In classical conditioning, if the conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus, what will likely occur?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

The correct answer is - Extinction.  

Explanation:

When a conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus the extinction of the conditioned response will occur, In classical conditioning.

For example, in Pavlov's classic experiment, the salivation in dogs occurs when the sound of the bell occurs, but if the food is not presented with the sound of the bell. The salivation response eventually became extinct.

Thus, the correct answer is - Extinction.


Related Questions

Vitamin C assists in the formation of the most abundant body protein, which is __________ This relates to the lack of vitamin C and can lead to _____..
a. elastin
b. choline
c. collagen
d. hemoglobin

Answers

Final answer:

Vitamin C assists in the formation of collagen, the most abundant body protein. Lack of vitamin C can lead to scurvy due to reduced collagen production.

Explanation:

Vitamin C is vital in the production of collagen, which is the most abundant protein in the human body. Collagen contributes to the health and structure of skin, blood vessels, bones, and other tissues. A deficiency in Vitamin C can result in a condition called scurvy, characterized by fatigue, swollen and bleeding gums, joint pain, and anemia, due to the body's decreased ability to produce collagen.

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Final answer:

Vitamin C plays a crucial role in the formation of collagen, the most abundant protein in the body. If Vitamin C is lacking, it can lead to abnormalities in collagen formation, ultimately leading to a disease called Scurvy.

Explanation:

Vitamin C assists in the formation of the most abundant body protein, which is collagen. Collagen is needed for the health and repair of various tissues, including skin, blood vessels, and bones. Thus, a deficiency in Vitamin C can lead to a condition called Scurvy. This disease is characterized by a myriad of symptoms, including fatigue, swollen gums, joint pain, and anemia due to the breakdown of collagen in capillaries.

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The nursing instructor explains to students that positive inotropic action affects the heart in which way?

Answers

Answer:

Positive inotropic effect means that it increases the contraction force of the heart, reducing the intracellular calcium level of the myocardium.

Explanation:

    Inotropism is a health science term to refer to the contraction capacity of the cardiac (myocardial) muscles. Inotropic action influences contractile force, velocity of  myocardial pressure development and ejection velocity.

Negative inotropic effect means contraction force decreases or decreases cardiac outputPositive inotropic effect means that it increases the contraction force of the heart, reducing the intracellular calcium level of the myocardium.

Positive chronotropic action increases

heart rate - tachycardia; cardiac contraction force, both  atrio and ventricles); conduction velocity in the atrioventricular node.

One key role of copper is that it works with _____ to protect you from __________.

Answers

Answer:

enzymes, virus and bacterias

Explanation:

Copper is a potent bactericidal agent, being a great ally to fight diseases.

Copper is an ally in the fight against infections, due to its efficiency as a bactericidal agent. That is why copper surfaces and their alloys are ideal for preventing disease transmission.

What is the most important teaching from the plan of care, to emphasize, when a client is prescribed a skeletal muscle relaxant?

Answers

Answer: the client is instructed not to drive or operate machinery as this could result in potentially fatal accidents.

Explanation: muscles need to properly contract & relax during such activities and since the drug would cause extensive relaxation, the client should not therefore work while on the medication.

Which of the following does NOT result in metabolic alkalosis? a. constipation b. decrease in food c. intake lowered body temperature d. hyperventilation

Answers

Answer:

D. Hyperventilation

Explanation:

Hyperventilation is a condition in which you start to breathe very fast. Healthy breathing occurs with a healthy balance between breathing in oxygen and breathing out carbon dioxide. You upset this balance when you hyperventilate by exhaling more than you inhale.

Infants who receive adequate nutrition but look as though they are suffering from marasmus, acting listless and apathetic, are suffering from __________.a. nonorganic failure to thriveb. marasmusc. undernutritiond. Kwashiorkor

Answers

Answer:

A. Non organic failure to thrive.

Explanation:

Nonorganic failure to thrive (NOFTT), i.e., FTT not due to organic disease, is the most common category of FTT in the United States and is associated with delayed growth and development and abnormal behaviors. Factors extrinsic to the infant are primarily responsible for NOFTT.

You are called a covered entity if you are a healthcare provider, health plan, or healthcare clearinghouse who transmits health information in electronic form.
A) True
B) False

Answers

Answer:

(A) True.

Explanation:

A covered entities are medical care providers, health plans, healthcare clearinghouses who provide who provide health information electronically

Answer:

True

Explanation:

A covered entity can be a health plan, a health care clearinghouse, or a health care provider that transmits any health information in electronic form in connection with a transaction covered by HIPAA.

Jackie's ankles are very swollen at night after work. When she went to the doctor about the problem, the doctor requested a urine specimen. Why?
a. Edema could be a sign of kidney failure. A urine sample might contain protein or urea.b. Jackie is probably drinking too much water and the doctor can see this because the urine will be very dilute.c. Jackie probably stands all day long and this prevents the urinary system from working correctly.d. Edema is a sign of kidney stones and the doctor is looking for small stones in the urine.e. Edema could be a sign of an inactive bladder. The doctor wants to see if Jackie is capable of urinating.

Answers

Answer:

a. Edema could be a sign of kidney failure. A urine sample might contain protein or urea.

Explanation:

  Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) is characterized by the progressive loss of the ability of the kidneys to filter blood, so that the patient may experience symptoms such as swelling in the feet and ankles, weakness and the appearance of foam in the urine, for example.  

  Therefore, it is important for these people to have regular urine and blood tests with creatinine levels to check if the kidneys are working properly and if there is a risk of developing.

Final answer:

The doctor likely asked for a urine specimen from Jackie due to the suspicion of a kidney problem. Swelling or edema in the ankles can be a sign of kidney disease, and a urine test would detect the presence of protein or urea, indicating poor kidney function.

Explanation:

The most likely reason for the doctor's request for a urine specimen is due to the suspicion of kidney problems which could be indicated by swelling or edema in the ankles. Kidneys play an essential role in removing waste products and extra fluid from the body. If the kidneys are not functioning correctly, these can accumulate in the body, leading to symptoms like swelling in the legs and ankles.

To detect a possible kidney failure, doctors could look for the presence of protein or urea in the urine. Normally, your kidneys filter out these byproducts, but if they are not working efficiently, proteins and urea might leak into the urine, which could indicate kidney disease.

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Osteogenesis imperfecta is a disorder involving the osteoblasts, creating weak bone matrix.

A. True
B. False

Answers

Answer: True

Explanation:

The disease called as the Osteogenesis imperfecta is the genetic disorder which causes imperfect formation of bones. This occurs due to abnormalities in the molecule of collagen which makes the matrix weak and  this causes multiple fractures of the bone even before birth in severe cases.  In milder cases the bones break with mild trauma.

Answer:true

Explanation:

And I’m telling U because I also have osteogenesis imperfecta I hope this helps?

PLEASE HELP ASAP ALSO GIVE BRAINLIEST AND THANKS AND 5 STARS ALSO THIS IS A FILL IN THE BLANK QUESTION Use the drop-down tool to select the word or phrase that completes each sentence.
1.If you develop a report on a hospital’s total patient count, you are a .
2.If you organize the files in a patient’s chart, you might be working as a .
3.If you are managing other informatics staff, you are probably a .

The blanks can be filled in by
1.Medical Trancriptionist
Health Information Administrator
CIS Specialist
2. Medical Coder
Medical Transcrpitionist
Medical Records Clerk
3.Medical Records Clerk
Cancer Registrar
Health Information Administrator

Answers

Answer:

1. Medical Transcriptionist

A medical transcriptionist is responsible for developing reports of patients in written format from what physicians and other health care professionals speak about patient medical history, operative reports and other documents.

2. Medical Records Clerk

A medical records clerk organizes the files in a patient’s chart. Here she/he might be working as a medical records clerk because of being responsible for managing patient health records.

3. Health Information Administrator:

A health information administrator is responsible for managing other informatic staff. The job fits the scope of a health information administrator because of managing others work that is a higher level of responsibility.

When the number of calories a person consumes is equal to the number of calories he or she burns in a day, that person's body is in?

Answers

Answer:

energy balance.

Explanation:

The concept of energy balance is based on the fundamental thermodynamic principle that energy cannot be destroyed, and can only be gained, lost, or stored by an organism. Energy balance is defined as the state achieved when the energy intake equals energy expenditure.

*Source for explanation: touch endocrinology*

A man who smokes one pack of cigarettes daily has been diagnosed with chronic bronchitis. He has been prescribed theophylline by his family provider. What effect will the client's smoking status have on the therapeutic use of theophylline?

Answers

Answer:

Theophylline concentration may be decreased by smoking .

Explanation:

     Theophylline is a methylxanthine derivative of tea with diuretic, smooth muscle relaxant, bronchial dilation, cardiac and central nervous system stimulating activities.  It is an anti-asthmatic drug. This medicine is indicated for individuals suffering from asthma attacks and other respiratory diseases. The action of theophylline consists in relaxing the muscles of the bronchi and pulmonary blood vessels, thus facilitating the entry of air into the lungs.  Theophylline acts as a phosphodiesterase inhibitor, adenosine receptor blocker and activator histone deacetylase.

   Bronchitis is an inflammation of the bronchi, channels that carry inhaled air to the pulmonary alveoli. It sets in when the tiny lashes lining the inside of the bronchi stop eliminating mucus in the airways. This accumulation of secretion causes them to become permanently inflamed and contracted, mainly causing cough.

  Chronic bronchitis increases the risk of other respiratory infections, particularly pneumonia. The disease may set in as an extension of acute bronchitis, but the main cause of the disease is cigarette smoke.

   The most important measure in treating chronic bronchitis is to quit smoking. Smokers need a relatively higher dose of theophylline (active substance) than nonsmoking adults due to increased clearance. In other words, the theophylline concentration may be decreased by smoking .

 

 

Which nursing diagnosis would provide the clearest indication for the administration of inhaled acetylcysteine?

Answers

Answer:

Bronchitis

Explanation:

This is the inflammation of the bronchus causing it to be irritated and inflamed.. Acetylcysteine helps to clear the mucus produced

What determines the ""strength"" of your immune system?

Answers

Answer:

Its strength determines our ability to resist such onslaughts and it protects us from the growth of abnormal cells.

Explanation:

Abnormal cells are sometimes called pre-cancerous cells. They are generally caused by types of human papillomavirus (HPV). HPV is a very common virus.

Netrituon, exersize, sleep and genes

Food that makes people sick will often:________ A) Smell slightly woody B) Taste the same as normal C) Look bumpy with odd color D) Taste sharp or bitter

Answers

Answer:

A. Smell slightly woody

Explanation:

Food that smell slightly woody is bad and often makes people sick

Answer:

A) Smell slightly woody

When baroreceptors sense a drop in blood pressure, the vasomotor center responds by __________.

Answers

Answer:

Sympathetic stimulation of the heart and vascular system.

Explanation:

Baroreceptors are the type of the mechanoreceptors that are mainly located in the aortic arch and the carotid sinus. They are mainly activated by the change in the blood pressure.

The centers of the brainstem integrate the feedback mechanism in the form of the baroreceptors. This regulate the cardiac functioning of the body and the maintenance of the blood pressure. The vasomotor control center responds to the sympathetic stimulation of the vascular system and the heart.  

Thus, the answer is sympathetic stimulation of the heart and vascular system.

Answer:

the vasomotor center responds by triggering peripheral vasoconstriction.

Explanation:

Peripheral vasoconstriction occurs to allow the body to retain core heat for longer as protection against hypothermia by allowing the skin to act as an insulating layer between core organs and the water.

The _________ was created in order to alert insurer home office underwriters of errors, omissions, or misrepresentations made on insurance applications.
a. Attending Physician's Statementb. MIBc. The agent's reportd. Consumer Investigative Report

Answers

The answer to your question would be b. MIB

Answer:

MIB

Explanation:

The MIB is supported by insurance companies and it collects medical information about an applicant's health as reported by insurance companies after underwriting.

Suppose that consumers choose to smoke less and chew gum more. Tobacco companies cut back on the number of people they employ while chewing gum manufacturers employ more. This is an example of a. structural unemployment created by efficiency wages. b. structural unemployment created by sectoral shifts. c. frictional unemployment created by efficiency wages. d. frictional unemployment created by sectoral shifts.

Answers

Answer:  d. frictional unemployment created by sectoral shifts.

Explanation:

Frictional unemployment is unemployment that results because it takes time for workers to search for the job that best suits their tastes and skills .

Structural unemployment is unemployment arising from a persistent mismatch between the skills and attributes of workers and the requirements of jobs. It usually results from industrial reorganization, typically due to technological change, rather than fluctuations in supply or demand.

Sectoral shifts refers to changes in the composition of demand among industries or regions .

The efficiency wage theory assumes that increasing wages can lead to increased labour productivity.

Using the above definitions to analyse the situation, it can be seen that there is a sectoral shift due changes in demand of tobacco and gums. This sectoral shift results in frictional unemployment as there are fewer jobs for workers in the tobacco industry to find jobs that will suit their skills.

ultrasound sonography uses high frequency waves directed towards the pregnant woman abdomaen that produce a visual rep of the fetus

Answers

Answer:

Ultrasound

Explanation:

This question is incomplete. The question is supposed to read:

Ultrasound sonography uses high frequency *blank*  waves directed towards... Fill in the blank.

The answer is: ultrasound

Ultrasound waves are waves of sound that are unable to be detected by human ears. They are often produced by machines to be directed at the abdomen of a pregnant woman. The sound is then received by the machine and interpreted to create an image of the fetus. This is commonly used by doctors to make sure there are no anomalies present in the baby.

Which of the following questions is of LEAST pertinence when determining whether a mother will deliver her baby within the next few minutes? Select one:A. "Do you feel the need to push?"B. "When are you due?"C. "Is this your first baby?"D. "Have you had a sonogram?"

Answers

Answer:

Your answer will be C

Explanation:

A surgical client will be administered sedative followed by a neuromuscular junction (NMJ) blocker. What nursing action best preserves the client’s safety?

Answers

Answer:

Ensure that emergency equipment is readily available.

Explanation:

This will enable surgical operation to go on very quickly unhindered.

The most critical nursing action is to ensure thorough communication and confirmation among the healthcare team via 'Sign in' and 'Time out' steps. These steps are crucial for patient safety during sedation and NMJ blocker administration. Follow-up support for high-risk patients further enhances safety.

Nursing Action to Preserve Client's Safety During Sedation and NMJ Blocker Administration

When administering a sedative followed by a neuromuscular junction (NMJ) blocker to a surgical client, the most critical nursing action to preserve the client's safety is to ensure thorough communication and confirmation among the healthcare team. This includes a 'Sign in' step before induction of anesthesia, where members of the team (at least the nurse and an anesthesia professional) orally confirm key concerns for the patient's recovery and care. Additionally, there should be a 'Time out' before the skin incision, where the entire team, including nurses, surgeons, and anesthesia professionals, orally reviews the key concerns for the patient's care.

Enhanced support for clients at high risk of medication-related harm can include post-discharge follow-up by a nurse to monitor their progress and address any complications. This multi-faceted approach ensures the patient's safety and addresses any potential issues promptly.

Finally, using these standardized procedures helps to block pain and other sensations effectively and allows patients to undergo medical procedures safely by inducing unconsciousness when necessary.

After learning that many of their customers were shopping at a nearby health-food store for free-range chickens and organic produce, IGA grocery stores began stocking more organic items. IGA adjusted its market strategy based on _____

Answers

Answer:

Environmental scanning.

Explanation:

Environment scanning may be defined as a type of the data collection practice. The main aim of this scanning is the collection of the information about the environment in the office.

The data that are scanned in the environment scanning needs to be processed and analyzed that are used to create the brief in the decision making process. The environment scanning can be used in case of the different market strategy as well.

Thus, the answer is environmental scanning.

The time it takes for food to travel through the gastrointestinal tract varies between _____hours.

Answers

Answer:

Between 6 to 8 hours

Explanation:

The gastriointestinal tract refers to the entire digestive system, starting at the mouth, and ending at the anus. After food enters through the mouth, it travels through the esophagus, into the stomach. After that, it moves into the duodenum, then the jejunum, and finally the ilium (collectively referred to as the small intestine). Finally it moves into the cecum, then to the colon, and finally the rectum (collectively referred to as the large intestine), where it exits out the body through the anus.

The length of this process varies due to stress, metabolism, and even sleep.

Vitamin B12 is essential for the proper functioning of which type of cells? epithelial (skin) nerve gastric (stomach) hepatic (liver)

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is nerve cells.

Explanation:

Cobalamine which is also known as vitamin B-12 which is very important for the human body. It helps in the synthesis of RBCs and plays an important role in protecting the nerve cells.  

Vitamin B- 12 helps in myelin sheath synthesis and maintenance. This myelin sheath makes the outer covering of neurons and plays an important role in the protection of neurons and relaying of signals at high speed.

Deficiency of vitamin B-12 causes damage to myelin sheath which results in different neurological problems. Therefore the correct answer is nerve cells.

Final answer:

Vitamin B12 is crucial for nerve cells and red blood cells, and it is absorbed with the help of intrinsic factor produced by gastric parietal cells in the stomach.

Explanation:

Vitamin B12 is essential for the normal functioning of nerve cells and the production of mature red blood cells. The gastric parietal cells in the stomach are crucial because they produce intrinsic factor, a glycoprotein necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine.

Without intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed, leading to deficiencies that affect neurological functioning and red blood cell formation.

A mother brings her baby to the health department. The baby has vesicles that rupture and develop yellow crust. These symptoms MOST LIKELY indicate __ .a) eczemab) psoriasisc) wartsd) impetigo

Answers

Answer:

Impetigo

Explanation:

Impetigo -  it is a type of skin disease caused by bacteria known as staphylococcus aureus. These bacteria infect the outer part of the skin called the epidermis. This mostly affects children of age 2 to 5.

The symptoms of impetigo include red sores then continuous ooze and then finally to yellow crust on the outer layer. Red sores are first developed on the nose and then spread slowly to the other part of the body.

A client is admitted to the birthing unit in active labor. Cervical dilation has progressed from 2 to 3 cm over the previous 8 hours. The primary healthcare provider determines that the client has hypotonic dystocia, and an infusion of oxytocin is prescribed to augment her contractions. What is the most important nursing action at this time?

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - cutting off or the turning off the oxytocin infusion.

Explanation:

Hypotonic Dystocia is the one the the stages of labor is characterized by arrested descent or longer duration, it may be cause by various reasons such as inadequate contractions, manual rotation, fetal malposition and other causes. The nursing staff should immediately turn off the oxytocin infusion as it can augment the client's contractions.

Thus, the correct answer is - cutting off or the turning off the oxytocin infusion.

A widened, stretched-out portion of a blood vessel that forms a bulge is called a(n) ______________.

Answers

Answer:

Aneurysm.

Explanation:

Aneurysm may be defined as the medical condition in which there is an abnormal ballooning in the blood vessels wall. This can rupture and might cause the bleeding and death as well.

This aneurysm does have any known symptoms only the blood vessels gets widen and bulge. This is experienced by the pain and aorta section pass through the abdomen or may also pass through the chest.

Thus, the correct answer is aneurysm.

For which of the following is building and repairing body tissues and structures a primary function? A. Lipid. B. Carbohydrate. C. Vitamin. D. Protein.

Answers

Answer:

D. Protein

Explanation:

Protein is an important component of every cell in the body. ... Your body uses protein to build and repair tissues. You also use protein to make enzymes, hormones, and other body chemicals. Protein is an important building block of bones, muscles, cartilage, skin, and blood.

During an overhead squat assessment a client's knees move inward. Which of the following exercises is the most appropriate to strenghten and activate the client's underactive musculature?
a. Tube walking: side-to-side
b. Ice skaters
c. Proprioceptive plyometrics
d. Leg swings: side-to-side

Answers

Answer:

A) Tube walking: side-to-side

Explanation:

Tube walking is defined as a core-strengthening exercise that works as a corrective strategy to make sure that an overhead squat is performed correctly. If any exercise is done incorrectly, it can lead to serious injury and can even be fatal.

Incorrect stance of a squat can lead to leg and knee problems in old age, and it important that it is done correctly.

Answer: the correct option is A (Tube walking: side-to-side)

Explanation: the exercises that is the most appropriate to strenghten and activate

the client's underactive musculature is Tube walking: side-to-side. This increases stability of the underactive knee joint.

PLEASE HELP ASAP ALSO GIVE BRAINLIEST AND THANKS AND 5 STARS ALSO THIS IS A FILL IN THE BLANK QUESTION Use the drop-down tool to select the word or phrase that completes each sentence.
1.If you develop a report on a hospital’s total patient count, you are a .
2.If you organize the files in a patient’s chart, you might be working as a .
3.If you are managing other informatics staff, you are probably a .

The blanks can be filled in by
1.Medical Trancriptionist
Health Information Administrator
CIS Specialist
2. Medical Coder
Medical Transcrpitionist
Medical Records Clerk
3.Medical Records Clerk
Cancer Registrar
Health Information Administrator

Answers

Explanation:

1. If you develop a report on a hospital’s total patient count, you are a CIS Specialist. ( Certified Incentive Specialist )

2. If you organize the files in a patient’s chart, you might be working as a Medical Records Clerk. ( Or Health Information Clerk )

3. If you are managing other informatics staff, you are probably a Health Information Administrator. ( or RHIA )

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