Answer:
Phytochemicals
Explanation:
Phytochemicals are chemical compounds produced by plants, generally to help them thrive or thwart competitors, predators, or pathogens. The name comes from Greek φυτόν (phyton), meaning 'plant'. Some phytochemicals have been used as poisons and others as traditional medicine.
Elimination of alcohol from the system is accelerated by exercise,fresh air, cold showers or drinking coffee.a) trueb) false
What is the best method for assuring accurate diagnostic test results? Which level of law mandates sewage treatment?
Answer:
Explanation:
The Standard And Custom diagnostic test, providesthe solution, highest quality, most competitive price and fast delivery.
Healthcare workers and the general public are protected from the spread of infectious disease by treating specimens as biological hazards. By following the test standard operating procedures. The basic national standard for U.S. municipal treatment plants is the Secondary Treatment Regulation. The collection and treatment of domestic sewage and wastewater is vital to public health and clean water. It is among the most important factors responsible for the general level of good health enjoyed in the United States. Sewers collect sewage and wastewater from homes, businesses, and industries and deliver it to wastewater treatment facilities before it is discharged to water bodies or land, or reused.
Which of the following pieces of equipment is acceptable for use in the prehospital stabilization of suspected cervical spine injuries?
A. 2 double prime′′ times ×4 double prime′′ wood cribbing
B. Soft cervical collars
C. Five-pound sand bags
D. Rigid cervical collars
Answer:
Rigid cervical collars
Explanation:
Rigid cervical collars
it is provided to have better stability to the one suffering from trauma and regarded as precautionary measure. As the name suggest it is composed of tough material which is the only reason for providing better stability by preventing neck movement.
It is provided when patients suffer from various and serious neck injury.
Answer:
D. Rigid cervical collars
Explanation:
A hard cervical collar is used for spine problems or injuries. It limits forward and backward movement more than a soft one does.
The spherical compounds made up of bile and phospholipids that transport dietary fat into the intestinal mucosal cells are the.
Answer:
Micelle
Explanation:
Micelle are lipids which are arranged in spherical form in an aqueous solution, and they possess both hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions.
They aid the body in the absorption of molecules that are insoluble in water like lipids and fat soluble vitamins. They also help in the transportation of fat soluble vitamins, complex lipids, to the small intestine.
Final answer:
The compounds made of bile and phospholipids that transport dietary fat are called micelles. These micelles facilitate the absorption of fats by forming chylomicrons in the intestinal mucosal cells, which then enter the lymphatic system and bloodstream.
Explanation:
The spherical compounds made up of bile and phospholipids that transport dietary fat into the intestinal mucosal cells are called micelles. These micelles are critical in the process of fat digestion and absorption. They have a hydrophilic (water-attracting) outer surface and a hydrophobic (water-repelling) core where the lipids are carried. The bile salts and phospholipids make up the outer surface, preparing the fats to be absorbed into the enterocytes of the intestinal lining.
Once the micelles reach the absorptive cells of the small intestine, the lipids they are carrying - which include long-chain fatty acids and monoglycerides - diffuse out of the micelles and enter the enterocytes. Here, the lipids reassemble into triglycerides and form chylomicrons, which are large lipoprotein particles. Chylomicrons are then released into the lymphatic system and eventually the bloodstream to be used by the body.
Which of the following is most likely NOT a symptom of acylcarnitine translocase deficiency? A. Hyperglycemia. B. Muscle weakness. C. Liver damage. D. High ammonia levels in blood.
Answer:
A. Hyperglycemia is the correct answer
Explanation:
Acylcarnitine translocase deficiency is the disorder in which the body is not able to break fatty acids into energy and due to this too much unused, fatty acids get build in the body.
Symptoms of Acylcarnitine translocase deficiency are
feverblood sugar level gets lowweakness in musclebreathing problemdiarrheaVomitingDue to acylcarnitine translocase deficiency, blood sugar level gets low known as hypoglycemia whereas Hyperglycemia means that sugar levels get high in the blood which is not a symptom of acylcarnitine translocase deficiency.Litigation resulting from improper restraint use is a common nursing legal issue. A nursing student is listing points related to the use of restraints. Which factor needs correction?
1
Restraints can be used when less restrictive interventions are not successful.
2
Restraints can be used when all other alternatives have been tried and exhausted.
3
Restraints can be used only to ensure the physical safety of the resident or other residents.
4
Restraints can be used anytime without a written order from the healthcare provider.
Answer:
Restraints can be used anytime without a written order from the healthcare provider.
Explanation:
Medical restraints may be defined as a type of the physical restraints that are used during the medical procedures. This is mainly done to restraint the patient to provide minimum pain and discomfort.
Restraints can only be used on the written statement of the health care providers. This can also be used when low restrictive interventions are unsuccessful. If all other options cannot be used then restraints are used. This only provides the physical safety.
Thus, the correct answer is option (4).
The muscarinic1 and muscarinic3 of the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) are similar in function.
Which are the functions of these two receptors?
Answer:
Muscarinic receptors 1 and 3 are coupled to Gq protein, excitatory subnunit, which increase intracellular calcium, promoting: contraction of the sphincter muscle of the iris, increased intestinal motility, bronchoconstriction, increase secretion of histamine in stomach.
Explanation:
In the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS), the acting neurotransmitter is acetylcholine (Ach). Ach acts on two types of receptors: nicotinic receptors and muscarinic receptors. When Ach is released into the synaptic cleft, it then binds to a particular receptor and then performs its actions.
Muscarinic receptors (M) are coupled to G protein. We have several muscarinic receptors, from 1 to 7. M 1, 3 and 5, the odd ones, are coupled to the Gq protein, an excitatory subunit, which activates a cascade, leading to increased intracellular calcium. M 2 and 4, the pairs receptors, are coupled to the Gi protein, an inhibitory subunit, as it increases the potassium permeability.
These receptors have different locations: M1 is located in the central nervous system, gastric parietal cells and autonomic ganglia; M2 is located in the heart, and does presynaptic modulation of neurotransmitter release, as I said earlier; M3 located in smooth muscle and glands; M4 located in the central nervous system; and M5 also in the central nervous system.
A visible effect of Ach's action on an M3 receptor occurs in the eyeball, especially in the sphincter muscle of the iris. M3 is an excitatory receptor and, when activated by Ach, promotes contraction of the sphincter muscle of the iris, leading to shrinkage of the pupil, a process known as miosis. Another effect also on the eyeball, and by Ach's action on M3, is increased tear secretion, as the parasympathetic stimulates secretion of our glands, and the tear gland is not left out.
Acetylcholine is released, binds to the gastrointestinal system M3 receptor, and promotes increased intestinal motility as well as increased intestinal secretions, which is of paramount importance for digestion.
The bronchi, by parasympathetic action in M3, contract, thus promoting bronchoconstriction.
By acting in M1, Ach increase the secretion of histamine in stomach.
.
____________ refers to placing demands on the body systematically and progressively over time to cause physiologic adaptation.
Answer:
Overload.
Explanation:
Overload may be defined as the second most important principle that main aim is to improve the physical fitness of the individual. Overload improves the strength of the individual.
Different muscles are involved in the process of overload. Overload can be achieved by lifting the heavier objects for few time. The stress on the muscle is applied during the overload. The continuous overload changes the physiologic adaptation of the body.
Thus, the answer is overload.
What term refers to a group of compounds including triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols?Select one:
a. Polysaccharidesb. Mineralsc. Nucleic acidsd. Lipids
Answer:
The answer is D- Lipids.
Explanation:
Lipids are a group of compounds which are insoluble in water. However, they are soluble in alcohol. They are very important copmonents of living cells and are easily stored in the body. They serve as a source of fuel and form important constituents for cell structure.
An important concept within a healthcare organization involves joining two or more healthcare professionals to work on achieving similar goals within a change initiative. This concept is a complex and dynamic process in healthcare and it is known as
Answer:
Collaboration
Explanation:
An important concept within a healthcare organization involves joining two or more healthcare professionals to work on achieving similar goals within a change initiative. This concept is a complex and dynamic process in healthcare and it is known as collaboration.
Which of the following trauma triage criteria would justify transportation to a trauma center based on mechanism of injury alone
Answer:
D. Auto versus pedestrian
Explanation:
Pedestrians are those that use the walk way of the road.
Trauma triage criteria based on mechanism of injury include blunt force, sharp force, projectile, and thermal trauma. These categories help determine the need for transportation to a trauma center. Proper identification of the mechanism is crucial for appropriate and timely medical intervention.
In general, the four categories of trauma mechanisms that would justify such transportation include:
Blunt force: Typically results from a collision, such as those seen in car accidents or falls, leading to significant internal injuries.Sharp force: Involves injuries from objects like knives, which can cause deep lacerations and penetrate critical organs.Projectile trauma: Results from high-velocity impacts, such as gunshot wounds, which can cause severe internal damage.Thermal (burning): Involves injuries from high temperatures, such as burns, which can destroy skin and underlying tissues.Understanding these categories helps in the rapid assessment and decision-making critical for the timely transport of trauma patients to specialized care centers, where they can receive appropriate and potentially life-saving treatment.The correct question is
Which of the following trauma triage criteria would justify transportation to a trauma center based
on mechanism of injury alone?
O Auto versus pedestrian
O Vehicle rollover
Vehicle crash-generated telemetry data
Intrusion into the occupant area greater than 8 inches.
Which of the following cranial nerves are associated with eye movement?
1) Olfactory (I)
2) Optic (II)
3) Oculomotor (III)
4) Trochlear (IV)
5) Trigeminal (V)
6) Abducens (VI)
7) Facial (VII)
8) Vestibulocochlear (VIII)
9) Glossopharyngeal (IX)
10) Vagus (X)
11) Accessory (XI)
12) Hypoglossal (XII)
The cranial nerves that are associated with eye movement are:
Oculomotor nerveTrochlear nerveAbducens nervesThe cranium is composed of cranial bones that encircle, protect, and support the brain and the other head region. It is composed of nerves called the cranial nerves that perform various activities such as signaling and responding to stimuli in the head region.
From the given options, the cranial nerves that are associated with eye movement are:
Oculomotor nerve: They help to supply muscles around the eyeball needed for movement, position, and constriction of the eye.Trochlear nerve: They allow the movement of eyes in an oblique direction towards the nasal region.Abducens nerves: These are somatic motor nerves responsible for eye movement.Learn more about cranial nerves here:
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Final answer:
The cranial nerves associated with eye movement are the oculomotor nerve (III), the trochlear nerve (IV), and the abducens nerve (VI), all of which have primarily motor functions that control different extraocular muscles for complex eye movements.
Explanation:
The cranial nerves that are associated with eye movement are:
Oculomotor nerve (III) - This cranial nerve is responsible for controlling four of the extraocular muscles, also contributing to the lifting of the upper eyelid and pupillary constriction.
Trochlear nerve (IV) - It controls one of the extraocular muscles, the superior oblique muscle, which allows for the rotation of the eye.
Abducens nerve (VI) - This nerve controls the lateral rectus muscle, which abducts the eye, allowing it to move away from the midline.
These three cranial nerves are all primarily motor in function, meaning they control muscle movements necessary for eye positioning. Together, these nerves coordinate complex eye movements and allow our eyes to track moving objects, focus on different visual fields, and maintain binocular vision.
in countries with high rates of poverty and low levels of education there has been a significant increase in the number of young children who have died because of:__________
Answer: Lack of nutrition
Explanation:
There has been a significant increase in the death rate of the young ones because the children born lack nutrition.
The parents are not literate enough to get a good job and due to this reason the there is not enough nutrition provided to the children born.
The family is poor and cannot afford such food and nutrition that is required at such an age.
So, malnutrition is one of the main reason why the young ones died.
A pregnant client presents to the emergency department with vaginal bleeding. A transvaginal ultrasound is performed, and the health care provider informs the client that there are normal fetal heart tones noted. The client begins to tear-up and has a worried appearance. To facilitate therapeutic communication, what statement would the nurse make after observing the client’s nonverbal communication?
Answer:
I am evaluating the your nonverbal response to the findings.
Explanation:
The nurse should use therapeutic communication to address the woman's distress and help her understand what the ultrasound results mean. Guiding the discussion towards the fact that the ultrasound has shown normal fetal heart tones can reassure the patient and invite open communication.
Explanation:In the situation described, the nurse would utilize therapeutic communication strategies to reassess and alleviate the client's distress and increase her understanding of what has been found. An appropriate phrase might be:
"I can see that you're really upset. It's natural to be concerned when you experience issues during pregnancy like vaginal bleeding. However, the ultrasound has indicated that the fetal heart tones are normal. Normally, this is an encouraging sign. Do you want to discuss it further, or do you have any other specific concerns?"
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How does one deal with chronic migraines when they cannot afford ibuprofen?
Or get through a kidney infection without antibiotics?
Or deal with PTSD without medication?
Or a better question; why must we pay to stay alive?
Answer:
Explanation:
1. There are quite a few ways to deal with headaches when one cannot afford medicaments or simply doesn't want to take them into their system: lots and lots of water, magnesium, both pills and powder, they should limit their alcohol intake, they should use essential oils with certain notes and smells, get enough sleep, heating pads, they should use a cold pack, drinks some ginger juice or water, etc.
2. When it comes to kidney infection, it's always better to go and see the doctor. But, there are some tips how it can be healed at home, without medicaments and visits to the dr. Some of them are: cranberry juice, lots and lots of water, vitamin C, both pills and powder, alcohol and caffeine should be restricted, probiotics should be taken after each complex meal, epsom salt in the bath, apples, both in juices and raw, etc.
3. This topic is a bit complex as it has nothing to do with physical well being, but with mental. It's always better to go see a professional. If someone cannot afford it, or simply feels bad about confiding in a stranger, it's not the end of the world. First thing first, PTSD is not curable. It's something that a person learns to live with. On the other hand, it is something that we can deal with. A person should find a person they trust and love, and confide in them. Talk about every single thing that crosses their mind and never feel ashamed or bad.
4. It's a question that no one can answer. As the system was developing, some of the things and rules have been formed and there's nothing we can actually do about it. It's sad that wealthy people get to live thanks to their money, but not so wealthy ones, depend on someone and if they will help them. In some other world, parallel world, we are all happy and healthy.
Management of chronic health conditions like migraines, kidney infections, and PTSD could encompass both pharmacological and non-pharmacological interventions. When medications are unaffordable, alternatives might include lifestyle adjustments, stress management, and seeking help from low-cost health facilities. However, inaccessible healthcare costs point towards larger societal and policy issues.
Explanation:The subject matter discussed here pertains to managing chronic health conditions such as migraines, kidney infections, and PTSD, particularly when conventional medications like ibuprofen and antibiotics are out of reach due to cost constraints. This issue raises both medical and societal implications.
Regarding migraines, non-pharmacological interventions such as stress management, good sleep hygiene, physical activity, a healthy diet, and avoiding migraine triggers could help alleviate symptoms. As for kidney infections, it is risky to avoid antibiotics due to the potential for serious complications. It is recommended to seek help from local health clinics or charity hospitals that might provide help at low or no cost. For PTSD, alternative therapies like cognitive-behavioral therapy, meditation, and lifestyle adjustments can be beneficial. Ultimately, the inaccessible cost of health care, as noted in your last question, is an issue of social equity and health policy.
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As you use alcohol do the automatic functions of the body controlled by the brain like the heartbeat and breathing also become impaired?
Answer:
Yes they do become impaired
Explanation:
In your heart:
Alcohol acts as a vasodilator and causes the peripheral blood vessels to relax resulting in increased peripheral blood flow and in turn a drop in blood pressure. For the body to keep sufficient blood flow to organs, it increases the heart rate and breathing rate
In the brain:
The alcohol is absorbed in the bloodstream and goes to the nrain where it can cause impaired cognitive function which can cause deterioration in the long term
A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition?Select one:
A. Exacerbation of his COPDB. Acute pulmonary embolismC. Spontaneous pneumothoraxD. Rupture of the diaphragm
The most likely cause of the patient's condition, considering the given symptoms and his history of emphysema, is Spontaneous Pneumothorax. It is likely that a forceful cough caused air to leak into the space between the lung and chest wall, leading to a lung collapse.
Explanation:The MOST likely cause of the patient's condition, given the acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough, is C. Spontaneous pneumothorax. A person with emphysema has weakened lung tissues that are prone to rupture and can lead to a pneumothorax. This happens when air leaks into the space between your lung and chest wall, pushing on the outside of your lung and making it collapse. The symptoms outlined: barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia, are classic indications of a pneumothorax. Thus, in this case, it seems like an independent event was triggered by a forceful cough, causing the emphysema to worsen into a spontaneous pneumothorax.
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The most likely cause of the patient's condition is spontaneous pneumothorax. Symptoms align with the clinical features of a pneumothorax, and a forceful cough can exacerbate the condition. Immediate medical attention is essential as it can be life-threatening.
Explanation:The most likely cause of the patient's condition is spontaneous pneumothorax. Spontaneous pneumothorax occurs when there is an abnormal collection of air in the space between the lungs and the chest wall, leading to a collapsed lung. This condition is commonly seen in individuals with emphysema, as the damaged lung tissue is more susceptible to air leaks.
In this case, the patient's symptoms, such as worsening dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia, align with the clinical features of a pneumothorax. It is important to note that a forceful cough can result in increased pressure within the chest, potentially causing an exacerbation of a pneumothorax.
It is crucial for the patient to seek immediate medical attention as spontaneous pneumothorax can be a life-threatening condition. Treatment options may include chest tube placement or surgery.
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A nurse is auscultating the lung sounds of a client who came to the clinic for a physical exam.
The given question is incomplete. The complete question is as follows:
A nurse is auscultating the lung sounds of a client who came to the clinic for a physical exam. There is not any history of lung disease. What should the nurse expect to hear?
a. adventitious breath sounds
b. bronchial breath sounds
c. bronchovesicular breath sounds
d. vesicular breath sounds
Answer:
Bronchovesicular breath sounds .
Explanation:
The inspiration and expirations are equal, this denotes the normal sound in the posterior chest area or mid area of the chest. These sounds might gets disturbed in case of the lung disease.
The nurse should ausculates all the breath sounds from the side to side while moving from the upper chest area to the lower chest area. They must listen the sound laterally, posteriorly and anteriorly. If the normal breath sounds appear, this indicates the bronchovesicular sounds.
Thus, the correct answer is option (c).
Which of the following would not be an appropriate activity for the end of a workout?1. slow arm rotations2. power sprints3. jog around the block4. toe touches
Answer:
2. Power sprints
Explanation:
It is dangerous to attempt a high-energy requiring exercise such as sprinting at the end of a workout. The end of the workout is known as a cool down period, in this period, it is wise to exercise with the intent to stop.
It is usually the time to stretch muscles so they are not sore the next day.
Fetal heart rate tracing abnormalities are observed on the fetal monitor when a client in active labor turns to the supine position. Which nursing action is most beneficial at this time?
Answer:
Helping the client change her position
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that the most beneficial nursing action at this time would be to help the client change her position. This is because the main task required of the patient is to change to the supine position, but the patient may not know what that position is or may not be able to do so due to her pregnancy. Therefore the most useful nursing action would be to help.
The nurse is teaching a nursing student about the use of magnetic resonance imaging (MRIs). Which statement of the nursing student indicates effective learning?a. "Clients with claustrophobia can have an MRI."b. "Clients who are allergic to iodine should not have an MRI."c. "Clients with pacemakers can have an MRI."d. "Clients with surgical clips can go through an MRI."
Answer:
A) "Clients with claustrophobia can have an MRI."
Explanation:
Magnetic resonance imaging is the non-invasive technique developed to take the pictures of the human anatomy and the physiological structures. The MRI technology uses strong radio waves and a magnetic field to produce the detailed structure of the human body.
The MRI is not performed to the person who uses the medical electronic devices and surgical clips like pacemakers as they interfere with the magnetic resonance effect and put the patient to risk. The person who has to undergo remove the jewellery ans other metal objects like surgical clips. The MRI does not involve the iodized products so person allergic to iodine can have the MRI. The person who has fear of enclosed spaces or claustrophobia should consult the doctor as the doctor will suggest the nurse give relaxation modes to cope for the anxiety.Thus, option-A is the correct answer.
An obese client with a history of gout and a sedentary lifestyle has been advised by the primary health care provider to avoid organ meats, certain fish, and other foods that are high in purines. The care provider is demonstrating an awareness of the client's susceptibility to which type of kidney stones?
Answer:
Uric acid stones.
Explanation:
Kidney plays an important role in the process of excretion. The improper functioning of kidney can cause various renal diseases. The physiology of the body may get disturbed due to the kidney related problems.
Uric acid stones is the major type of stone that consists of deposited calcium stones in the body. The stone is the hard mass of the crystallized elements. The non veg diet and diets rich in calcium like spinach is highly avoided in the uric acid stones.
Thus, the correct answer is uric acid stones.
Why would the cdc recommend certain groups of people
Explanation:
Flu shots are usually recommended to people with delicate health. Influenza usually hits children that are usually 12 moths old or younger, older people, aged 65 and older. It hits people who are under constant stress due to work or personal life. Also, ones who suffered from any serious disease which weakened their immune system. It hits pregnant women, obese people, people who take too much medicament, and ones suffering from chronic diseases.
During aerobic exercise, the body relies on continuous __________ for energy production.
Answer:
Oxygen
Explanation:
Oxygen, a colorless, odorless, tasteless gas essential to living organisms, being taken up by animals, which convert it to carbon dioxide.
This generation is result oriented, tech savvy, able to multitask and value structure:
*tradionalist
*baby boomer
*generation X
*generation Y
Answer:
The correct answer is - generation Z ( so none of these).
Explanation:
Generation Z is the demographic group of people that show similar characteristics, succeeding the millennial. In this cohort, researchers include people that are born mid to late 1990 as the birth of years.
This generation shows behavior that is result-oriented and mostly dependent on digital work and tech-savvy and values the structure as well.
Thus, the correct answer is - generation Z.
Answer:
None of the answers is correct.
Explanation:
How have severe disability rate for premature infants changed between 1995 and 2006?
Answer:
This became possible because of advancement in medical technologies and proper facilities and social awareness.
Explanation:
This has became possible for several reasons like, proper care during the first week of life, i.e. giving warmth to the baby, infection reduction, better transportation facility to the specialized units. Steroids and surfactant treatment. Reducing the gestation period has also helped in reducing the disability earlier it was 26 weeks and in 2006 it has been reduced to 23 weeks. Awareness camps were conducted to make people aware of pros and cons needed to maintained and also about the social care.
About 20 percent of all children have difficulties that could be connected to behavioral teratogens.
True / False.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
About 20 percent of all children have difficulties that could be connected to behavioral teratogens, but it is hard to link the teratogens with the difficulties because the relation is not simple or direct.
First, it has to be determined if the brain or emotional problems that the kid has are due to behavioral teratogens or not, which can be hard since there are a lot of factors that can influence teratogens and affect the baby differently.
A 29-year-old pregnant woman has had severe vomiting for the last 2 days. Today, she is vomiting large amounts of blood. Her skin is cool and pale and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect: Select one:
A. esophagitis.
B. Mallory–Weiss tear.
C. acute pancreatitis.
D. esophageal varices.
Answer: B Mallory–Weiss tear
Explanation:
This result from tear in the mucus membrane or inner lining at the joining of the oesophagus with the stomach, leading to bleeding .
It results from prolong vomiting from prolonged use of alcohol or bulimia
Over Consumption of ______________ has the greatest potential for toxicityA) Vitamin DB) Vitamin CC) ThiaminD) Niacin
Answer:
C. Thaimin
Explanation:
A minimum daily dose of each thiamin is necessary to maintain good health. Significantly exceeding this dose, however, can cause illness. In general, the symptoms of vitamin toxicity include nausea, gastrointestinal problems like constipation and diarrhea, hair loss, rashes, and nerve damage.
Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) work in the body to lower blood pressure by which mechanism of action?
A. Blocking AT1 receptors, which prevent angiotensin from raising blood pressure
B. Blocking the formation of renin in the RAAS system
C. Blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
D. Inhibiting the stimulation of aldosterone secretion
Answer:
(The correct option is C) Blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
Explanation:
Angiotensin is known as a peptide. By the action of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) angiotensin I is transformed into angiotensin II in the blood.
Angiotensin receptor blockers help in the relaxation of arteries, and veins to lower the blood pressure, and making easy for the heart to pump blood. Drugs which helps to inhibit ACE, and block the conversion between angiotensin I, and angiotensin II are helping to lower the blood pressure in patience with hypertension.