Answer: C
Explanation:
HIV is classified as a retrovirus because its genetic material is composed of single-stranded RNA nucleotide. And also Retroviruses have the enzyme reverse transcriptase, which is capable of making a DNA copy of its RNA once inside the infected host cell
Answer:
The answer is C; it makes a DNA copy of its RNA once inside the host cell
Explanation:
HIV is called a retrovirus because common to all retroviruses, they store their genetic information using RNA instead of DNA, and they need to ‘make’ or convert their RNA to DNA when they enter a human cell in order to make new copies of themselves.
What are the functions of the three major forms of RNA (ribosomal RNA, messenger RNA, and transfer RNA)?
Answer:
Ribosomal RNA: Structural part of ribosomes
Messenger RNA: Carry genetic information from DNA to proteins
Transfer RNA (tRNA): Transport amino acids to protein synthesizing complex.
Explanation:
Ribosomes are made up of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and proteins. The catalytic activity for the formation of peptide bonds between amino acids during protein synthesis resides the RNA of ribosomes.
Messenger RNA (mRNA) is formed by the process of transcription during which the nucleotide sequence of the template DNA strand is copied into that of the RNA. The mRNA serves as a template for protein synthesis. The nucleotide sequence of mRNA is read in the form of genetic codes to specify the amino acid sequence of a protein. In this way, the genetic information stored in DNA is carried to the proteins.
During the process of protein synthesis, tRNAs carry amino acids to the mRNA-ribosome complex so that the amino acids are incorporated into the polypeptide. For the purpose, there is a tRNA with a specific anticodon sequence for a particular amino acid.
A RNA differs from DNA in all EXCEPT which of the following ways?
A. the presence of uracil
B. the 5'-3' orientation of the polynucleotide strand
C. the sugar molecule
D. the number of different functions performed
Answer: B. the 5'-3' orientation of the polynucleotide strand .
The complimentary pairing of DNA molecules ensures 5' 3' and 3'[ 5 ' arrangement for correct pairing of purines and pyrimidine (Adenine E with thymine and cytosine with guanine) in opposite direction. .
RNA only contains five prime and three prime only, but DNA contains both 5'3' and 3'5'.
RNA differs from DNA in the presence of uracil, the sugar molecule, and its various functions. However, both RNA and DNA share the 5'-3' orientation of the polynucleotide strand.
Explanation:The RNA differs from DNA in several ways, including the presence of uracil, the type of sugar molecule it contains, and its various functions. However, the 5'-3' orientation of the polynucleotide strand is a feature that RNA shares with DNA. Both RNA and DNA have this orientation, which describes the direction that the molecules are read and synthesized in cellular processes such as DNA replication and transcription.
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In the datura plant, purple flower color is controlled by a dominant allele P. White flowers are found in plants homozygous for the recessive allele p. Suppose that a purple-flowered datura plant with an unknown genotype is self-fertilized and that its progeny are 28 purple-flowered plants and 10 white-flowered plants.
Part A
Use the results of the self-fertilization to determine the genotype of the original purple-flowered plant.
a. Pp
b. PP
c. pp
Part B
If one of the purple-flowered progeny plants is selected at random and self-fertilized, what is the probability it will breed true?
a. 1/3
b. 1/4
c. 3/4
d. 2/3
Answer:
Part A: Pp
Part B: 1/3
Explanation:
A: The purple flower color is regulated by dominant allele "P". Since self-fertilization of the purple-flowered plant with unknown genotype gives both purple and white-flowered progeny in almost 3:1 ratio, the parent plant was heterozygous dominant for the trait. Its genotype is "Pp".
Segregation of recessive and dominant alleles during gamete formation leads to the production of two types of gametes with either "P" or "p" alleles. The random fusion of these gametes produces progeny in following phenotype ratio= 3 purple: 1 white.
B. Out of the 3 purple-flowered progeny, 1 is homozygous dominant (PP). Therefore, the probability of the purple-flowered progeny to breed true is 1/3.
Final answer:
The genotype of the original purple-flowered datura plant is determined to be heterozygous (Pp) based on the ratios of purple to white flowered progeny. The probability that a randomly selected purple-flowered progeny will breed true for the purple color is 1/4, meaning there is a 25% chance it is homozygous dominant (PP).
Explanation:
Part A: Genotype Determination
To determine the genotype of the original purple-flowered datura plant, we can look at the progeny from its self-fertilization. Given that the purple flower color is dominant and represented as allele P and the white color is recessive and represented as allele p, we can infer the genotype of the parent plant based on the ratio of purple to white flowered plants among its progeny. The progeny consists of 28 purple-flowered plants and 10 white-flowered plants. This suggests that the parent plant is not a homozygous dominant (PP) because we expect all progeny to have purple flowers in that scenario. Since white flowers (pp) are a recessive trait, they can only appear in the offspring if the parent carries the recessive allele. Therefore, the parent plant must be heterozygous Pp.
Part B: Probability of True Breeding
The probability that a randomly selected purple-flowered progeny plant will breed true (be homozygous dominant PP) can be inferred from the parent's genotype. Since the parent plant is heterozygous Pp, its possible gametes are P or p. With self-fertilization, there is a 1 in 4 chance (or 25%) of getting PP, a 1 in 4 chance of pp, and a 2 in 4 chance of Pp. The probability that the purple progeny plant selected is a homozygote (PP) is the same as finding a homozygous dominant offspring in the self-fertilization, which is 1/4 or option 'b'. The other two-thirds will be heterozygous purple (Pp).
What are some ways to prevent wildfires?
Ways to prevent wildfires can include:
If you see new fires, report it if its not getting taken care of.Don't use fireworks in areas with lots of trees/bushes.When you smoke cigarettes, don't throw them on the ground.When you are using flammable liquids, please be cautious with it.When you are using a campfire, put it out before you leave.Best of Luck!
Answer:
Report unattended fires. ...Extinguish fire pits and campfires when done. ...Don't throw lit cigarettes out of your moving car. ...Use caution when using flammable liquids. ...Pay attention to local ordinances for trash burning. ...Only use fireworks in clear areas with no woods nearby.Explanation:
hope this helps you
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Which could be an example of an Adaptive Radiation?
A. a burst of new species in a new habitat where selective pressure is different from an ancestral habitat, like has been noticed for "Darwin’s Finches" The Cichlid Fishes and numerous examples from the fossil record.
B. HUMAN domestication of wild plants into crop plants due to selectively breeding plants with desirable characteristics over several hundred thousand years
C. Descent with modification and natural selection
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-A
Explanation:
Adaptive radiation is a process of speciation by which organisms get diversified into many forms very rapidly from an ancestral species.
The process takes place when the species gets into a new environment and new niches which results in morphological and physiological traits.
In the given question, the various forms of Darwin’s Finches on the same island is the result of adaptive radiation as the different forms of the beak of Finches is the result of different niches and the different food provided by nature.
Thus, option-A is the correct answer.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Adaptional radiation- The comparatively quick evolution of the many species from one common ascendant, often happens when an organism enters a new area with lots of ecological opportunities.
EXAMPLE: "Darwin Finches".
It can also happen due to mass extinction or when new traits evolve.
Ex: Mammals after the extinction of the dinosaur.
2. In the SN1 mechanism, the second step is attack of the nucleophile, so increasing the nucleophile concentration should speed up this step. Why, then, do we say that the rate of an SN1 reaction does not depend on the concentration of the nucleophile?
Answer:
The rate of reaction depends on the rate determining step of a nonelementary reaction
Explanation:
A non elementary reaction is a reaction that proceeds in a sequence of steps. One of the steps is usually the slowest step in the reaction sequence. This slowest step is called the rate determining step. In an SN1 reaction, the rate determining step is the formation of the carbocation, the concentration of the carbocation affects the rate of reaction because it is involved in the rate determining step. The attack of the nucleophile is a fast step and does not affect the rate of reaction.
Answer:because the rate determining step is not the second step where nucleophilic concentration is important but rather the first step is the rate determining step in SN1 reaction
Explanation: the rate determining step is the slowest step in a reaction chain and SN1 reaction mechanism is first characterized by formation of a carboncation which is an endothermic reaction hence the is the slowest step in the chain reaction
As you continue to cross the offspring resulting from the previous question with albinos, what will occur in the growing population?
Answer selections:
a) the percentage of agouti will increase
b) the percentage of chinchillas will increase
c) the percentage of both dominant traits (agouti and chinchilla) will increase
d) the percentage of albinos will increase
*any explanation with answer is welcome for best understanding*
Answer:
D. The percentage of albinos will increase.
Explanation:
In the growing population it is certain that the percentage of albinos will surely increase because it is continuous breeding involving albinos.
Answer:
The percentage of albinos will increase.
In 1906 Harden and Young, in a series of classic studies on the fermentation of glucose to ethanol and CO2 by extracts of brewer's yeast, made the following observations.(A) Inorganic phosphate was essential to fermentation; when the supply of phosphate was exhausted, fermentation ceased before all the glucose was used.(B) During fermentation under these conditions, ethanol, CO2, and a sugar phosphate accumulated.(C) When arsenate was substituted for phosphate, no sugar phosphate acumulated, but the fermentation proceeded until all the glucose was converted to ethanol and CO2.Answer the following questions.1. Which enzyme of glycolysis requires inorganic phosphate and therefore stops when no phosphate is available?(a) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase(b) phosphoglycerate mutase(c) phosphofructokinase-1(d) phosphoglycerate kinase
Answer:
(a) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase.
Explanation:
Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase is the enzyme which requires inorganic phosphate (Pi) essentially for it's functioning. It catalyzes the conversion of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate into 1,3-bisphosphoglyceric acid (1,3 BPG) during glycolysis.
All other enzymes of glycolysis use ATP for phosphorylation of their substrate but this is the only enzyme which rather uses an inorganic phosphate to phosphorylate it's substrate.
All of the following can reduce crop water use, except for which one? Group of answer choices Applying irrigation water at times of day when evaporation is low. Leaving the soil surface bare to improve infiltration. Selecting crop varieties that are well-suited to the local climate. Using drip irrigation techniques to apply water only where plants can use it.
Answer:
Leaving the soil surface bare to improve infiltration.
Explanation:
All of the following can reduce crop water use, except Leaving the soil surface bare to improve infiltration.
Leaving the soil bare will do no good to soil's water retention capacity rather it would decrease significantly. This happen because of water runoffs as there would no crops to hold water and the top fertile layer of the soil will runoff along with water.
Answer:
Explanation:
Leaving the soil surface bare for infiltration. When the soil surface is bare it exposes the it's layers to direct sunlight which absorbs all the water content present in the soil and thus is harmful for the soil and crop
The Correlated trait exercise shows that :
A) when two characters are correlated, selection always favors larger values of both or smaller values of both
B) When two characters are correlated, one of them can evolve toward higher values even if smaller values are better for survival
C) when two characters are correlated, selection is always strong on both or weak on both
D) when two characters are correlated, the optimal values and selection strengths rise and fall together
Answer:The correlated trait exercise shows that when two characters are correlated, the optimal values and selection strengths rise and fall together.
Explanation: Correlation refers to statistical (linear) relationship between two random variables. When traits are correlated, change in one is associated with change in the other.
Correlation coefficient (c.c.) measures strength of association between two variables in the same individual or experiment. It can range from -1 to +1. C.c. can be positive, negative or weak.
1. A positive c.c. means that an increase in one variable is associated with an increase in the other variable.
2. A negative c.c. means that an increase in one variable is associated with a decrease in the other.
3. A c.c. near zero indicates a weak relationship between the variables.
Correlation can be represented by scatter plot as shown in the attached image.
Option B: When two traits are correlated, one can evolve toward higher values even if smaller values are better for survival.
Option B states that when two characters are correlated, one of them can evolve toward higher values even if smaller values are better for survival. This implies that selection pressures can favor changes in one trait even if those changes are not directly beneficial for survival. This phenomenon, known as evolutionary constraint or evolutionary trade-off, occurs when traits are genetically linked or when the same genetic mechanisms control multiple traits. As a result, evolutionary changes in one trait may be constrained by the genetic correlation with another trait, leading to seemingly suboptimal evolutionary outcomes. Therefore, Option B provides a nuanced understanding of how correlated traits can evolve.
Which statements describe telomeres and the actions of telomerase?
a) Telomerase activity is turned off in most human cells, causing the telomeres to gradually shorten as the individual ages.
b) Telomerase contains a G‑rich template sequence that adds a C‑rich DNA sequence to the lagging strand of the chromosome.
c) Telomerase consists of an RNA template and a protein component that adds complementary nucleotides to the 3′ end of DNA.
d) Inappropriate activation of telomerase can result in cellular immortality, one of the cellular changes implicated in the development of cancer.
e)A telomere forms a loop with a section of the complementary DNA strand, protecting the chromosome from degradation by endonucleases.
Final answer:
Correct statements about telomeres and telomerase include telomerase activity being generally off in most human cells (a), telomerase containing an RNA template and a protein component adding to the 3' DNA end (c), and inappropriate activation of telomerase contributing to cellular immortality and cancer (d).
Explanation:
Which statements describe telomeres and the actions of telomerase? The statements that accurately describe telomeres and the actions of telomerase are as follows:
a) Telomerase activity is turned off in most human cells, causing the telomeres to gradually shorten as the individual ages.
c) Telomerase consists of an RNA template and a protein component that adds complementary nucleotides to the 3′ end of DNA.
d) Inappropriate activation of telomerase can result in cellular immortality, one of the cellular changes implicated in the development of cancer.
Statement b) is incorrect because telomerase adds a G-rich sequence to the telomere, not a C-rich sequence. Statement e) describes the formation of a T-loop by the telomere but does not pertain directly to how telomerase functions.
In humans, hemophilia is caused by an X-linked recessive gene. A woman who is a nonbleeder - that is, she does not display the blood-clotting irregularities associated with hemophilia - had a father who was a hemophiliac.
She marries a nonbleeder, and they plan to have children.
Calculate the probability of hemophilia in the female and male offspring.
Answer:
one normal girl
One normal boy
One carrier girl
One colour blind boy
Explanation:
Haemophilia is a sex linked feature as it is transmitted with the chromosomes determining sex.
In humans,the male has XY and the female has XX.the Y chromosome is usually genetically empty.so as mall received his Y chromosomes from his father,he cannot inherit his father's sex linked traits .but women can as they receive and X chromosomes from their fathers.so a cross between a carrier woman Cc and a normal man C result in;
XX--CC
XX--Cc
XY--C
XY--c
The data from a replicated experiment are very different from the data obtained during the initial experiment. Which statements identify possible reasons for the difference in the data? Check all that apply
The initial experiment was not a valid experiment.
The replicated experiment was performed incorrectly.
The replicated experiment used a different laboratory.
The initial experiment involved more trials and data.
The replicated experiment changed the variables being tested.
The initial experiment was not a valid experiment is the statement which identifies possible reasons for the difference in the data.
Explanation:
The replicated experiment however is crucial but doesn't satisfy the condition of justifying the validity of a scientific theory or hypothesis. However, the initial or repeated experiment are more satisfying in producing logical result from the experiment. It involves repeated methods of a particular experiment with more and more trials and observations of more data.
However, the replicate experiments are individual experiments of a specific hypothesis which fails to experiment are individual experiments of a specific hypothesis which fails to produce a logical result.
Answer:
The initial experiment was not a valid experiment.
The replicated experiment was performed incorrectly.
The initial experiment involved more trials and data.
The replicated experiment changed the variables being tested.
Explanation:
A scientific experiment is performed to test if the predicated hypothesis can be proved or not.
The scientific experiment involves the repetition of the experiment by the same experimenter and the replication of the experiment which could be performed by the same experimenter or another experimenter to test if the results of the initial experiment are valid or not.
In the given question, the results of the initial experiment and the replicated experiment are different which could be due to various reasons:
The initial experiment was not valid - if the initial experiment performed is not valid. The replicated experiment was performed incorrectly- the replication procedure differs from the initial experiment or there could be some error while experimenting. The initial experiment involved more trials and data- the initial experiments could have involved more replicas, trials, and data. The replicated experiment changed the variables being tested - the variables of this two experiment could differ.Which of the following is NOT one of the uses of fungi?Select one:a. As a source of antibiotics.b. To make drinks, like beer.c. To produce fabrics like cotton and linen.d. To make food, like bread.e. As a direct food source: mushrooms, for example.
Answer:
Fungi are not used to produce fabrics like cotton and linen.
Explanation:
Fungi are extremily important for the ecosystem because they are one of the principal organic matter decomposers. But they are also very important for human uses, such as:
Yeast is important in the fermentation process involved in the production of beer, wine, and bread. Fermentation occurs in the absence of oxygen and allows the first step of cellular respiration, glycolysis, to continue. Some fungi are used to produce sauces as an important proteinic source Some other fungi are ingested directly as food, such as the pine tree fungi or the champignon mushroom. In medicine, fungi are important to produce antibiotics such as peniciline.Answer:
To produce fabrics like cotton and linen
Any object struck at its natural frequency will vibrate violently. This is known as resonance. Applications of this include earthquakes knocking down building and
A) rainbows created in air.
B) microwaves created in ovens.
C) light being created by the sun.
D) sound being created in music instruments.
Answer: option D) sound being created in music instruments
Explanation:
Resonance occurs when an object close in contact to a vibrating body begins to vibrate at the same frequency of the vibrating body.
Usually each object has a THRESHOLD frequency which must be equaled or exceeded before it is set into vibration.
Therefore, this is the PRINCIPLE behind MELODY i.e how sound is being created in music instruments.
9. Consider the need for accuracy in the flow of information from DNA to RNA to functional protein molecules. What are the different levels of stringency in replication, transcription and translation? What kinds of mechanism improve the accuracy of these processes?
Answer:
The central dogma of the molecular biology explains the flow of information from the replication of the DNA to the expression of proteins. This central dogma must be error free so that correct information can be transferred. The error in this process can cause life threatening situation. So, the phases of proof reading and rectification is required in this process.
From the DNA replication to the transcription of the RNA and final translation into the proteins requires proof reading mechanisms and many enzymes with the non enzymatic processes. The enzymes of transcription, replication and translation shows high degree of proof reading and works in efficient way. The incorporation of the amino acids, post translation modification makes the information flow as correct as possible.
If you shine a light into one eye both pupils will constrict. The best explanation for this is a. sensory input from the retinas of both eyes converges at the optic chiasm and information from each eye is delivered to both the left and right sides of the brain b. a small portion of light always enters the other eye c. information from one eye is directly and immediately transferred to the other eye to maintain alignment of the eyes d. this in fact does not occur and information from both eyes is always separated
Answer: the best option is A (sensory input from the retinas of both eyes converges at the optic chiasm and information from each eye is delivered to both the left and right sides of the brain)
Explanation:
At the optic chiasm, nerve fibers from half of each retina cross over to the opposite side of the brain. The fibers from the other half of the retina travel to the same side of the brain. Because of this junction, each half of the brain receives visual signals from the visual fields of both eyes. this allows the effect of consensual response in which there is change in pupil size in the eye opposite to the eye to which the light is directed. I hope this helps thanks.
Final answer:
Correct option is a. Both pupils constrict in response to light due to the bilateral nature of the pupillary light reflex, where information from both retinas converges at the optic chiasm and is processed by both brain hemispheres, causing a consensual reaction.
Explanation:
When light is shined into one eye, both pupils constrict due to the pupillary light reflex, which involves both an afferent and efferent pathway. Sensory input from the retina of each eye converges at the optic chiasm, whereby information from the right visual field goes to the left hemisphere of the brain, and information from the left visual field goes to the right hemisphere. This crossing over or decussation allows for information from both fields of view to be processed in both hemispheres of the brain. Therefore, the correct option explaining why shining light in one eye results in the constriction of both pupils is: sensory input from the retinas of both eyes converges at the optic chiasm and information from each eye is delivered to both the left and right sides of the brain. This bilateral projection of information allows the brain to coordinate a consensual pupillary response, meaning that shining light in one eye also triggers the constriction of the other pupil, thus preserving the alignment and proper function of both eyes.
If the light reflex testing reveals an asymmetrical response, it may signify damage to the optic or oculomotor nerve pathways, indicating a need for further medical evaluation.
a cell found in the root of the plant would most likely lack what cell structure.
Mitochondria
Cell wall
Cell membrane
Chloroplasts
Answer:
The cells found in the root of the plant normally lacks chloroplasts, as roots do not perform photosynthesis. The main function of chloroplast is photosynthesis.
Explanation:
The plant cell contains nucleus, cell wall, cell membrane, mitochondria, chloroplasts, vacuole, endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes etc. Chloroplasts contain green pigments which give green color to the plants. The main function of chloroplast is photosynthesis. During photosynthesis, the plants produce glucose and release oxygen by using carbon dioxide from the air, and absorbing water and nutrients from the soil. Using the glucose in the plants and oxygen, mitochondria produce energy.
The root system of the plants absorb water and nutrients from the soil. The absorbed water and nutrients are then transported to various parts of the plant to carry out processes like photosynthesis, maintaining turgor pressure etc. They have different types of cell which perform some specific functions. These cells also contain cell wall, cell membrane and mitochondria. Mitochondria provides energy for the active transport of water and nutrients. But chloroplasts are absent in root cells as they do not perform photosynthesis.
Some species of algae can potentially be farmed and used as biofuel. This would create a renewable, sustainable source of biofuel to use in place of fossil fuels. This is an example of
Answer: Renewable source of energy
Explanation:
The algae can be used to produce biofuel. This is a alternative source of energy can be used in place of conventional sources of energy like fossil fuels. This emphasis towards the use of renewable source of energy as plant or algae can be grown again due to their seeds, spores or through any other vegetative precursors. This is the basis of sustainable use of non-renewable resources by the use of renewable resources.
Answer:
Biotechnology
Explanation:
Saccharomyces cerevisiae is a diploid yeast species that can reproduce either sexually or asexually. An experiment was performed to induce mitotically dividing S. cerevisiae cells in G2 to undergo meiosis. Which of the following best describes the steps these cells will follow to form gametes?
A. The first division will result in crossing over between homologous chromosomes, and the second division will reduce the original number of chromosomes by half in the daughter cells.
B. The first division will reduce the number of chromosomes by half for each daughter cell, and the second division will result in each daughter cell having one-fourth of the original number of chromosomes.
C. The first division will move single chromatids to each daughter cell, and the second division will double the number of chromosomes in each daughter cell.
D. The first division will reduce the number of chromosomes by half for each daughter cell, and the second division will move single chromatids to each daughter cell.
The statement that best describes the steps these cells will follow to form gametes is "the first division will reduce the number of chromosomes by half for each daughter cell, and the second division will move single chromatids to each daughter cell"
MEIOSIS:
Meiosis is the process by which a single cell produces four daughter cells with a reduced number of chromosomes (by half). Meiosis occurs in two step division process namely: meiosis I and meiosis II. In meiosis I, homologous chromosomes are separated while in meiosis II, sister chromatids are separated. Meiosis I reduces the chromosome number by half i.e. from diploid (2n) to haploid (n). Therefore, in the experiment that was performed to induce mitotically dividing S. cerevisiae cells in G2 to undergo meiosis, the first division will reduce the number of chromosomes by half for each daughter cell, and the second division will move single chromatids to each daughter cell.Learn more at: https://brainly.com/question/12327654?referrer=searchResults
Meiosis is a reduction division in which number of chromosomes in the daughter cells are halved. In mitosis, the number of chromosomes in the daughter and parent cell are similar after cell division. The statement which describes the correct sequence is:
The first division will reduce the number of chromosomes by half for each daughter cell, and the second division will move single chromatids to each daughter cell.The yeasts are the unicellular microorganisms that can reproduce sexually or asexually. During the sexual reproduction, the number of chromosomes in the in the daughter cells are halved. Some of the features of meiosis are:
Meiosis in yeasts produces four haploid daughter cells, known as gametes. Meiosis takes place in two steps, meiosis I and meiosis II. In meiosis I, the homologous chromosomes are separated, whereas, in the meiosis II separation of sister chromatids occur. Meiosis I is the reduction division in which diploid cell produces haploid cells. Thus, the experiment performed on yeast to induce mitosis will result in the cells undergoing meiosis during G1 phase. The first division will lead to reduction in the chromosome numbers by half and the second division will move single chromatids to each daughter cell.Therefore, option D is correct.
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What is the chance that the 4th child from the couple indicated by the arrow will have a girl who suffers from the disease?
Explanation:
Tho i can see no arrow but there is probability of 75% that a fourth child suffers the disease of the parent
The visible colored portion of the eye is the:
a. cornea.b. pupil.c. sclera.d. iris.
Answer:
D. IRIS
Explanation:
Generally in humans and also in most mammals and birds, the iris is a very small circular structure in the eye, responsible for controlling the diameter and size of the pupil and also with the amount of light reaching the retina.
finallly eye color is also known to be defined by that of the iris
A person has entered a hunger strike. After 60 days of starvation, this person is on the edge of dying. What is likely to be the cause of death?a. too many ketone bodies in the blood, which causes ketoacidosisb. lack of oxygen in the body for oxidative metabolismc. shut down of gluconeogenesis in the liverd. the breakdown of essential proteins of the brain and hearte. exhaustion of fat from adipose tissue
Answer: option D - the breakdown of essential proteins of the brain and heart
Explanation:
During starvation (food deprivation), the body cells begins to utilize the glycogen reserves in the liver and muscle. Then, it switches to the fats (stored in the adipose tissues).
If starvation persists, the body turns to the proteins for energy derivation. At this stage, the person's DYING STATE is usually visible because the muscles of the body shrinks greatly.
Note that DEATH set in when essential proteins of the BRAIN and HEART are metabolized to produce energy due to the vital functions both organs do in the overall body processes.
Fish is high in omega-3 fatty acids, which are most beneficial for the __________ as mentioned in the video. Fish is high in omega-3 fatty acids, which are most beneficial for the __________ as mentioned in the video.
1. immune system
2. kidneys
3. heart
4. digestive tract
Answer: option 3) Heart
Explanation:
Omega-3 fatty acids are an integral part of cell membranes throughout the body and affect the function of the cell receptors in these membranes.
They provide the starting point for making hormones that regulate blood clotting, contraction and relaxation of artery walls, and inflammation.
Thus, they are most beneficial to the HEART
Of the following phyla, which are non-seed producing and non-vascular?
Answer:
Anthocerophyta, Bryophyta, Hepatophyta.
Explanation:
Non vascular plants are defined as the plants which contains phloem, and xylem without the vascular system. They are containing simpler tissues which are specialized for internal transport of water.
They include bryophyta, hornworts (anthocerophyta), liverworts (hepatophyta) mosses, and some algae. Non vascular plants reproduce with the help of spores, and do not produce fruit, and flowers.
The total economic value of an ecosystem: is the monetary value of all of the services an ecosystem provides.
a. includes all of the ecosystem services, future uses, and non-use values (such as cultural, intrinsic, and aesthetic values) of an ecosystem.
b. is composed of the direct values an ecosystem provides upon which a price can be placed, such as crops and medicinal plants.
c. is composed of the direct economic value and the potential pharmaceutical value of an ecosystem.
d. is composed of the utilized services and goods an ecosystem provides, such as water storage and filtration, even if they are not directly paid for.
e. is the monetary value of all of the services an ecosystem provides.
Answer: option A - includes all of the ecosystem services, future uses, and non-use values (such as cultural, intrinsic, and aesthetic values) of an ecosystem.
Explanation:
Ecosystem is the interrelationship of organisms (plants, animals, microbes) with each other and their environment.
The TOTAL economic value of an ecosystem includes:
the presently utilized resources,
the resources to be derived in the future,
the non-use or intangible aspects (like tourism, beautification, etc)
The total economic value of an ecosystem comprises all of the ecosystem's services, future uses, and non-use values, which can be cultural, intrinsic, or aesthetic. This includes both direct and indirect values which the ecosystem provides and could have potential monetary value placed on.
Explanation:The total economic value of an ecosystem is indeed a comprehensive concept that spans across various areas. It includes all the ecosystem's services, future potentials, and even the non-use values. The latter can be cultural, intrinsic, or aesthetic. In essence, it encapsulates both direct and indirect values that the ecosystem offers.
Direct values refer to those upon which a price tag can be attached, such as farming crops or gathering medicinal plants. An ecosystem's potential pharmaceutical value is also an example of a direct economic value. On the other hand, indirect values are those benefits we derive from the ecosystem naturally, for example, water storage and filtration. While these services are crucial, they are not directly paid for.
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Which of the following best describes the change in kdr genotype frequencies over time in A. gambiae?a)From pre-2006 to post-2006, the frequency of the r/r genotype increased slightly while the frequencies of +/+ and +/r genotypes decreased dramatically.b)From pre-2006 to post-2006, the frequency of the r/r genotype increased dramatically while the frequencies of +/+ and +/r genotypes decreased dramatically.c)From pre-2006 to post-2006, the frequency of the r/r genotype increased dramatically while the frequencies of +/+ and +/r genotypes remained relatively constant.d)From pre-2006 to post-2006, there was little change to the r/r, +/+, and +/r genotype frequencies.
Answer:
b)From pre-2006 to post-2006, the frequency of the r/r genotype increased dramatically while the frequencies of +/+ and +/r genotypes decreased dramatically.
Final answer:
The frequency of the resistant r/r genotype in Anopheles gambiae mosquitoes increased dramatically post-2006, while the susceptible +/+ and +/r genotypes decreased dramatically, indicating evolution due to insecticide selection pressure.
Explanation:
Population genetics examines the changes in allele frequencies and genotype frequencies in a population over time. According to the provided reference, the change in kdr genotype frequencies in Anopheles gambiae mosquitoes indicates that the frequency of the resistant allele (denoted as 'r') and the corresponding homozygous genotype (r/r) increased dramatically post-2006, which suggests that the use of anti-vector interventions may have selected for this resistance allele at a higher rate. On the contrary, the frequencies of the susceptible homozygous genotype (+/+) and heterozygous genotype (+/r) decreased dramatically over this time period.
The correct description of these changes would most likely be that from pre-2006 to post-2006, the frequency of the r/r genotype increased dramatically while the frequencies of +/+ and +/r genotypes decreased dramatically. This reflects a population undergoing evolution due to selection pressure from the use of insecticides, as alleles that confer resistance to these chemicals are favored and become more common within the population.
Your friend is a pioneer in ES cell research. In her research, she uses an ES cell line that originated from an inbred strain of laboratory mice called FG426. She has just figured out methods that allow her to grow an entire liver from an ES cell and has successfully grown 10 livers. She demonstrates that the newly grown livers are functional by successfully transplanting one of the new livers into a FG426 laboratory mouse. You are particularly excited about this, because you have a sick pet mouse, Squeaky. You are very attached to Squeaky, as you found him when you were out camping in New Hampshire. Unfortunately, Squeaky has developed liver disease and will not live much longer without a liver transplant. After you see your friend on TV talking about her new method for growing mouse livers, you immediately grab your cell phone to ask her whether Squeaky could have one of the newly grown livers. Just as you are about to dial your friend, you remember something you learned in cell biology and realize that instead, you should ask your friend about possibly using therapeutic cloning for Squeaky’s benefit.
A. Why do you think that one of the newly grown livers may not work in Squeaky?
B.Explain how using iPS cells could solve this problem.
Answer:
Explanation:
a)Organ transplantation requires that the donor organism and recipient be genetically close so that the graft or transplant will not be attacked by the immune system of the recipient leading to rejection and damage. Squeaky is likely to be made up of a different genetic configuration compared to laboratory inbred FG426 mouse
b) ips (induced pluripotent stem cell) on the other hand can benefit squeaky since the cells are somatic cells such as B cells, Keratinocytes, neuronal progenitors cells, kidney and muscles gotten from the donor that are reprogrammed by reactivating silent genes through fusing of another different cell such as ES (embryonic stem cell) and introduction of some transcriptional factors such oct4, sox2,kf4, and k-myc leading to transcriptional activity and DNA methylation. This induced pluripotent stem cells can be grown into organ that can be transplanted to the recipient who was initially the donor of the reprogrammed somatic cells. Because it is from the host, the transplanted organ is not likely to trigger immune response compare to those grown from ES from other bred.
which of these is not a basic function of a cell
obtaining energy
storing energy
destroying energy
releasing energy
Answer: destroying energy
Explanation:
The cell is the basic unit of life. It consists of several components such as
Nucleus,
Mitochondria: it helps in obtaining energy through lipid oxidation within its layer
Cytosol: It helps in releasing energy from glucose breakdown (glycolysis)
Vacuoles, endoplasmic reticulum also help in storing energy in cells of adipose tissues.
But, NONE of the cell components helps in destroying energy, since energy is needed and usually well-regulated.
Which statement describes double fertilization in an angiosperm?
a. Two egg cells are fertilized within each ovule.
b. A sperm nucleus fuses with an egg cell and a sperm nucleus fuses with polar nuclei.
c. Two sperm are required for fertilization of one egg cell.
d. A flower can engage in both self-pollination and cross pollination.
e. One sperm fertilizes the egg while two polar nuclei fuse with a second egg.
Answer:b. A sperm nucleus fuses with an egg cell and a sperm nucleus fuses with polar nuclei.
Explanation:
This mode of fertlization occurs only in angioseprms .One of the sperms forms 2n as zygote.
The second sperm fuses with the two polar nuclei to form 3n as endosperm.
The importance of these are:
1. Restoration of diploid condition with the fusion of haploid male and female gametes.
2.it makes plants to recieve stimulus based on which ovary develops into a fruit and shows thst it is ovules that develops into seeds.
Answer:
B: A sperm nucleus fuses with an egg cell and a sperm nucleus fuses with polar nuclei.
Explanation:
In double fertilization in angiosperms, one sperm fertilizes the egg to form the 2n zygote, while the other sperm fuses with two polar nuclei to form the 3n endosperm. After fertilization, embryonic development begins