Hans Selye's definition of stress focuses on the body's physiological reaction to any demand.
Hans Selye's definition of stress is considered a response-based definition because it conceptualizes stress chiefly in terms of the body's physiological reaction to any demand that is placed on it.
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Hans Selye characterized stress as the body’s physiological response to any demand placed on it. Stress triggers automatic physical changes, such as an increased heart rate, which is why this ability is termed as a response-based definition.
Explanation:Hans Selye’s definition of stress is considered a response-based definition because it conceptualizes stress chiefly in terms of the body’s physiological reaction to any demand that is placed on it. According to Selye, stress arises when the body has to respond to challenging or dangerous situations. For example, if someone is threatened, their body might release adrenaline to prepare for a fight or flight response. This definition focuses on physiological changes, like increased heart rate or blood pressure.
This response to a stressor automatically happens without conscious thought and affects both one's physical body and mental state. This is why it is called a response-based definition. Other types of definitions might focus instead on the psychological effects of stressors or the events that cause stress.
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Janis wants to keep a clean home so she can have friends over. Although cleaning isn't the most enjoyable activity to her she discovers something interesting: when she sweeps the kitchen she then feels like putting more effort into cleaning the rest of the day. How might we describe this in psychological terms
Answer:
This can be described as a commitment.
Explanation:
From a psychological point of view, we can say that when Janis swept the kitchen's floor, she committed herself to have a clean house so that she can invite her friends. She is directing her activities to reach a goal and is easier because after sweeping the kitchen she is mentally predisposed to reach her goal of keeping the house clean.
A small-for-gestational-age (SGA) newborn has just been admitted to the nursery. Nursing assessment reveals a high-pitched cry, jitteriness, and irregular respirations. With which condition are these signs associated?a. Hypervolemiab. Hypoglycemiac. Hypercalcemiad. Hypothyroidism
Answer:
Hypoglycemia
Explanation:
Symptoms of Hypoglycemia in newborns are
1) Jitteriness
2) low body temperature
3) poor feeding
4) seizures
Hypoglycemia is relate to the situations in which sugar level down to normal level. The symptoms for Hypoglycemia include confusion, trouble in talking, seizure, etc.
Hypoglycemia is caused due to high intake of insulin and sudden low of sugar level.
Match each device with its advantage A. Insulin pump Provides quick measurement B. Glucose meter ensures accurate doeses C. Joint implant relief offers pain relief
Answer:
A. Insulin pump - ensures accurate doses
B. Glucose meter - provides quick measurement
C. Joint implant relief - offers pain relief
Explanation:
A. The insulin pump is a device that mimics the way that the pancreas works. It provides insulin to the body by delivering safe and accurate doses of insulin in a continous way.
B. The glucose meter is a device that provides a quick and accurate measurement of the amount of sugar (glucose) that is present in the blood.
C. The joint implant relief, usually used by people above 60 years of age, is a successful orthopaedic replacement that enables an individual that is suffering from constant pain to get a higher quality of life by eliminating their pain, which enables them to reincorporate into their former activities, e.g. return to work. According to research, the most successful joint implants are hip replacements and knee replacements.
Which of the following is NOT a maternal benefit of breastfeeding?
a. Minimizes postpartum blood loss
b. Helps uterus return to nonpregnant size
c. Delays return to fertility
d. MAY help lose weight more quickly
e. All of the above would be considered benefits of breastfeeding
Answer:
E - All of the above would be considered benefits of breastfeeding
Explanation:
Breastfeeding is the feeding of newborns and young ones with milk from the breast of the mother. It provides the ideal nutrition for infants as it contains an almost perfect combination of vitamins, fat and protein required for a baby to grow and develop.
Although it is a personal choice, It is usually recommended by gynecologist to be done exclusively for 6 months after giving birth.
It has many benefits for both mother and child and all the options listed above (from A-D) can be considered maternal benefits of breastfeeding.
which form of managed care restricts providers to caring for individuals who are memebers of theri organization?
Answer: Health Maintenance Organization (HMO)
Explanation:
The answer is Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) which is in contrast with Preferred Provider Organization (PPO), Point of Service Plan (POS), and Exchange Provider Organization (EPO).
This type of managed care restricts providers to caring for individuals within its organization.
Health Maintenance Organization provide a wide range of comprehensive health care services for the benefits of its members usually in exchange for a fixed periodic payment which could be monthly or even annually depending on the prearrangement.
In this type of managed care, the Health maintenance Organization coordinates all the basic health care of their members.
Answer:
Health maintenance organization (HMO)
Explanation:
A health maintenance organization (HMO) is a network or organization that provides health insurance coverage for a monthly or annual fee. An HMO is made up of a group of medical insurance providers that limit coverage to medical care provided through doctors and other providers who are under contract to the HMO.
Which of the following is a common exclusion in a medical expense plan:_______
A. Loss due to an accident
B. Minor surgical procedure
C. Office visit expense
D. Loss due to Workers' Compensation
Answer: D. Loss due to Workers' Compensation
Explanation:
Medical expense plan includes the finance which can be used for health related emergency like accident, surgery, implantation, and pregnancy. The medical expense plan also covers drugs and medicine prescription, arrangement of equipment like stunts, wheelchair, eyeglasses and others required for medical treatment.
Worker's compensation is a kind of medical insurance that provides benefits to the workers who are suffering from job related hazards, injuries and illnesses. It is excluded from the medical expense plan.
Final answer:
A common exclusion in a medical expense plan is loss due to Workers' Compensation.
Explanation:
In a medical expense plan, a common exclusion is loss due to Workers' Compensation. Workers' Compensation is a type of insurance that provides benefits to workers who suffer injuries on the job and is separate from a medical expense plan.
This exclusion exists because Workers' Compensation insurance covers work-related injuries separately, so they are not typically covered under a medical expense plan.
For example, if a person gets injured while working and is eligible for Workers' Compensation benefits, their medical expenses related to the injury would be covered by the Workers' Compensation insurance, not the medical expense plan.
Which vitamin is added to enriched grains and cereals in order to reduce the risk of birth defects?
Answer: Folic acid
Explanation:
Folic acid is a Vitamin B. It is the vitamin that helps to make new cells in the body, it helps to reduce the birth defects related to brain and spine thus must be taken by the pregnant mothers.
The foods enriched with cereals, breads and other grains, dried beans, green vegetables, nuts and dried beans are the sources of folic acid.
Which is a potentially life-threating condition found during the primary triage survey that would necessitate priority nursing care?
Answer: Concussion
Explanation:
Primary triage survey is done as a part of the initial assessment of an injured person. It is to check the injuries, stability of the vital organs, and the mechanism of injury.
Concussion can be the first finding of the primary triage survey. It will be visible on the head. It results in the brain injury. The effects can be temporary or severe. The person may loose memory, coordination and may lead to coma.
Which of the following would be inappropriate treatment for a diver exhibiting symptoms of Decompression Sickness?
A. Administering CPRB. Administering pure oxygen (if qualified)C. Treat for shockD. Taking the victim back underwater
Answer:
D. Taking the victim back underwater
Explanation:
Taking the victim back underwater would be inappropriate treatment for a diver exhibiting symptoms of Decompression Sickness.
Answer:
D.Taking the victim back underwater
Explanation:
A high school soccer player sustained five concussions before she was told that she should never play contact sports again. After her last injury, she began experiencing episodes of double vision. She was told that she had most likely incurred damage to which cranial nerve?a) V (Trigeminal)
b) VI (Abducens)
c) IV (Trochlear)
d) VII (Facial)
Answer:
VI (Abducens).
Explanation:
Cranial nerves may be defined as the nerves that controls the sensory and motor functions of the neck and head. These nerves emerge directly from the brain and are 12 in number.
Abducen is the sixth cranial nerve that helps in the movement of the lateral rectus muscle and also responsible for the outward gaze. This nerve work as somatic efferent nerve. This nerve also effects the vision of an individual and results in double vision.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
Answer:
B. VI (Abducens)
Explanation:
Abducens cranial nerve supports movement of the eye laterally. Any damage to the nerve can cause double vision.
Which program offers nutrition screenings at no cost?
A) food distribution centers
B) Meals on Wheels
C) SNAP
D) workplace wellness programs
Answer:
D is the correct answer
Explanation:
workplace wellness programs
Which of the following is a true statement?
a. Estrous cycles are more frequent than menstrual cycles.
b. Estrous cycles are not controlled by hormones.
c. All mammals have menstrual cycles.
d. The endometrial lining is shed in menstrual cycles but reabsorbed in estrous cycles.
e. Ovulation occurs before the endometrium thickens in estrous cycles.
Answer: A) The endometrial lining is shed in menstrual cycles but reabsorbed in estrous cycles.
Explanation:
The endometrium can be defined as the inner layer of the epithelium. It along with the mucous membrane forms the covering of the mammalian uterus. It is the basal and functional layer of the uterus. This layer thickens and then shed during the menstruation cycle in humans and in some other mammals including the apes, monkeys, bats and elephants. But the endometrium layer is reabsorbed in the estrous cycle.
You want to look up and to your right. Which extrinsic eye muscles would be the most active in each eye?
A. right eye: superior oblique left eye: superior rectus
B. right eye: superior rectus left eye: superior rectus
C. right eye: inferior oblique left eye: superior rectus
D. right eye: superior rectus left eye: inferior oblique
Answer:
C
Explanation:
The right eye plus the inferior oblique left eye and superior rectus.
Place the following events in the order in which they occur during sound transmission. 1. Tympanic membrane vibrates. 2. Internal ear fluids are set in motion. 3. Hearing receptors are stimulated. 4. Ossicles of the ear vibrate. 5. Auditory cortex is stimulated.
Answer:
The correct order of events in sound transmission is 1, 4, 2,3 5
Explanation:
1. Tympanic membrane vibrates.
4. Ossicles of the ear vibrate.
2. Internal ear fluids are set in motion.
3. Hearing receptors are stimulated.
5. Auditory cortex is stimulated.
Sound is received by external ear or pinna that travels into the ear canal and causes the eardrum or tympanic membrane to move. The tympanic membrane vibrates with sound waves. Sound vibrations move through the ear bones or ossicles to the cochlea and cochlea moves due to sound vibration. Fluid movement causes the hair cells to move. As hair cells move up and down, electrical signals is generated. The auditory nerve sends electrical signal to the brain, which turns it into a sound.
The order of events during sound transmission is: Tympanic membrane vibrates, Ossicles of the ear vibrate, Internal ear fluids are set in motion, Hearing receptors are stimulated, and Auditory cortex is stimulated.
Explanation:The transmission of sound occurs in a sequential order. The events listed occur in the following order:
Tympanic membrane vibrates: Sound waves strike the tympanic membrane, causing it to vibrate.Ossicles of the ear vibrate: The vibrational energy is then transferred to the ossicles of the ear.Internal ear fluids are set in motion: The moving ossicles stimulate the oval window of the cochlea, setting the internal ear fluids in motion.Hearing receptors are stimulated: The moving fluid in the cochlea stimulates the auditory receptor cells or hair cells.Auditory cortex is stimulated: These receptors then convert the mechanical energy into electrical nerve impulses which are sent to the auditory cortex of the brain for sound perception.Learn more about sound transmission here:https://brainly.com/question/30763237
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A 10-month-old child has been brought into the emergency room (ER) by her parents, who state that after few days with low-grade fever, malaise, and rhinorrhea, their child presented with a "barking" cough and increased work of breathing. What condition is this child likely exhibiting?
Answer:
Laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB)
Explanation:
Laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB) can be described as a type of infection of the respiratory tract which is caused by a virus. Due to this, swelling inside the trachea occurs in children which leads to the symptoms associated with barking. Heavy cough and strained voice are characterized in this condition. Fever and flu are also common in this condition.
Hence, we can see that the child represents all the symptoms of Laryngotracheobronchitis.
Which of the following is true of the thermic effect of food (TEF)? Group of answer choices The amount of energy associated with TEF is independent of the amount of food consumed. Fatty foods have higher TEFs than high-protein foods. TEF is estimated to be about 50–75 percent of total energy intake. TEF is the cost associated with the body's utilization of the foods a person eats.
Answer: TEF is the cost associated with the body’s utilization of the foods a person needs,
Explanation:
The thermic effect of food, is the energy needed for digestion, absorption and removal of waste product of metabolism.That is the value of energy spent which is above the basal metabolic rate from the cost of utilization of the food by the body,
It is highest in protein, lowest in fat,about 10% of total energy intake,it varies with the type of food consumed.
Therefore the correct answer is ;TEF is the cost associated with the body’s utilization of the foods a person needs,
Hydration status can be determined by paying attention to various indicators. Read the statements below and select the correct statements regarding how to assess hydration. Select all that apply.a. Weighing the body before and after exercise can be used to detect overhydration and dehydration.b. Reduced saliva production can be an indicator of dehydration.c. Dark urine can be an indicator of water imbalance.d. None of these
Final answer:
To assess hydration status, weighing before and after exercise, monitoring saliva production, and observing the color of urine are effective indicators. Physical changes in the body as a response to dehydration trigger thirst and involve ADH in regulating kidney function.
Explanation:
When it comes to assessing hydration status, certain indicators can provide valuable information. The correct statements regarding how to assess hydration status are:
Weighing the body before and after exercise can be used to detect overhydration and dehydration due to changes in body water content.Reduced saliva production can be an indicator of dehydration, signaling a decrease in serous output and an increase in thicker mucus, resulting in a dry mouth sensation.Dark urine can be an indicator of a water imbalance, as the kidneys concentrate or dilute urine based on the body's hydration levels.These methods are part of a broader understanding of dehydration and hydration management. Dehydration occurs when water loss exceeds intake and is signalled by physiological responses such as increased blood osmolality, which triggers the thirst response. Also, the antidiuretic hormone (ADH) plays an essential role in the regulation of body water levels by signaling the kidneys to recover water from urine.
The correct options are : a. Weighing the body before and after exercise can be used to detect overhydration and dehydration. b. Reduced saliva production can be an indicator of dehydration. c. Dark urine can be an indicator of water imbalance.
a. Weighing the body before and after exercise can indeed be used to detect changes in hydration status. A decrease in body weight post-exercise suggests a loss of fluids, indicating dehydration. Conversely, an increase in body weight could suggest overhydration, especially if the weight gain is rapid and significant.
b. Saliva production is dependent on adequate hydration. When the body is dehydrated, one of the first responses is to conserve water, which can lead to reduced saliva production, resulting in a sensation of dry mouth.
c. Urine color is a common indicator of hydration status. Dark urine often indicates a concentrated urine due to less water being available to dilute the waste products, which can be a sign of dehydration. Conversely, very light or clear urine can be a sign of adequate hydration or even overhydration.
Option d, None of these, is incorrect because it negates the validity of the other statements, which are accurate indicators of hydration status.
3.
what's the definition for Psychosomatic response
Any cause of stress
Reaction an individual may go through after a loss
state of calm
Physical reaction that results from stress
A Psychosomatic response is a physical reaction produced by the body in response to stress or emotional factors. It is legit and can lead to serious health consequences if not recognized and treated properly.
Explanation:The definition for Psychosomatic response is a physical reaction that an individual experiences as a result of stress or emotional upset. This term is derived from the words 'psyche' meaning mind, and 'soma' meaning body, underlining the connection between these two aspects. For instance, stress might manifest as a psychosomatic response in the form of headaches, upset stomach, or even more serious conditions like heart disease. It's important to remember that even though these symptoms are often triggered or worsened by emotional factors, they are real and can have serious health consequences if not addressed.
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Diabetes mellitus is the ______ leading cause of death and a major cause of disability in the United States.
a. first
b. second
c. fourth
d. seventh
Answer:
D. Seventh.
Explanation:
In 2015, 30.3 million Americans, or 9.4% of the population, had diabetes.
Approximately 1.25 million American children and adults have type 1 diabetes.
Undiagnosed: Of the 30.3 million adults with diabetes, 23.1 million were diagnosed, and 7.2 million were undiagnosed.
Prevalence in seniors: The percentage of Americans age 65 and older remains high, at 25.2%, or 12.0 million seniors (diagnosed and undiagnosed).
New cases: 1.5 million Americans are diagnosed with diabetes every year.
Prediabetes: In 2015, 84.1 million Americans age 18 and older had prediabetes.
Deaths: Diabetes remains the 7th leading cause of death in the United States in 2015, with 79,535 death certificates listing it as the underlying cause of death, and a total of 252,806 death certificates listing diabetes as an underlying or contributing cause of death.
What type of study compares self-reports of physical activity with rates of illness and mortality?
Answer:
Epidemiologic study (analytics)
Explanation:
Epidemiologic study is a study that focuses on the occurrence of a phenomenon in a representative population or sample. It is based on observation of facts and their variations.
DESCRIPTIVE: analyzes the distribution of the phenomenon as a function of time, place and the characteristics of people through it to identify possible risk factors and its origin and mode of propagation. It raises hypotheses.
ANALYTICS: seeks to identify the relationship between the phenomenon and various factors or conditions to which it may be attributed behavior and distribution. Tests hypotheses of causal relationship between exposure factors and events.
A chemical substance can travel from lungs to the brain in __________.a. five to eight seconds b. about a minute and a half c. about the same time as when injected sub-Q d. one-half second or less
Answer:
Five to eight second.
Explanation:
The living organisms are made of the chemical. The hormone, receptors and any information that travels in the body are mainly depends on the chemical substances present in the body.
Chemical substance needs to be travel in the body whenever its require. The speed of the chemical substance depends upon its nature whether the substance is polar or non polar and at the site in which the substance is released. The chemical that travels from the lungs to the brain can travel maximum into 5 to 8 seconds.
Thus, the correct answer is option (a).
To reduce the risk of neural tube birth defects in infants, the mother-to-be should consume adequate amounts of __________ prior to conception.
Answer:
Folic acid.
Explanation:
Vitamins are the important chemicals compounds required in the body in the adequate small amount. Their deficiency in the individual might cause a characteristics disease.
The proper vitamins and diet supplements are necessary for the pregnant woman. Their deficiency can cause abnormal development of the offspring. The folic acid is a type of the vitamin B and its deficiency may be responsible for the neural tube defects in the child.
Thus, the answer is folic acid.
The physically inactive person should train around the ______ intensity during the first weeks of training.
Answer:
The correct answer is - 30 to 40 minutes.
Explanation:
A physical inactive person is a person who is not getting enough physical inactive as per recommended level. This type of person is needed to have extra intense physical exercise with aerobic exercise.
The American Heart Association recommends to the physically inactive person to train around 30 to 40 minutes of intense thrice or four times for the first weeks of training. It helps in developing cardiovascular health in an individual.
Thus, the correct answer is - 30 to 40 minutes.
A client on a psychiatric unit who has been hearing voices is receiving a neuroleptic medication for the first time. The client takes the cup of water and the pill and stares at them. What is the most therapeutic statement the nurse can make?
1 "You have to take your medicine."2 "This is the medication that your doctor ordered."3 "This will help you not to hear the voices. It will only work if you take it."4 "There must be a reason that you don't want to take your medicine."
Answer:
3. "This will help you not to hear the voices. It will only work if you take it" Will be the most therapeutic statement made by the nurse to the client in the psychiatric unit.
Explanation:
A psychiatric patient hears voices or has auditory verbal hallucinations due to psychotic disorders like schizophrenia, bipolar disorder etc. Patients with psychosis tend to hear voices which are not real but can either talk to them or command them to do something, mostly harmful things.
Neuroleptic medications are antipsychotics which help to treat psychotic disorders. Hence in order to treat the auditory hallucinatory symptoms and treat the client from hearing voices, the client should take the pill.
Final answer:
The most therapeutic response to a client hesitant to take their first dose of neuroleptic medication is to explain how the medication can help alleviate their symptoms and encourage them to take it.
Explanation:
When a client on a psychiatric unit who has been hearing voices is receiving a neuroleptic medication for the first time and hesitates to take it, the most therapeutic response would be option 3: "This will help you not to hear the voices. It will only work if you take it." This statement is supportive, informative, and directly addresses the client's symptoms, providing a clear rationale for taking the medication which aligns with the client's likely desire to alleviate their symptoms. It's also couched in positive terms, which can help motivate the client to take action in their treatment.
Why is acute pain said to be protective in nature?
A) It enables the person to increase personal strength.
B) It warns an individual of tissue damage or disease.
C) As a subjective experience, it serves no purpose.
D) As an objective experience, it aids diagnosis.
Answer: D) As an objective experience, it aids diagnosis.
Explanation:
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Acute pain is said to be protective in nature because it warns an individual of tissue damage or disease.
Carlos has a family history of premature heart disease and stroke. To lower his risk of cardiovascular disease, Carlos should:______A) Increase his intake of trans fat.B) Take medication to increase his blood pressure.C) Stop smoking sigrats.D) Increase his intake of vitamin k.
Answer: C. Stop Cigarette Smoking
Explanation:
Cigarette smoking is a risk factor for cardiovascular diseases and stroke and for the fact that there is a family history of heart disease and stroke, it means that smoking cigarettes is going to raise the possibility of coming down with heart diseases and stroke therefore cessation of cigarette smoking will be key in lowering his risk of coming down with those diseases.
As regards other options, increase in fat intake is a direct risk factor for atherosclerosis which can lead to heart diseases and stroke.
Taking medication that can increase his blood pressure will be entirely negative to his health and increased intake of vitamin k really has nothing to do with health conditions in question
Which of the following foods or drinks would be best to consume immediately following exercise such as resistance training
a) fiber-rich carbohydrates, such as whole-grain bread, and legumes and other vegetables
b) simple carbohydrates, such as sports drinks, fruit, and yogurt
c) lean proteins, such as lean meats, poultry, fish, and legumes
d) None of these
Answer:
The correct option is B) simple carbohydrates, such as sports drinks, fruit, and yogurt
Explanation:
Our body stores carbohydrates in the form of glycogen. During exercise sessions, the glycogen stored is converted into glucose. Glucose is the main energy source of the body and is used to produce ATP by cellular respiration.
After exercise,the glycogen storage in the body gets lowered. Hence, to store carbohydrates in the form of glycogen we need to intake simple carbohydrates such as a sports drinks, fruits etc to compensate.
Kayla's therapist first taught her mindfulness meditation so she could focus on the present. Then, Kayla and her therapist talked about events in Kayla's past that led to her current problems. Now her therapist is teaching her to have self-respect and to think for herself. Kayla is probably being treated for ___________.a. borderline personality disorder.
b. depression.
c. antisocial personality disorder.
d. OCD.
Answer:
I would say the correct answer is B. depression.
When you have depression, it's hard to focus and stay present since you're so wrapped up in your thoughts. In addition, depression is very related to self care and self respect, which is why Kayla is working on self-respect with her therapist.
Sorry it's a bit late, but I hope this helps.
You have an infected cut on your hand that is swollen and red. You: a. Wash hands, put on a clean bandage, and cover it with a glove b. Wash your hands and continue working with the food c. Use an antiseptic and put on a glove over the infected cut Leave it alone. d. It will heal better on its own without a bandage
Answer: the correct option is C (Use an antiseptic and put on a glove over the infected cut Leave it alone).
Explanation: An antiseptic is antimicrobial substance that are applied to living tissue/skin to reduce the possibility of infection.
Therefore if you have an infected cut on your hand that is swollen and red. You use an antiseptic and put on a glove over the infected cut .
Answer: the answer is A
Explanation: With an infected cut, you will have to wash your hands first, put on a clean bandage and cover with gloves so your food does not get contaminated and your wound does not get re-infected. when you are through, you can visit your doctor for proper treatment and dressing.
The position of surgeon general does not in itself carry much direct line authority, but it became very visible in the 1980s when which of the following spoke out with great courage and moral authority on the politically controversial subjects of AIDS and tobacco?
Answer:
Surgeon General, Everett Koop.
Explanation:
Surgeon general was something like a '' family doctor '' or '' nation's doctor '' back in the days. When it comes to this specific person, he was very famous and crucial in the certain era. He was also a pediatric and public health administrator. He was born in 1916 and he died in 2013. He was known to be very much against smoking and his father was the first person ever to quit it because of him. He also dedicated biggest part of his life in helping people who were suffering from AIDS.