I would appreciate it if you would help me

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Option 1

Step-by-step explanation:

1/6 × 5/3

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex] \frac{1}{6} \div \frac{3}{5} [/tex]

[tex] \frac{1}{6} \times \frac{5}{3} [/tex]

a= 6,b=5,c=3 option A

Answer:

$1,367

Step-by-step explanation:

The compound amount formula applying to continuous compounding is

A = Pe^(r*t), where P is the principal, r is the interest rate as a decimal fraction, and t is the time in years.

Here we have A = $920e^(0.036*11), or $1,367

                            =

Answer:

The correct answer would be 1367.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

see explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

The n th term of a geometric sequence is

[tex]a_{n}[/tex] = a[tex](r)^{n-1}[/tex]

where a is the first term and r the common ratio

Here a = 15, thus

[tex]a_{5}[/tex] = 15[tex](r)^{4}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{243}{125}[/tex] ( divide both sides by 15 )

[tex]r^{4}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{243}{1875}[/tex], thus

r = [tex]\sqrt[4]{\frac{243}{1875} }[/tex] = [tex]\frac{3}{5}[/tex]

Multiply the previous term by [tex]\frac{3}{5}[/tex] to obtain the next term

15 × [tex]\frac{3}{5}[/tex] = 9

9 × [tex]\frac{3}{5}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{27}{5}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{27}{5}[/tex] × [tex]\frac{3}{5}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{81}{25}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{81}{25}[/tex] × [tex]\frac{3}{5}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{243}{125}[/tex]

Thus the sequence is

15, 9, [tex]\frac{27}{5}[/tex], [tex]\frac{81}{25}[/tex], [tex]\frac{243}{125}[/tex]

Hi

72 Hours before 2:12 am, Monday is 2:12 am, Friday, because 72 hours before is 3 days in the past.

Answer:

X=7 and y=45

Step-by-step explanation:

5(7)+10=45

35+10=45

I have attached a graph

Answer:

y = 5

Step-by-step explanation:

Subtract 2y from either side. It'll cancel out both of them. Then the equation is 8y = 40.

Divide both sides by 8 and you get y=5

Pretty sure that's right. I have a dad who has a math degree so I think it would be right because he helps me every time.

Step-by-step explanation:

As shown first you combine like terms then you subtract 2y from both sides to get 40 by it self then you divide 8 by 40 to get y by itself hope this helps this answer is 100% correct and i was glad to help please give brainliest!

[tex]8y+2y=2y+40\\10y=2y+40\\ -2y -2y\\8y=40\\y=5[/tex]

Answer:

Option A, (-7, -3)

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is:  Option A, (-7, -3)

Answer:

24 :)

Step-by-step explanation:

2 / 3  x  36 = ?

First of all, note that 36 is the same as 36/1 since 36 divided by 1 is 36. Therefore, start by setting up the problem like this:

36 / 1  x  2 / 3

Multiply the numerators together (36 x 2 = 72) and multiply the denominators together (1 x 3 = 3) and make it into one fraction like so:

72 / 3

The greatest common factor of 72 and 3 is 3. Minimize the fraction by dividing the numerator and the denominator by its greatest common factor to get:

24 / 1

Convert the improper fraction above to a whole number to get the answer:

24

Hope this helps :)

Answer:

40000

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex](2 \times {10}^{2} )^{2} \\ = {2}^{2} \times {10}^{2 \times 2} \\ = 4 \times {10}^{4} \\ = 40000[/tex]

Answer:

0.12

Step-by-step explanation:

3/5=0.6

0.6/5=0.12

Answer:

20.62

Step-by-step explanation:

In this instance, we are going to use the pythagorean theorem.

The height of the gutter will be a leg of the triangle, and the ladder will be the hypotenuse. The formula is

[tex]a^{2} + {b}^{2} = {c}^{2} [/tex]

While A and B are legs and C is the hypotenuse. We are trying to find B, the distance from the house.

So plug A and C in:

[tex] {40}^{2} + {b}^{2} = {45}^{2} [/tex]

Now figure it out: first you square 40 and 45:

[tex]1600 + {b}^{2} = 2025[/tex]

Isolate the B term: subtract 1600 from both sides

[tex] {b}^{2} = 425[/tex]

Now take the square root of both sides to find B

[tex]b = 20.62[/tex]

And that's your answer

Answer:

  20.6 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

The Pythagorean theorem can tell you the distance from the house the base of the ladder may be for it to reach 40 feet up. If that distance is represented by x, then it tells you ...

  45^2 = x^2 + 40^2

  x = √(2025 -1600) = √425

  x ≈ 20.6

The ladder will reach to 40 feet high when the base is 20.6 feet from the house.

_____

Comment on ladder distance

The ladder safety association recommends an angle with the ground of about 75°. That corresponds to a distance from the house of about 10 feet. If the ladder is 20 feet away, it will barely reach the gutter, so placing it at that distance would probably not be safe.

An appropriate answer to this question is "10 feet", not based on math, but based on safety. At that distance the end of the ladder will extend about 3.7 feet beyond the gutter.

Answer: It is 4/5 x 45

Step-by-step explanation: Hope i helped please mark brainliest!

I know there is suppose to be no multiplying but if you mulitply in your head 4/5 x 45 is 36 and 2/3 x 45 is 30

therefore, 4/5 x 45 is greater!

also, if not multiplying 0.8(5/4) is greater than 0.667(2/3). Therefore, 4/5 is greater than 2/3.

Without multiplying, 4/5 x 45 is greater than 2/3 x 45 because the fraction 4/5 is greater than 2/3 when both are compared using a common denominator.

To answer which is greater without multiplying, we can look at the fraction multiples of 45 in the problems 4/5 x 45 and 2/3 x 45. Since both expressions involve the same whole number (45), we can compare the fractions 4/5 and 2/3 to determine which product is greater. By converting the fractions to have a common denominator, we can see that 4/5 is equivalent to 24/30, and 2/3 is equivalent to 20/30. Therefore, 4/5 is greater than 2/3, meaning that 4/5 x 45 is greater than 2/3 x 45.

Answer:

x = -8

Y = -11

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

Y = 3x + 13

Y = x - 3

Substitute x - 3 for Y in the first equation

We have

Y = 3x + 13

x - 3 = 3x + 13

Add 3 to both sides

x - 3 + 3 = 3x + 13 + 3

x = 3x + 16

Subtract 3x from both sides

x - 3x = 3x - 3x + 16

-2x = 16

Divide both sides by -2

x = 16/-2

x = -8

Now substitute -8 for x in any of the above equations to get Y.

Using the second equation, we have

Y = x - 3

Y = -8 - 3

Y = -11

Answer:

5 1/3= (3*5+1)/3=16/3

3 3/4=(4*3+3)/4=15/4

16/3: 15/4=16/3*4/15=64/45=1.422

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1.422

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

There are 16 oddly powerful integers less than 2010

Step-by-step explanation:

∵ b is an odd integer

∵ b > 1

∴ The first value of b is 3

∵ a is an integer

- We can use a = 1, 2, 3, ..........

∵ [tex]a^{b}=n[/tex]

∵ n < 2010

- Let a = 1, 2, ............... 12 because 12³ is greatest integer  < 2010

∵ 1³ = 1, 2³ = 8, 3³ = 27, 4³ = 64, 5³ = 125, 6³ = 216, 7³ = 343,

   8³ = 512, 9³ = 729, 10³ = 1000, 11³ = 1331, 12³ = 1728

∴ There are 12 oddly powerful integers with b = 3

Now the second value of b is 5

[tex]1^{5}=1[/tex] but we took 1 before so we will start with 2

∵ [tex]2^{5}=32[/tex], [tex]3^{5}=243[/tex], [tex]4^{5}=1024[/tex]

- [tex]4^{5}[/tex] is the greatest integer < 2010

∴ There are 3 oddly powerful integers with b = 5

Now the third value of b is 7

∵ [tex]2^{7}=128[/tex]

- [tex]2^{7}[/tex] is the greatest integer < 2010

∴ There is 1 oddly powerful integers with b = 7

Now the fourth value of b is 9

∵ [tex]2^{9}=512[/tex]

- [tex]2^{9}[/tex] is the greatest integer < 2010

- But we used 512 before

∴ There is no oddly powerful integers with b = 9

- 9 is the greatest value of b which makes [tex]a^{b}<2010[/tex]

∵ 12 + 3 + 1 = 16

∴ There are 16 oddly powerful integers less than 2010

Solution:

Given expression is:

[tex]4s + \frac{1}{6}s + 2\frac{3}{5}s[/tex]

We have to simplify by combining the like terms

From given,

[tex]4s + \frac{1}{6}s + 2\frac{3}{5}s[/tex]

Convert the mixed fraction to improper fraction

[tex]4s + \frac{1}{6}s + \frac{13}{5}s[/tex]

Make the denominator same

[tex]\frac{4s \times 30 }{30} + \frac{1s \times 5}{6 \times 5} + \frac{13s \times 6}{5 \times 6}\\\\\frac{120s}{30} + \frac{5s}{30} + \frac{78s}{30}\\\\\frac{203}{30} = 6.7667[/tex]

Thus the solution is 6.7667

Answer:

A, B and C are the correct answers.

Step-by-step explanation:

Correct:

A - There are 4 even numbers all together. 2 is repeated twice, there is a 4 and a 6. 4 divided by 6 is 0.666 repeated. Multiply by 100 which gives you 66.666 repeated and then round up, so now we have 66.67%. This is the probability.

B - It’s impossible that the pointer will land on 1 because there in no 1.

C - It’s less likely because there are only two odd numbers, 3 and 5. Compare that to the 4 even numbers. 4 > 2. Therefore the odd numbers, or the two, is less likely than the even numbers, the 4.

Incorrect:

D - There is only one 6 out of 6 numbers total. So 1 out of 6. We cannot be certain, it fact, it would be said that it’s very unlikely for the pointer to land on the 6.

E - The spinner is most certainly not fair. The spinner has one of each number except for the 2. There are double twos. On a normal spinner you would see a number 1 replace on of the 2. This ways the spinner will be 1 through 6.

If it makes any of you more confident in this answer, my assessment also had this question and I got it correct by answering with A, B and C.

Final answer:

The probability of the pointer landing on an even-numbered section is 33.33%. The pointer can't land on 1. The spinner is not fair.

Explanation:

To find the probabilities in this scenario, we need to analyze the spinner. The spinner has 6 equal sections, numbered 2, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6. There are:

Based on this analysis, we can determine the following statements:

Answer:

There is only one triangle with the degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

All angles must add up to 180 degrees

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

surface area of two sides=2[(8×8)+π×8²/4]

=2[64+16π]

=128+32π

surface area of curved surface=2πrh/4

surface along length=base (16×16)+2×(16×8)+2×π×8/4 ×16

=256+256+64π

=512+64π

Total surface area=128+32π+512+64π

=640+96π

≈640+302

≈942 in²

Answer: -121

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

5 pinecones on the deluxe wreath and 4 pinecones on the regular wreath

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Regular: 4

Deluxe: 5

Step-by-step explanation:

15x + 15y = 135

15x + 20y = 160

5y = 25

y = 5

15x = 135 - 15(5)

15x = 60

x = 4

Answer:

1440 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

The sum of the interior angles of a polygon can be found by

(n-2)*180

where n is the number of sides

a decagon has 10 sides, so n=10

(10-2) *180

8*180

1440

The sum of all the interior angles of a decagon is calculated as (n-2) × 180°. For a decagon, where n is 10, the sum is 1440°.

The correct option is (C).

The sum of all the interior angles of a decagon can be found using the formula for calculating the sum of interior angles of any polygon, which is (n-2) × 180°, where n is the number of sides of the polygon. In the case of a decagon, n is 10. Therefore, the sum of all the interior angles of a decagon is (10-2) × 180° = 8 × 180° = 1440°. Thus, the correct answer is C.1440°.

complete question given below:

The sum of all the interior angles of a decagon is

A.1000∘

B.960∘

C.1440∘

D.1200∘

The area of the largest circular fire pit is 452 square inches.

Explanation:

Given that at a campground, a rectangular fire pit is 3 feet by 2 feet

The radius is given by 1 feet.

Area:

The area of the largest circular fire is given by

[tex]A=\pi r^2[/tex]

Substituting the values in the formula, we get,

[tex]A=(3.14)1^2[/tex]

[tex]A=3.14 \ ft^2[/tex]

Thus, the area of the largest circular fire is 3.14 square feet.

To convert feet to inches:

The feet can be converted into inches by multiplying by 12.

Thus, we have,

[tex]1 \ft= 12 \ inches[/tex]

Hence, we have,

[tex]Area= 3.14\times 12^2[/tex]

Simplifying,we get,

[tex]Area= 3.14\times144[/tex]

[tex]Area=452.16 \ in^2[/tex]

Rounding off to the nearest square inch.

Thus, we have,

[tex]Area= 452 \ in^2[/tex]

Thus, the area of the largest circular fire pit is 452 square inches.

BB's parents should choose Grandpa's option, where Baby Bertha (BB) receives $1000 at birth plus an additional 4% of the accumulated amount each year.

In Grandpa's option, the annual contribution grows dynamically with the accumulated amount, creating compounding growth. Let's denote the accumulated amount at the end of year \(n\) as A_n. The contribution at year \(n\) can be expressed as \(0.04 \times A_n\). BB's total amount at the end of year \(n\) can be written as:

\[A_n = 1000 \times (1 + 0.04)^{n}.\]

This formula considers the initial $1000 and the 4% annual growth on the accumulated amount. With compounding, this option ensures that BB's fund grows significantly over time.

Grandma's option, on the other hand, provides a fixed annual amount of $50, which does not consider the potential growth through interest or investment. Over time, the fixed contribution might not keep up with inflation, and the fund may not accumulate as much as Grandpa's option.

In summary, Grandpa's option is financially advantageous due to compounding growth, allowing BB's fund to grow more substantially over the years. This strategy aligns with long-term financial planning, providing a better financial foundation for Baby Bertha's future.

[tex]f(x)=13|x-5|-6[/tex] is the equation represented by all the operations.

Step-by-step explanation:

The given function is

[tex]f(x)=|x|[/tex]

It is vertically compressed by a factor of 13 then the function becomes,

[tex]f(x)=13|x|[/tex]

It shifted down 6 units, then the function becomes,

[tex]\mathbf{f}(\mathbf{x})=\mathbf{1 3}|\boldsymbol{x}|-\boldsymbol{6}[/tex]

It shifted right by 5 units then the function becomes,

[tex]f(x)=13|x-5|-6[/tex]

Thus the resultant equation thus obtained is  [tex]f(x)=13|x-5|-6[/tex]

When a programmer works for 10 hours and earns $70, the rate of dollars per hour earned by the programmer is $7.

A computer programmer worked for 10 hours and earned $70.

To calculate the rate per hour, we divide the total earnings by the number of hours worked. In this case,

$70 ÷ 10 hours = $7 per hour.

Therefore, the programmer earned $7 per hour.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

4(x+2) = 16

4x + 8 = 16

4x =16-8

4x = 8

x = 8/4

x = 2

The solution to the equation 4(x + 2) = 16 is x = 2.

The Distributive Property states that a(b + c) = ab + ac. Apply this to the equation:

4(x + 2) = 4 * x + 4 * 2.

Thus, the equation becomes:

4x + 8 = 16.

To solve for x, first subtract 8 from both sides of the equation:

4x + 8 - 8 = 16 - 8

4x = 8.

Divide both sides of the equation by 4:

4x / 4 = 8 / 4

x = 2.

Two mixed numbers as [tex]\frac{5}{6}[/tex] and [tex]\frac{5}{12}[/tex] the least common denominator (LCD) is 12.

Step-by-step explanation:

The least common denominator (LCD) is the smallest number that can be a common denominator for a set of fractions. Also known as the lowest common denominator, it is the lowest number you can use in the denominator to create a set of equivalent fractions that all have the same denominator.

Steps to find the LCD of fractions, integers and mixed numbers:

Let's us have two mixed numbers as [tex]\frac{5}{6}[/tex] and [tex]\frac{5}{12}[/tex].

Equivalent Fractions with the LCD

[tex]\frac{5}{6}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{10}{12}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{5}{12}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{5}{12}[/tex]

For the denominators (6, 12) the least common multiple (LCM) is 12. Therefore, the least common denominator (LCD) is 12.

Final answer:

The mixed numbers 1 1/4 and 2 1/3 can be converted to have the lowest common denominator of 12, resulting in 1 3/12 and 2 4/12 respectively.

Explanation:

To write two different mixed numbers where the lowest common denominator (LCD) is 12, we can choose denominators that are factors of 12 and numerators that result in proper fractions (where the numerators are less than the denominators). An example would be 1 1/4 and 2 1/3. Here's how these mixed numbers have 12 as their common denominator:

Now we have two mixed numbers with the LCD of 12.