dominant allele necessary for color expression.Black sheep: AaBb, which have the necessary alleles from each gene to produce pigment and determine it to be black.Brown sheep: aaBB, lacking the dominant A for pigment production but possessing the dominant B allele, resulting in brown pigment in the few cases where pigment is produced.This demonstrates the interaction between multiple genes in determining an organism's phenotype, specifically through the mechanism of epistasis.
Related Questions
List the types of proteins found in the cell membrane.
Answers
On which bone does Sella Turcica occurs?
Answers
Answer:
Sella Turcica occurs on the sphenoid bone.
Explanation:
Sella Turcica is the saddle shaped bone of the skull and acts as cephlaometric landmark. The inner aspect of sella turcica consists of hypophysis or pituitary gland.
Sella Turcica is present in the sphenoid bone of the skull just behind the tuberculum sellae and chiasmatic groove. The shrink pituitary gland is indicated by the empty Sella Turcica.
In the alveoli, you would expect to find the alveolar:
a. PO2 greater than the capillary PO2 before exchange.
b. PCO2 greater than the capillary PCO2 before exchange.
c. PO2 greater than the alveolar blood after exchange.
d. All of the above.
Answers
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Before exchange, it is expected that the capillaries (that have deoxygenated blood) will have more carbon dioxide while the lungs will have more oxygen. This allows for oxygen to diffuse into the capillaries while carbon dioxide diffused into the lungs during the exchange.
On which bone does Jugular Foramen occurs?
Answers
Answer:
The petrous temporal bone
Explanation:
Jugular Foramen is a cavity or aperture which is formed at the junction of two bones of the skull. Jugular Foramen occurs at the junction of the occipital bone and petrous temporal bone. The petrous temporal bone has carotid foramen. The Jugular Foramen is located posterior to the carotid foramen but anterior to the occipital bone of the skull.
48) Capillaries lack smooth muscle and elastic or fibrous tissue reinforcement. Instead, theirwalls consist of ________, supported on a cellular matrix called ________
Answers
There’s no fill in words ?
Capillaries are formed from a single layer of endothelial cells, supported by a basement membrane. This structure allows them to be flexible, yet strong, and permeable to materials passing through them.
Explanation:Capillaries, unlike other types of blood vessels, lack smooth muscle and elastic or fibrous tissue reinforcement. Instead, their walls are composed of endothelial cells, which are supported on a cellular matrix known as the basement membrane or basal lamina.
In a large capillary, several endothelial cells may line the lumen, while in a small capillary there may be only a single cell layer that wraps around to contact itself. The basement membrane, which binds the endothelium to the connective tissue, provides strength while maintaining flexibility. It is permeable, allowing materials to pass through it.
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What is this bug called?
Answers
Answer:
ASSASSIN BUG
What type of hormones are secreted by troph cells in the anterior pituitary gland?
a. Releasing hormones
b. Stimulating hormones
Answers
Answer:
Option (b). stimulating hormone.
Explanation:
The pituitary gland is an endocrine gland, present at the base of the brain. The anterior lobe of pituitary consists of various endocrine cells or troph cells that synthesize and secret various hormones.
The hormones released by these cells are mainly stimulating hormones that regulate functions of some other glands. For example, TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone) and FSH (follicle stimulating hormone) are secreted by anterior pituitary gland that regulate function of thyroid gland and ovaries, respectively.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
Why is the action of phagocytes considered a nonspecific response?
Answers
Answer:
Since phagocytes are effective against any type of infectious/toxic agent.
Explanation:
Phagocytes are the cells of the immune system that are involved in the non-specific immune response. These cells serve to engulf and kill any pathogenic or infectious microbe that has entered the body. Since phagocytes do not require the presence of specific antigens or pathogens to mount the immune response, their action is "non-specific response".
Answer:
D. It is not a response to a specific type of pathogen.
Explanation:
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Your skin has multiple layers of epithelial cells. The apical cells (closest to the surface, "top") are "flat" and the basal cells (farther from surface bottom") are "as tall as they are wide". Another way to describe this epithelium would be to state:
a. Simple columnar epithelium
b. Simple cuboidal epithelium
c. Simple squamous epithelium
d. Stratified columnar epithelium
e. Stratified cuboidal epithelium
f. Stratified squamous epithelium
g. Simple transitional epithelium
Answers
Answer:
c. Simple squamous epithelium ?
Explanation:
The apical cells are "as tall as they are wide". Another way to describe this epithelium would be to state simple squamous epithelium. Thus, option C is correct.
What is epithelium tissue?
The epithelium tissue has been defined as the form of the tissue present in the body and it plays a vital role in the covering of all internal as well as external surface of body, which includes hollow organs and lines body cavity. The structure of the epithelial cells are said to be combined together by tight junctions as well as adhering junction and attached to extra cellular matrix.
Tissue is the combined structure of cell and later tissue combined together to form organ and than organ system is formed to perform various functions of the body. The structure of epithelial cells are they combined together by tight junctions as well as adhering junction and attached to extra cellular matrix.
Therefore, The apical cells are "as tall as they are wide". Another way to describe this epithelium would be to state simple squamous epithelium. Thus, option C is correct.
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As the popliteal vein ascends the leg, it becomes the
A. peroneal vein.
B. saphenous vein.
C. common iliac vein
D. femoral vein.
E. deep femoral vein.
Answers
Answer:
D. Femoreal vein.
Explanation:
Close to the popliteal artery, the popliteal vein extends and transports blood from the knee (and also the muscles from the thigh and calf) once again up to the heart. This vein has its origin in the joint between both the anterior and posterior tibial veins, proximal to the knee.
Also, the popliteal vein starts its extension from the popliteal artery, which can be found behind the knee, and the drainage of the peroneal vein is performed by it prior to reaching the knee joint, where the popliteal vein becomes known as the femoral vein.
As the popliteal vein ascends the leg, it becomes the D. femoral vein. This is the correct option among the choices provided.
The popliteal vein is a deep vein that drains the lower leg and knee area. When it travels upwards in the leg, the popliteal vein becomes the femoral vein as it enters the thigh region. The femoral vein plays a crucial role in the circulatory system as it drains the upper leg and receives blood from several other veins, including the great saphenous vein, the deep femoral vein, and the femoral circumflex vein. Upon reaching the inguinal ligament, the femoral vein continues as the external iliac vein, which then contributes to the common iliac vein. Confusion may arise among the terminology, such as with the peroneal vein and others, but knowledge of vascular anatomy makes clear that the direct upward continuation of the popliteal vein is indeed the femoral vein.
A long, thin, oblique muscle of anterior thigh
a. Sartorius
b. Masseter
Answers
Answer:
The answer is A Sartorius
Explanation:
Check out this quizlet. It helps.
https://quizlet.com/168886044/anatomy-physiology-muscles-key-term-matching-flash-cards/
Neuroglia that control the chemical environment around neurons by buffering potassium and recapturing neurotransmitters are ________. A. oligodendrocytes B. microglia C. astrocytes D. Schwann cells
Answers
Answer:
Astrocytes
Explanation:
Astrocytes are star shaped glial cells and are the most abundant glial cells in the group. Thy have gap junctions with pottasium and calcium channels that refulate the concentration of the ions in the environment creating a buffer that ensures the neurons function effectively during saltatory condution when ions are released outside their membrane. They also capture any unused neurotransmitters during cell communication by neurons at the synaptic junctions.
You are studying several alleles of an E. coli helicase gene. One allele, called rsR, confers resistance to RS2014, an antibiotic that works by inhibiting helicase activity. Bacteria with the rsS allele are sensitive to RS2014. Another allele, called ts-, produces a temperature sensitive mutation of the helicase. In bacteria with the ts- allele, helicase is inactivated at 42 °C but functions normally at 37 °C. Helicase functions normally at both temperatures in bacteria with the ts allele. You obtain the following data while testing four strains of E. coli at different temperatures and doses of RS2014. Each number represents the percentage of maximal DNA synthesis. Based on this data, assign the appropriate genotype to strains A–D in the spaces provided
Answers
Answer:
refre
Explanation:
Based on the data provided, the appropriate genotypes for strains A-D are assigned.
Explanation:Based on the given information, we can assign the appropriate genotype to strains A-D as follows:
Strain A is rsR ts-Strain B is rsS ts-Strain C is rsR tsStrain D is rsS tsThese assignments are made by analyzing the behavior of each strain in response to different temperatures and doses of the RS2014 antibiotic. The rsR allele confers resistance to RS2014, while the rsS allele makes the bacteria sensitive to RS2014. The ts- allele causes the helicase to be inactivated at 42 °C, but function normally at 37 °C.
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Why are infections more common with compound fractures than with simple fractures?
Answers
Answer: Compound fractures = open fractures
Explanation: This means that the area is more suseptable to infection. Because it is open, there is more room for an infection to burrow in and spread.
The specific color of blood is most closely associated to
A) Its pH
B) Its oxygen content
C) Its hematocrit
D) The age of the individual
Answers
Answer:
B. It's oxygen content
Explanation:
The specific color of blood is most closely associated to its oxygen content because the more oxygen present in your blood, the more dark red your blood would be...
If you have less oxygen in your blood, the blood wouldn't be as dark red...
The frequency of a deleterious recessive disease in a large, randomly-mating population is 1 in 1000. Calculate the probability of an individual being a carrier for this recessive disease?
a) 0.74
b) 0.06
c) 0.03
d) 0.001
e) All individuals will be homozygous
Answers
Answer:
The frequency of carriers for the recessive disease is 0.062.
Explanation:
The frequency of recessive allele in the generation is 1 in 1000.
Let the frequency be q²=1/1000.
q=√1/1000.
q=0.032.
Let p be the frequency of dominant allele
p+q=1 ( According to hardy weinberg equillibrium)
p=1-q
p= 1-0.032
p=0.968.
The frequency of carriers for the recessive disease = 2×p×q
=2×0.032×0.968
=0.062.
CD8 helps with recognition of which of the following molecules on the surface of a cell?
Question 12 options:
A)
TLRs
B)
selectins
C)
MHCII
D)
MHCI
E)
BCRs
Answers
Answer:
MHCI
Explanation:
Major histocompatibility complex I (MHCI) is present on the nucleated cells of the body. Endogenous pathway represents the pathway of MHC class I molecules.
MHCI display peptide fragment of proteins to the cytotoxic T cells with the help of CD8 ( Cluster of differentiation). CD8 binds with the MHCI and expressed on the surface of cytotoxic T cells.
Thus, the correct answer is option (D).
Which of the following would not be involved in performing synergism when making a fist?
a. Extensor Carpi Radialis Longus
b. Extensor Digitorium
c. Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis
d. Extensor Carpi Ulnaris
Answers
Final answer:
The muscle that would not be involved in performing synergism when making a fist is the b) extensor digitorum, as it is responsible for extending the fingers and hand, which is the opposite motion of making a fist.
Explanation:
When making a fist, muscles called synergists work together to perform the action required. The extensor digitorum is involved in extending the fingers and the hand at the wrist, not in flexing them to make a fist. The muscles that would be involved in making a fist are the flexors. Therefore, the muscle that would not be involved in performing synergism when making a fist is: b. Extensor Digitorium
The other muscles listed are extensors of the wrist and would not actively contribute to the flexion required for making a fist. To clarify, the extensor muscles listed (including the extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis, and extensor carpi ulnaris) primarily act to extend the wrist and fingers, which is the opposite motion required for making a fist.
What is most common white blood cell?
A. lymphocyte
B. neutrophil
C. basophil
D. monocyte
Answers
If a transgene is inserted into an animal embryo
only the non-reproductive cells should contain the transgene DNA.
the animal should become sterile as an adult.
every cell should contain the transgene DNA.
the transgene protein will be expressed in all cells.
only the sperm and egg cells should contain the transgene DNA.
Answers
Answer:
Every cell should contain the transgene DNA.
Explanation:
The embryo is the very early stages of growth and development of an organism. An embryo develops from a zygote and contains about 16 cells. Inserting transgenes in these cells, therefore, will ensure that all the cells that divide from the embryo by mitosis have the transgene. The whole organism will, therefore, bear the transgene including its gametes. This foreign gene will, therefore, be inherited by the offspring of the organism.
What is the densest layer
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
The densest layer is the solid metal inner core, the mantle is of intermediate density, and the least dense layer is the lithosphere, particularly the continental lithosphere.
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What is the blind spot of the retina?
Answers
Answer:
The region of retina devoid of photoreceptor cells (rod cells and cone cells)
Explanation:
The retina is the layer of the eyeball and is packed with rod cells and cone cells responsible for night and day vision respectively. The blind spot is the region in the retina where no rod cells and cone cells are present.
Absence of these photoreceptor cells ensures that no vision is formed in this part of the retina. However, the blind spot serves as the site from where the optic nerve passes through the retina and serves to transmit the impulse to the brain.
Select the correct answer.
Which of the following statements is a scientific claim?
A.
The early solar system had large amounts of water; so, the oldest objects in the solar system should also be abundant in water.
B.
The mass of the universe is much greater than current models predict; it is not possible to explain this inconsistency.
C.
Planet Earth is abundant in water, but there is no way to scientifically determine from where Earth's water originated.
D.
Earth is shaped like a sphere even if not all of the scientific observations related to its shape support this idea.
Answers
Answer:
B maybe
Explanation:
Answer:
Option A, The early solar system had large amounts of water; so, the oldest objects in the solar system should also be abundant in water.
Explanation:
A scientific claim is a evidence based statement that is tested and tried through experiment and reasoning.
Among all the given options none of the statement except the option A has a logical reasoning support or backup.
However, in option A the statement "old object in solar system are abundant of water" is based on the reason that "early solar systems had large amount of water"
Thus, option A is correct
What valve prevents back flow into the left ventricle of the heart?
A) pulmonary valve
B) mitral valve
C) tricuspid valve
D) aortic valve
Answers
Answer:
Option D, aortic valve
Explanation:
The location of aortic valve i.e between the aorta and left ventricle, allows it to stop the blood from flowing back into the left ventricle.
The other options are incorrect as -
Pulmonary valve being located between the pulmonary artery and right ventricle, stop the blood from flowing back into the right ventricle.
The tricuspid valve and mitral valve stops the blood from flowing back into the right atria and left atria respectively.
Hence, option D is correct.
Immoveable joints are
a. diarthrotic
b. synathrotic
c. amphiarthrotic
d. syndesmose
Answers
Answer:
D syndesmose
Explanation:
An immovable joint connects the ends of the bones by a tough fibrous tissue.
Name, in order, the five main components of a reflex arc. Briefly explain what each component is or does.
Answers
Answer:
The five parts of reflex arc are sense organs (receptor) followed by sensory neuron, then the inter neuron, motor neuron and lastly by the muscles/body organs.
Explanation:
The five parts of reflex arc are -
a) The first part is the receptor which comprises of sense organ whose function is to sense the impulse and pass the perceived information to the sensory neuron.
b) The sensory neuron then carry the information from sense organs to the central nervous system (CNS) for processing.
c) The inter neurons carry the information from CNS to the motor neuron
d) After receiving processed information/ action potential from inter neuron it is sent to the other parts of the body and away from the CNS .
e) Lastly, the muscles/body organs which receive information from the motor neuron, enact as directed by the CNS as a response to the impulse received.
What happens if calorie intake exceeds TDEE for a significant period of time?
Answers
Answer:
The individual gains weight if if calorie intake exceeds TDEE for a significant period of time.
Explanation:
TDEE ( Total daily energy expenditure) is the number of calories burnt in the day. TDEE involves the energy from the basal metabolism and physical activity.
The value of TDEE exceeds the value of basal metabolic rate. If calories intake in an individual exceeds the TDEE, an individual body's gain weight for the significant period of time.
When RBCs are placed in a hypotonic solution, they undergo
a. crenation
b. hemolysis
c. isotonicity
d. homeostasis
Answers
Answer: b. hemolysis
Explanation:
A hypotonic solution is the one where the solute concentration is less than that of the RBCs. Therefore, the solvent will enter inside the RBCs due to osmotic pressure. This will lead to the increase in concentration of the solvent inside the cells this will lead to the swallowing of the cell and with generation of the high internal pressure inside the cell the cell will burst. This will result in hemolysis.
Which muscle is responsible for inhalation ?
Answers
Answer:
The muscles of respiration are those muscles that contribute to inhalation and exhalation, by aiding in the expansion and contraction of the thoracic cavity. The diaphragm and, to a lesser extent, the intercostal muscles drive respiration during quiet breathing.
the answer is diaphragm
As you lift a heavier weight, what is happening? (Select all that apply.) a. You increase the number of muscle fibers activated in each motor unit. b. You increase the number of motor units that are active in each activated muscle. c. You increase the frequency of action potentials in your motor neurons. d. You increase the diameter of muscle fibers activated in a motor unit.