Answer:
Explanation:
The electronic transaction and coding standards are important because health care claims are the most basic and common type of electronic medical transactions. The biller uses the claim to request for reimbursement on the behalf of providers. Claims generally includes information about the patient, the person standing as the provider, the patient’s health insurance plan, incorporating with codes for the procedure and diagnosis.
The same way medical coders have to use the appropriate set of codes to describe a procedure, the biller also have to use the right type of EDI to perform the billing operation.
J and K want to have a baby, but they are a little concerned because they both have the sickle cell trait. They want to know what the possibility is that their child may actually have the disease.
1. Develop a Punnett square depicting the possibility that their offspring will have the trait and/or the disease.
2.How would the nurse interpret this Punnett square?
Answer:
1. Attached
2. The have a 25% possibility of the disease and a 50% possibility of having the trait.
Explanation:
1. If J and K both carry the sickle cell trait, that means they are heterozygous for the sickle cell allele (Ss) where the sickle cell allele is recessive to the normal allele. The punnet square showing the possible genotypes of their potential offspring is shown in the attachment
2. The nurse would see that the genotypes possible are SS, Ss, or ss. SS would be a normal phenotype, Ss would be sickle cell trait, like the parents, and ss would have sickle cell disease. The ratios are 1 SS: 2 Ss: 1 ss. This means there is a 25% chance the child will be totally normal, a 50% chance they will inherit sickle cell trait, and 25% chance the child will have sickle cell disease.
Identify an advantage of using strength machines. A. trength machines provide extra support for special-needs clients. B. Strength machines can challenge the core stabilization system. C. Strength machines can improve athletic performance. D. Strength machines allow individuals to move in multiple planes of motion.
Answer:
The answer is A. Strength machines provide extra support for special-needs clients.
Explanation:
When all types of clients are considered (with regard to using strength machines)—especially as they (machines) could be complicated to use—an advantage of using strength machines is that it provides support for special-needs clients, and other categories of clients, even novices. At the end of the day, the effectiveness of strength machines will depend much on how helpful they have been to clients, especially those with special aims or needs that might not be general or popular.
Final answer:
Option A.strength machines provide extra support for special-needs clients, is correct. Strength machines provide additional support and safety, aiding in proper technique leading to increased muscular strength, bone strength, and maintenance of muscle mass during weight loss.
Explanation:
An advantage of using strength machines is that they can provide extra support for individuals, possibly including those with special needs. This support can be beneficial as it ensures proper technique and alignment, which can lead to enhanced safety during workouts, minimizing the risk of injury.
Strength machines can also help in maintaining muscle mass during weight loss and in increasing bone strength and muscular fitness. While some machines may offer benefits like challenging the core stabilization system or helping improve athletic performance, others are designed for more isolated movements rather than multiple planes of motion, thus not always supporting functional or compound movements.
Strength machines focus on overloading muscles to promote muscle strengthening, which contributes to overall health. Whether through resistance machines, resistance bands, or even homemade weights, regular strength training can help manage health conditions, improve muscle strength, and increase bone strength. Individuals engaging in muscular strength and endurance training, like using strength machines, can experience these benefits.
In the later part of her first year of college, Lisa is doing well losing some of the weight she put on at the beginning of the school year. Her highest weight was 160 pounds and she now weighs 152 pounds. How many kilograms does Lisa now weigh
Answer: The mass of Lisa now is 69.1 kg
Explanation:
We are given:
Weight of Lisa now = 152 pounds
To convert the given mass into kilo grams, we use the conversion factors:
1 kg = 2.2 pound
So, [tex]152pound=152pound\times \frac{1kg}{2.2pound}=69.1kg[/tex]
Weight of Lisa now = 69.1 kg
Hence, the mass of Lisa now is 69.1 kg
Final answer:
Lisa's current weight is 152 pounds, and when converted to kilograms using the conversion factor, it is approximately 68.9 kilograms, rounded to the nearest tenth.
Explanation:
To convert Lisa's weight from pounds to kilograms, we can use the conversion factor that 1 pound is equivalent to 0.453592 kilograms. Since Lisa now weighs 152 pounds, we calculate her weight in kilograms by multiplying her weight in pounds by the conversion factor:
152 pounds × 0.453592 kilograms/pound = 68.94624 kilograms.
To ensure the result is user-friendly, let's round it to the nearest tenths place. Therefore, Lisa now weighs approximately: 68.9 kilograms.
It's important to round to the nearest tenth, which reflects common practice in recording body weight measurements and makes the answer practical for everyday use.
A high-school basketball player suffers a grade 2 ankle sprain during mid season of the competitive schedule. After a 3-week course of rehabilitation, most of the pain and swelling have been eliminated. The athlete is anxious to get back into practice and competitive games as soon as possible, and subsequent injuries to other players have put pressure on the coach to force the athlete's return. Unfortunately, the athlete is still unable to perform the functional tasks (cutting and jumping) essential in basketball.
a. Who is responsible for making the decision regarding when the athlete can fully return to practice and game situations?
Answer:
the coach?
Explanation:
Final answer:
An athletic trainer is responsible for deciding when an athlete can return to play after an injury.
Explanation:
The person responsible for deciding when the athlete can fully return to practice and game situations is the athletic trainer. Athletic trainers are healthcare professionals who specialize in preventing, diagnosing, and treating muscle and bone injuries. They work closely with athletes to ensure their safe return to sports after an injury.
The athletic trainer must assess the athlete's readiness to perform functional tasks like cutting and jumping, which are essential in basketball, to prevent re-injury and promote proper healing.
Ignoring the athlete's limitations and forcing a premature return to play can lead to further damage and prolong the recovery process.
Protein requirements per unit of body weight are _______ for infants and children than for adults.
Ann is a 19-yr old student who came into the doctor because her scalp hair began falling out and she started developing a fine layer of hair in several areas on her body. Upon meeting Ann, the doctor observes that she is very thin, and, after weighing Ann, the doctor notes that she weighs about 20% below the expected weight for her height and age. Later in the examination, Ann mentions that her right ankle has been causing her significant pain after she exercised for a few hours in the gym on Tuesday. She also mentions that she has not had a period in 4 months. When the doctor s Ann about her diet, Ann divulges that she eats a plate of broccoli everyday for breakfast, a crumpet with fat-free cream cheese for lunch, and carrots and a slice of whole-wheat bread with mustard for dinner.Based on this vignette, Ann most likely has:
The question is incomplete as it does not have the option which are:
Anorexia: restricting type
Anorexia: binge/purge type
Bulimia: non-purging type
Feeding Disorder in Adolescence
Answer:
Anorexia: restricting type
Explanation:
The person develops some eating disorders due to various factors in which the person develops unhealthy eating habits.
In the given question, the symptoms are shown by the Ann like brittle hair, low weight, loss of hair, no menstrual cycle which could be considered a symptom of infertility arose due to the anorexia.
Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder in which the person develops a feeling that he or she is overweight and to lose weight perform vigorous exercise, less eating and low calories intake. This is of two types: restricting type and binge type.
Since the symptoms shown by the Ann are of anorexia restricting type, therefore, the selected option is the correct answer.
Preventing epidemics and the spread of disease is the cornerstone of public health. Prevention is done with the combination of:_______
Answer:
Ongoing surveillance, warning system, clinical expertise, knowledge of history of disease and collaboration with the public
Explanation:
Preventing epidemics and the spread of disease is only properly done with the combination of following:
1. Ongoing surveillance - Doctors must always be at alert and report first signs of potential epidemic
2. Warning system - Warning system must be effective in order to alert as many people as fast as possible
3. Clinical expertise - Doctors must always be up to date with new and updated diseases in order to find the cure, and to recognize the symptoms
4. Knowledge of history of disease - Doctors must know the entire history of disease from the moment of its outbreak
5. Collaboration with the public - Collaboration is the main thing in order to avoid mass panic
If you felt an itching sensation on the bottom of your foot, which of the following represents the pathway taken by that sensation?
foot, spinal cord, thalamus, parietal lobe
Answer:
foot, spinal cord, thalamus, parietal lobe
Explanation:
Natriuretic peptide (BNP), is an example of a neurotransmitter, which are responsible for conveying different itching sensations from the skin or foot to the spinal cord and ultimately into the brain. When the brain receives the signals from the nerves, it interprets it and further relays the message which appears as the feeling of sensation we do experience.
An itching sensation on your foot travels a pathway beginning at sensory receptors in the foot, through peripheral nerves to the spinal cord, to the thalamus in the brain, and finally to the parietal lobe where the sensation is perceived.
Explanation:The sensory pathway for feelings like an itching sensation on your foot involves a sequence of neurological events. The sensation begins at the foot, by specialized cells called sensory receptors that are sensitive to stimuli such as heat, pressure or pain. These receptors convert the physical stimuli into electrical signals which are then sent through sensory neurons. These neurons transmit this signal up through peripheral nerves to the spinal cord, where it continues to travel to the brain. In the brain, the signal first reaches the thalamus, which acts like a relay station, sending the signal to the appropriate part of the brain for interpretation. In this case, the signal is sent to the parietal lobe. Here, it is actually perceived as an itch on the foot. This whole process happens remarkably quickly, allowing us to respond to sensory input in real time.
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A newborn has been diagnosed with cleft lip and cleft palate. The parents ask, How did this happen?
Answer: It was caused during the development of the child before it was born. As it was forming, the tissue did not fuse together. The cause of this could have been what the mother came in contact with, such as food, drinks, or what medications she was taking.
Answer: During the development of fetus, tissues of face and mouth didn't fuse properly so they remained open when the fetus was in the process of development.
Explanation: Many factors can cause this condition such as exposure of a mother to some environmental conditions, what mother eats during pregnancy like some medicines, alcohol. May be the parents contained the gene that can cause this condition. This condition is inherited sometime if there is the history of this condition in the family. Sometimes, obese and diabetic women also gives birth to a baby with the condition of cleft lip and cleft palate.
Low-incidence disabilities are generally more visible or easily observed than high-incidence disabilities.
True
False
Low incidence disabilities are generally more visible or easily observed than highly incidence disabilities. Thus, this statement is true.
What is low incidence disability and high incidence disability?Low incidence disabilities happen less often and greater uncommon in world population of students.
Typically there is only 1% of student have low-incidence disability.
High incidence disabilities are common in world population of student. There is 14% of student have high incidence disabilities.
Difference between high and low incidence disabilities.
Low incidence disabilities are generally occurs low example a student suffered from intellectual disabilities, multiple disorder like visual impairments, traumatic brain injury and other health issue .
High incidence disabilities are common among the students when a student suffered from emotional and behavior disorder , specific learning disabilities and other health issue. So we can day that low incidence disabilities are more visible than high incidence disabilities.
Therefore, low incidence disabilities are generally more visible or easily observed than highly incidence disabilities. Thus this statement is true.
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Discuss the key leaders and historical events that have influenced the advancement of nursing, nursing education, and nursing roles that are now part of the contemporary nursing profession
Answer:
At the beginning, being a nurse used to be considered a synonym of being a witch. Taking care of the sick was just an activity that men could carry out and in case women performed it was just because it was thought to be a religious vocation.
During the Crimean War, Florence Nightingale developed the pillars of what we still use nowadays in nursing. Later, when nursing migrated to the U.S some more people became founders of this practice, such as Lilian Ward, Mary Brewster and Lina Rogers. Ward and Brewster created a house to provide the poor with medical care in Manhattan. Obviously the way to provide this medical care has changed during all these years taking into account the materials that are used such as latex instead of leather and giving the chance to our new generations of nurses to attend specialized schools in order to receive a degree.
Neuraminidase is an antigen on the influenza virus. This antigen may have multiple antibody recognition sites or Select one: a. Epitopes b. All of the above c. PAMPS d. LPS molecules e. PRRs f. Receptors
Answer:
The correct answer is a. Epitopes
Explanation:
Epitopes are a small portion of antigen which is also known as antigenic determinant which is recognized by the host antibodies which helps in generating the immune response against the antigen.
Neuraminidase is the antigen on the influenza virus which has multiple antibody recognition sites called epitope on which antibodies bind through its paratope region which is the antigen-binding site is an antibody.
Then these antibody binds to some Fc receptors present on immune cells and helps in initiating an immune response against this antigen. So the right answer is epitope.
A physician is working with a family whose daughter has been recently diagnosed with the chromosomal disorder Turner syndrome.
Which statement about the characteristics of human chromosomes is accurate?
Answer:
Turner syndrome occurs when one of the X chromosome is missing in female cells causing karyotype XO.
(Options are not given in the question)
Explanation:
Normally all the human beings have 2 sex chromosomes in each cell. Males has X and Y chromosomes while females has 2 X chromosomes in each cell for normal functioning of cells. While in turner syndrome, one normal X chromosome is missing or structurally altered thus giving the karyotype XO due to chromosomal nondisjunction.
Margo Spencer was diagnosed with closed-angle glaucoma affecting her left eye. She is scheduled to have a/an ________, performed to treat this condition.
Answer:
Margo Spencer was diagnosed with closed-angle glaucoma affecting her left eye. She is scheduled to have a/an peipheral iridotomy , performed to treat this condition.
Explanation:
Peripheral iridotomy is a laser treatment which basically treats close angle glaucoma by creating drainage holes in the iris thus helps unblock the canals resulting in extra fluid drain.
It can also be treated by surgical iridotomy (less common)
There are also a number of treatments including medications but the laser treatment is most commonly used in close angle glaucoma.
An off-duty EMT is driving down the road when she sees a major vehicle accident. There are no Emergency Medical Responders on the scene yet. There are only Good Samaritans. The EMT is late for a doctor's appointment so she decides that she will not stop and help. The driver of the vehicle dies before help arrives. One of the Good Samaritans notices her EMT license plates and writes them down as she passes by. The Good Samaritan is angry that the EMT did not stop and help and tries to get the EMT fired for not helping. Which of the following statements is true?Select one:a. The EMT is negligent for not stopping and helping.b. The EMT is negligent because the patient died.c. The EMT is not negligent because she had a doctor's appointment.d. The EMT is not negligent because she did not have a duty to act.
Answer:D). The EMT is not negligent because she did not have a duty to act.
Explanation: This is because there is no 'duty to act' for off EMTs. In fact, EMTs are considered civilians when off duty and can only act when on duty under the authorization of their medical control physician.
If they do, it would be considered illegal and also expose them to great risks if anything went wrong.
I hope you found this helpful .
An off-duty EMT is not legally negligent for not stopping to assist at the scene of an accident as there is generally no duty to act, unless under specific legal obligations.
Explanation:The question revolves around whether an off-duty EMT is negligent for not stopping to assist at the scene of a major vehicle accident. According to the options provided, the correct answer is that the EMT is not negligent because she did not have a duty to act. In general, unless there is a specific legal duty to act, such as a contractual obligation, or if the EMT had created the emergency situation, an off-duty EMT does not have a legal requirement to provide aid. Additionally, the fact that the EMT had a doctor's appointment is not relevant to the negligence determination. It's important to note that while professional and ethical considerations may compel medical professionals to render aid when able, the decision not to stop does not necessarily constitute legal negligence.
A client is performing a standing cable row with her shoulders elevated. What cue should be used to correct her form?
Answer:
This is an exercise conducted to develop strength. It is practise by standing few inches from the machine, knees slightly bent,and repeatedly taking the weight of low pulley cable, by pulling a single handle with one arm up to the clavicle.
The single handle should be well dragged towards the body, lowering the scapualr ;so that the effect of the pull contacts the latissimus dorsi of the back,the gluteus maximum of the gluteal region, the trapezius, and the harmstrings(bicept femoris,semimembranisous) of the upper leg. It specifically reccomemded for developin the muscels of the back( latissimus dorsi).
it is a compound exercise where enough resistance should be applied so that scapular depression and retraction is avoided for maximum muscular contraction.Therefore in this question the subject should depress her scapular so that the pull could be above the scapular outwards for enough resistance to be applied for contractions of trapezius and rhomboids( the scapular retractors).
Explanation:
Answer:
The shoulder blades should be depressed in other for the scapula retractors to be activated.
Explanation:
How many women are diagnosed with an eating disorder in the United States?
a. 0.5-1%
b. 1-3%
c. 3-5%
d. 5-10%
Answer:
Based on numerous studies and surveys, the range of women who are diagnosed with eating disorders is 3-5%.
Explanation:
Eating disorders for which the above range applies to are the following.
1. Anorexia Nervosa.
0.9%
2. Bulimia Nervosa.
1.5%.
3. Binge Eating Disorder (BED).
2.8%.
4. Diabulimia.
5. Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder (ARFID).
3-5%
Answer:
c. 3-5%
Explanation:
Lifetime prevalence of binge eating disorder is 3.5% in women, and 2.0% in men (3).
What is prenatal brain development
Answer:
At birth, your baby's brain will have over 100 billion neurons. Considering that he started as a single cell nine months earlier, that is phenomenal growth. Fetal brain development begins in the second or third week of gestation -- weeks before many women know that they are pregnant -- and it continues into adulthood.
Explanation:
Hope this helps!
Answer:
Explanation:
From the first three months of pregnancy also called the first trimester, the brain structure begins to form. In the first month of pregnancy the embryo forms the neural tube, which is the earliest nervous system tissue that then develops into the full brain and spinal cord.
What is the primary problem seen in Healthy People 2020âs emphasis on choosing healthy lifestyle behaviors, such as daily exercise or healthy food choices?
Answer:
The primary problem is that public policy focuses on personal responsibility but decides to ignore the environmental and social changes needed for people's well-being. This way, it all seems to rely solely on the personal decisions of each individual, when the issues regarding the American healthcare system are still unaddressed.
The primary issue with Healthy People 2020's emphasis on healthy lifestyle behaviors is the difficulty in distinguishing whether health improvements are due to lifestyle changes or other factors. Also, it does not adequately account for the challenges posed by unhealthy market goods, sedentary habits, and the nuanced management of diet and exercise.
Explanation:The primary problem seen with Healthy People 2020's emphasis on choosing healthy lifestyle behaviors, such as daily exercise or healthy food choices, is that it's inherently difficult to distinguish whether an improvement in health outcomes is due to these lifestyle changes or from other factors, such as health care expenditures like regular check-ups.
For instance, longevity and health outcomes can be affected by a person's lifestyle habits, like their diet and exercise routines, risky behaviors, and consumption of harmful items like tobacco. Moreover, managing human nutrition involves a delicate balance between food intake, storage, and energy expenditure. An imbalance can lead to health problems like obesity, which in turn can elevate risks for diseases like type-2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease.
Unhealthy market goods like processed foods, sweetened drinks, and snacks are replacing homemade goods. Still, simply limiting access to such foods is not enough to address the obesity issue or encourage healthier living. Also, with more sedentary leisure activities like computer games and web surfing, it becomes more challenging to instill daily exercise and healthy eating as fundamental parts of one's living habits.
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The nurse prepares a client for a skin biopsy. which client statement will the nurse report to the health care provider
Answer:
biospy doesnt need to fast
1.ive been taking aspirin for my sore knees
5.ive changed my mind about the surgery
Morton has type 2 diabetes. His treatment, which includes diet, exercise, and 3 oral antidiabetic agents at maximum dose, is insufficient to achieve acceptable glycemic control. Your next course of action is to:_____________.
Answer:
The hormones plays an important role in the maintenance of the homeostasis of the body. The level of the blood glucose is maintained by insulin and glucagon released by the pancreas.
The improper release of the insulin hormone can cause diabetes Mellitus in the patient. These patients require insulin injections for the maintenance of sugar level. The Morton must given the high dosage of the insulin that works for the long time at the bedtime.
Deontologists would agree that the increasing medical concern over obesity in the United States justifies federal regulation of high fat, high sugar, low nutrition food advertising during children's television programs. True False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Deontologists would agree that the increasing medical concern over obesity in the United States justifies federal regulation of high fat, high sugar, low nutrition food advertising during children's television programs is True.
Final answer:
Deontologists may support federal food advertising regulations during children's TV programs based on ethical duties to protect child health, but effectiveness is questionable without addressing the broader context of parental influence and lifestyle.
Explanation:
True , It can be argued that deontologists, who focus on the adherence to duty and rules, may support federal regulation of high fat, high sugar, low nutrition food advertising during children's television programs on the basis that such regulations would align with ethical duties to protect children's health.
However, deontological ethics does not inherently prioritize the outcomes of actions, like the reduction of obesity rates, but rather emphasizes the morality of the actions themselves. This means a deontologist might support such regulations if they are seen as a moral duty to act in a way that respects the well-being of children, independent of parental influence on diet.
From a practical standpoint, despite the alarming rates of childhood obesity, some argue that regulating junk food advertisements does not tackle underlying issues such as lack of parental guidance and the influence of parents' own health and diet on their children, suggesting that regulations alone may not be effective without addressing the broader context of family and lifestyle choices.
The city that attracted the largest number of African-American migrants from NYC, 1995-2000.
Answer:
Atlanta
Explanation:
Black migrants moved to the South from three regions of the United States between 1995 to 2000. Metropolitan areas, especially Atlanta had the highest number of African-American migrants from New York, San Francisco, Los Angeles, and Chicago. The top destinations for black people during this period of migration was Atlanta and Washington D.C. Unlike the blacks, the white moved to areas like Los Angeles, Phoenix, and Miami.
The reference material provided offers a historical account of the Great Migration during the early 20th century, especially focusing on Harlem, New York, as a significant destination for African-Americans but does not specify a city that attracted the most migrants from NYC between 1995-2000.
Explanation:The city that attracted the largest number of African-American migrants from New York City between 1995-2000 isn't specifically mentioned in the provided reference material. The historical context provided pertains to the Great Migration that occurred much earlier, during the early 20th century, when hundreds of thousands of African-Americans moved from the South to cities like New York, especially Harlem, which became a central hub for the emerging Negro middle class. This migration was largely due to economic opportunities and the demand for industrial labor during World War I, as well as the subsequent development of a new urban African-American culture and political activism. Key cultural landmarks such as the Harlem Renaissance emerged as a result of this demographic shift, further enriching American culture and society.
Students with high-incidence disabilities often require substantial special education services and supports outside the general education classroom?
True
False
The given statement is true because the students with high incidence disability will require some special education and special services outside the general education
Explanation:
High incidence disabilities are the children's who are identified with a higher rate of mental emotional disorders like the autism spectrum disorders the communication disorders the intellectual disabilities the specific learning disabilities and the emotional and the behavioral disorder
They must be given special learning apart from the general learning and they must also be given special services in learning
__________ occurs during meiosis, in which chromosomes sometimes fail to divide properly; as a result, the person may have 45 or 47 chromosomes.
Answer: Aneuploidy occurs during meiosis, in which chromosomes sometimes fail to divide properly; as a result, the person may have 45 or 47 chromosomes.
Explanation: In Aneuploidy, abnormal chromosome number is not an exact multiple of haploid. That is, there might be one chromosome left (45) or one chromosome more (47) than normal (46).
Aneuploidy results from non-disjunction during gametogenesis. The homologous chromosome fail to separate during mitosis or meiosis. Therefore, one daughter cell receives an extra chromosome while the other daughter cell is deficient of one. Following fertilization, the resulting zygote will have either one homologous chromosome (monosomy) or three homologous chromosomes (trisomy).
What functional groups must be free for a sugar to qualify as a reducing sugar?
Answer:
A reducing sugar is any sugar that is capable of acting as a reducing agent because it has a free aldehyde group or a free ketone group. All monosaccharides are reducing sugars, along with some disaccharides, oligosaccharides, and polysaccharides.
Explanation:
Answer:
A reducing sugar is any sugar that is capable of acting as a reducing agent because it has a free aldehyde group or a free ketone group.
Explanation:
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How can the concept of nutrient density of foods help you to develop a healthy eating pattern?
Answer:
Nutrient density or nutrient dense foods are foods that contains vitamins, minerals and other beneficial nutrients for good health with little or the right weight gain.
Explanation:
Eating food with the right nutrient density and in recommended amounts will results in building a healthy eating pattern, good growth and development and an healthy living.
Parker wants to improve their muscle ENDURANCE.
Parker currently lifts every other day for each muscle group, with heavy weights at 60-90% of their 1 RM while completing 2 sets of 15 repetitions.
What part of the FITT principle is Parker not correctly following to improve their muscle ENDURANCE?
1. Frequency
2.Time
3.Parker is following the FITT principle for Endurance
4. Intensity
Answer:
3
Explanation:
Answer:
3
Explanation:
Parker is following the FITT principle for Endurance
Sympathetic pathways beginning with the neuronal cell body in the spinal cord and ending with the arrival at a target organ. You will need to use the scribble tool in the insert component of word or another application to draw the lines
Answer:
Hi
The sympathetic nervous system is one of the divisions of the autonomic nervous system. It involuntarily regulates the contraction of smooth muscles and the secretion of many glands. Its effects are opposite to those of the parasympathetic nervous system. The most important neurotransmitters are adrenaline and norepinephrine. Its main action is related to a fight response to external stimuli that can endanger the body, so it increases the frequency and strength of the heartbeat, dilates the lungs, dilates the pupil, increases blood pressure, It dilates the blood vessels and stimulates the production of sweat by the sweat glands. A schema is attached to the Word file.
Explanation:
What is not an example of when the parent is considered not to be the personal representative of a minor child with respect to protected health information?
Answer:
In some exceptions, the laws prevent the parents to become personal representatives of a minor child in-terms of having access to protected health information.
Explanation:
There are three exceptional circumstances as stated by HIPAA privacy rule.
1) When state does not require consent of parents before a minor can obtain healthcare service such as state law providing adolescent the right to obtain mental health treatment.
2) When a court decides that some person other than parent could take decisions regarding treatment for a minor or court may make a decision by itself.
3) When a parent agrees to a confidential relationship between healthcare provider and minor patient.
A parent is not considered the personal representative of a minor child regarding protected health information when the minor can legally consent to certain medical services, has been emancipated by a court, or when parental rights are terminated. Additionally, if a parent agrees to a confidential relationship between the minor and the healthcare provider, they may not have access to the minor's PHI.
One scenario where a parent is considered not to be the personal representative of a minor child with respect to protected health information (PHI) is when the minor is legally able to consent to a medical service without parental consent, and the minor or another individual or entity has expressly consented to the service. This occurs in situations governed by law, where minors have the capability to make certain medical decisions on their own. For instance, many jurisdictions have specific statutes allowing minors to consent to mental health, substance abuse treatment, or reproductive health services without needing parental consent. Furthermore, in cases where a court of competent jurisdiction has emancipated the minor, or where parental rights have been terminated due to abuse, neglect, or other significant issues, the parent would not be considered the personal representative in terms of accessing or controlling the minor’s PHI.
Another important scenario is when a parent agrees to a confidential relationship between the minor and the healthcare provider. In such cases, despite the parental relationship, the provider is not obligated to disclose information to the parent if it is deemed to breach the agreed-upon confidentiality with the minor.