Answer:
The amount of impairment loss should C&R recognize is $6,700,000
Explanation:
According to the given data we have that the book value of division's assets is $28.9 million and fair value of division’s assets is $22.2 million.
Therefore, in order to calculate the amount of impairment loss should C&R recognize we would have to use the following formula:
impairment loss=book value of division's assets - fair value of division’s assets
impairment loss=$28.9 million-$22.2 million
impairment loss=$6,700,000
The amount of impairment loss should C&R recognize is $6,700,000
Answer:
0
Explanation:
Since the estimated future cash flows generated from the division’s assets, $29.2 million, greater than book value of division’s assets, $28.9 million; Therefore no impairment loss should C&R recognize.
Kronos Inc., a car manufacturer, makes a car called Hover that runs on the force generated by super magnets. Kronos is the first company to use super-magnet technology in automobile manufacturing, aiming to reduce dependency on non-renewable fuels. If Kronos plans to release television advertisements about Hover, what kind of advertising objective should it pursue when introducing the new product into the market
Answer:
The objective is to build primary demand.
Explanation:
As Hover is introducing a car that has a new technology, it should use informative advertising because this type of advertising has a focus on the product information to influence potential customers and it is used when companies introduce a new product to inform people about the characteristics of it. According to this, the objective that Hover should pursue when introducing the new product into the market is to build primary demand as this is a new technology and Hover needs to create interest in this type of products by letting people know the features as it is the first company to use super-magnet technology in automobile manufacturing.
Burger Emporium Inc. is currently losing $100,000 per year on its Zhou Burger product line. The revenue from the Zhou Burger is $500,000 per year. The related variable costs are $300,000 and the fixed costs specific to the Zhou Burger operation are $300,000 per year. Burger Emporium Inc. is deciding whether or not they should drop their Zhou Burger line. They suspect $160,000 of the fixed costs will be avoidable if they drop the line. Assuming there are no opportunity costs, what should they do from a financial perspective
Answer:
The correct answer to the following question will be "keeping the product line since they would lose an extra $40000 if they dropped".
Explanation:
Keep Drop
Loss $100000 (given) -
Fixed asset loss - (300000-160000)
Loss $100000 140000
If dropped, so the $40000 damage would be included. Such that the correct approach is "keeping the product line since they would lose an extra $40000 if they dropped."
What actions do you think a multinational firm can take to limit the impact of future crises in the global financial system on the ability of the enterprise to raise capital to pay its short-term bills and fund longterm investments? Hill, Charles W. L.. International Business: Competing in the Global Marketplace (p. 623). McGraw-Hill Higher Education. Kindle Edition.
Answer:
A Multinational Company will bound the effect of upcoming disasters within the international economic system on the flexibility of the firm to lift investment to recompense its short-run expenses and fund long run funds in the subsequent methods:
Confirm that the corporate is cost-effective and collapse resistant by differentiating into artifact parts that are pledge diurnal to the most line of the corporation. Maybe, throughout the world money crisis, the upper education phase did well as variety of dismissed wished to upgrading their abilities or re-skill themselves. College conscription enlarged throughout the world money crisis. Expand geologically in terms of markets, provide foundations, plant positions and then on, so just in case sure economies are consuming inactive development, others will compose. Throughout the world money crisis, the expansion in China and Asian country failed to get exaggerated. Use obligation providentially so the corporate isn't over leveraged. Have a vigorous record and make sure that satisfactory money assets are there with the corporate to require care of adverse times. Be complex to tuned in to international economic circumstances and appearance for early cautionary marks of an at hand crisis.To shield itself from the impacts of global financial crises, a multinational firm can diversify capital sources, establish varied banking relationships, practice effective risk management, focus on sustainable investments, and advocate for regulatory changes to manage foreign capital flows.
Explanation:To mitigate the impact of future crises in the global financial system, a multinational firm can implement several strategies to ensure it can raise capital for short-term liquidity and long-term investments. Firstly, the firm can diversify its sources of capital, reducing reliance on any one economy or currency. This might involve maintaining liquidity reserves in multiple currencies or investing in a range of financial instruments. Secondly, establishing strong relationships with multiple banks and investors can provide more options when access to capital becomes constrained. Thirdly, the firm should engage in thorough risk management practices, such as stress testing scenarios to understand potential impacts on capital accessibility.
Another approach is to focus on sustainable investments and long-term projects that might be more attractive to investors who have a medium to long-term focus, thus potentially avoiding the pitfalls of speculative short-term inflows. Furthermore, the firm can take a proactive role in advocating for regulatory changes to manage and direct foreign capital flows, seeking to limit speculative investment and favor more stable and committed capital investments.
Use the cost and revenue data to answer the questions. Quantity Price Total Revenue Total Cost 15 90 1350 900 30 80 2400 1500 45 70 3150 2250 60 60 3600 3150 75 50 3750 4200 90 40 3600 5400 What is marginal revenue when quantity is 30 ? 30? $ What is marginal cost when quantity is 60 ? 60? $ If this firm is a monopoly, at what quantity will profit be maximized? quantity: If this is a perfectly competitive market, which quantity will be produced? quantity: Comparing monopoly to perfect competition, which statement is true? The perfectly competitive market's ouput is lower. The consumer surplus is smaller with a monopoly. The monopoly's price is higher.
Answer:
What is marginal revenue when quantity is 30 ? 30?
$70= ($2,400 - $1,350) / (30 - 15) = $900 / 15 = $70
What is marginal cost when quantity is 60 ? 60?
$60= ($3,150 - $2,250) / (60 - 45) = $900 / 15 = $60
If this firm is a monopoly, at what quantity will profit be maximized?
quantity: 45 unitsa monopoly maximizes its accounting profit when marginal revenue = marginal cost, in this case they both equal $50 per unit when total output is 45 units
If this is a perfectly competitive market, which quantity will be produced?
quantity: 45 unitsa perfectly competitive firm maximizes its accounting profit when marginal revenue = marginal cost, in this case they both equal $50 per unit when total output is 45 units
Comparing monopoly to perfect competition, which statement is true?
The consumer surplus is smaller with a monopoly. The monopoly's price is higher.In a monopoly, output is smaller than the perfectly competitive output. The price charged by a monopolist is also higher. This also results in lower consumer surplus with a monopoly.
Explanation:
Quantity Price Total Revenue Total Cost
15 90 1350 900
30 80 2400 1500
45 70 3150 2250
60 60 3600 3150
75 50 3750 4200
90 40 3600 5400
The marginal revenue is $70, when the quantity is 30.
The marginal cost is $60 when quantity is 60.
If this firm is a monopoly, at 450units the profit will be maximized.
In perfect competition, a firm produces where price and marginal cost both are equal. Both price and marginal cost are equal at 60 units. Comparing monopoly to perfect competition, the monopoly's price is higher. Thus, the first option is correct.
A financial ratio called the marginal revenue (MR)formula estimates the change in total revenue brought on by the sale of more goods or units. It typically slows down as output levels rise and is observed to follow the rule of diminishing returns. It is frequently shown as a graph with a declining slope.
Marginal revenue at 30 units of quantity:
= Change in Total Revenue / Change in Quantity
2400 - 1350 / 30 - 15
= $70
Marginal cost at 60 units of quantity:
= Change in Total Cost / Change in Quantity
= 3150 - 2250 / 60 - 45
= $60
If the firm is a monopoly then marginal profit will be zero at 45 units. If marginal revenue and marginal cost both are equal then marginal profit can be zero
In perfect competition, a firm produces where price and marginal cost both are equal. Both price and marginal cost are equal at 60 units
Comparing monopoly to perfect competition, the monopoly's price is higher .As in monopoly, the price at 45 units is $70 and in perfect competition, the price at 60 units is $60.
A table is attached for reference.
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Many academic institutions offer a sabbatical policy. Every seventh year a professor is given a year free of teaching and other administrative responsibilities at full pay. For a professor earning $70,000 per year who works for a total of 42 years, what is the present value of the amount she will earn while on sabbatical if the interest rate is 6% (EAR)? Note: Assume that the sabbatical annual salary is paid in one lump sum every 7 years.
Final answer:
The present value of the amount a professor will earn while on sabbatical is $266,996.60.
Explanation:
To calculate the present value of the amount a professor will earn while on sabbatical, we can use the formula for present value of a future sum of money. The formula is:
PV = FV / (1 + r)^n
Where PV is the present value, FV is the future value, r is the interest rate, and n is the number of years.
In this case, the professor earns $70,000 per year and will work for 42 years. The sabbatical salary is paid in one lump sum every 7 years. So, the number of payments is 42 / 7 = 6.
Using the formula, the future value of the sabbatical salary is $70,000 * 6 = $420,000. The interest rate is 6% (EAR), so r = 0.06. And the number of years is 6.
Substituting the values into the formula, we have:
PV = $420,000 / (1 + 0.06)₆ = $266,996.60
Therefore, the present value of the amount the professor will earn while on sabbatical is $266,996.60.
The present value of the amount the professor will earn while on sabbatical is approximately $175,607.76
To solve this problem, we need to calculate the present value of the sabbatical earnings for a professor who works for a total of 42 years and receives a sabbatical every seventh year. The professor's annual salary is $70,000, and the interest rate is 6% (EAR).
First, we determine how many sabbaticals the professor will receive over the 42-year period. Since the professor receives a sabbatical every seventh year, we divide the total number of years worked by 7:[tex]\[ \text{Number of sabbaticals} = \frac{42}{7} = 6 \][/tex]
Next, we calculate the future value of the sabbatical salary received every seventh year. Since the salary is paid in one lump sum at the end of each sabbatical period, we can use the formula for the future value of a lump sum:
[tex]\[ FV = PV \times (1 + r)^n \][/tex]
where [tex]\( FV \)[/tex] is the future value, [tex]\( PV \)[/tex] is the present value (in this case, the sabbatical salary of $70,000), [tex]\( r \)[/tex] is the interest rate per period, and [tex]\( n \)[/tex] is the number of periods.
However, since the sabbatical salary is received at the end of each sabbatical period, we need to find the present value of each sabbatical salary. The formula for the present value of a lump sum received in the future is:
[tex]\[ PV = \frac{FV}{(1 + r)^n} \][/tex]
For each sabbatical, the number of periods \( n \) will be 7 years, and the interest rate \( r \) is 6% per year. We calculate the present value for each sabbatical and then sum them up to get the total present value of all sabbaticals:
[tex]\[ PV_{\text{total}} = \sum_{i=1}^{6} \frac{70000}{(1 + 0.06)^{7i}} \][/tex]
Now, we calculate the present value for each sabbatical and sum them up:
[tex]\[ PV_{\text{total}} = \frac{70000}{(1 + 0.06)^7} + \frac{70000}{(1 + 0.06)^{14}} + \frac{70000}{(1 + 0.06)^{21}} + \frac{70000}{(1 + 0.06)^{28}} + \frac{70000}{(1 + 0.06)^{35}} + \frac{70000}{(1 + 0.06)^{42}} \]\\[/tex]
After calculating the above expression, we get the total present value of the sabbatical earnings.
Using the given interest rate of 6%, the present value of the sabbatical earnings over the 42-year period is approximately $175,607.76. This is the amount that, if invested today at an annual interest rate of 6%, would grow to be enough to cover the sabbatical salaries paid out every seventh year over the professor's 42-year career.
A company will pay a $2 per share dividend in 1 year. The dividend in 2 years will be $4 per share, and it is expected that dividends will grow at %5 per year thereafter. The expected rate of return on the stock is 12%.
a) What is the expected price of the stock in a year?
b) Show that the expected return, 12%, equals dividend yield plus capital appreciation.
Answer:
(a) = 57.14
(b) Shown below
Explanation:
According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follow:-
Expected Rate of Return(R) = 12%
Growth Rate(g) = 5%
P2 = Div. Per Share × (1+g) ÷ (R-g)
P2 = 4 × 1.05 ÷ (0.12 - 0.05) = 60
One Year Stock’s Expected Price = Div. Per Share ÷ (1+R)t + P2 / (1+R)t
a). Expected price (P1) = 4 ÷ (1+0.12)1 + 60 ÷ (1+0.12)1
= 3.57 + 53.57
= 57.14
b).
One Year Dividend (P0) = 2 ÷ (0+0.12) + 4 ÷ (1+0.12)2 + 60÷(1+0.12)2
= 1.79 + 3.19 + 47.83
= 52.81
Dividend Yield Plus Capital Appreciation= Share Dividend in One Year ÷ Current Price Per Share
= 2 ÷ 52.81 = 0.0379 or 3.79%
Capital Gain = ( P1 - P0 ) ÷ P0
= ( 57.14 - 52.81) ÷ 52.81
= 0.0820 or 8.20%
Total = Dividend Yield Plus Capital Appreciation + Capital Gain
= 3.79% + 8.20%
= 11.99% or 12%
On December 31, 2017, the Bennett Company had 105,000 shares of common stock issued and outstanding. On July 1, 2018, the company sold 21,000 additional shares for cash. Bennett's net income for the year ended December 31, 2018, was $590,000. During 2018, Bennett declared and paid $85,000 in cash dividends on its nonconvertible preferred stock. What is the 2018 basic earnings per share?
Answer:
$5.84
Explanation:
The calculation of basic earnings per share is shown below:-
Earnings available for equity share holders = Net income- Preference dividend
= $590,000 + $85,000
= $675,000
Equivalent shares outstanding = Common stock share + (Additional shares × From July to Dec 31 months)
= 105,000 + (21,000 × 6 ÷ 12)
= 105,000 + 10,500
= 115,500
So, Basic earning per share = Earnings available for equity share holders ÷ Equivalent shares outstanding
= $675,000 ÷ 115,500
= $5.84
Therefore for computing the basic earning per share we simply applied the above formula.
was organized on January 1, 2021. The firm was authorized to issue 170,000 shares of $5 par value common stock. During 2021, Ginger Hardware had the following transactions relating to stockholders' equity: Issued 51,000 shares of common stock at $7 per share. Issued 34,000 shares of common stock at $8 per share. Reported a net income of $170,000. Paid dividends of $85,000. What is total paid-in capital at the end of 2021
Answer:
Balance sheet extract as at 31st December,2021
Common stock($255,000+$155,000) $410,000
Paid in capital in excess of par($102,000+$93000) $195,000
Total paid in capital $605,000
Retained earnings($170,000-$85,000) $85,000
Shareholders equity $690,000
Explanation:
The issue of 51,000 shares issue would result in cash proceeds of $357,000 with $255,000 recorded in Common stock account and the balance of $102,000 shown in paid-in capital in excess of par.
The issuance of 34,000 shares would increase cash account by $248,000 while the common stock account and paid-in capital in excess of par would witness increase of $155,000 and $93,000 respectively.
The net income would be reduced by the amount of dividends declared .
n 2018, Warehouse 13 had net credit sales of $750,000. On January 1, 2018, Allowance for Doubtful Accounts had a credit balance of $16,000. During 2018, $29,000 of uncollectible accounts receivable were written off. Past experience indicates that the allowance should be 10% of the balance in receivables (percentage of receivable basis). If the accounts receivable balance at December 31 was $150,000, what is the required adjustment to the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts at December 31, 2018
Answer:
$28,000
Explanation:
When a company makes sales on account, debit accounts receivable and credit sales. Based on assessment, some or all of the receivables may be uncollectible.
To account for this, debit bad debit expense and credit allowance for doubtful debt. Should the debt become uncollectible (i.e go bad), debit allowance for doubtful debt and credit accounts receivable.
Given that Past experience indicates that the allowance should be 10% of the balance in receivables
Allowance = 10% * $150,000
= $15,000
Since during 2018, $29,000 of uncollectible accounts receivable were written off
Balance in allowance account before adjustment
= $29,000 - $16,000
= $13,000 (Debit)
Required adjustment for Doubtful Accounts at December 31, 2018
= $13,000 + $15,000
= $28,000
Lance Brothers Enterprises acquired $755,000 of 4% bonds, dated July 1, on July 1, 2021, as a long-term investment. Management has the positive intent and ability to hold the bonds until maturity. The market interest rate (yield) was 5% for bonds of similar risk and maturity. Lance Brothers paid $675,000 for the investment in bonds and will receive interest semiannually on June 30 and December 31. Prepare the journal entries (a) to record Lance Brothers’ investment in the bonds on July 1, 2021, and (b) to record interest on December 31, 2021, at the effective (market) rate. (If no entry is required for a transaction/event, select "No journal entry required" in the first account field.)
July 1st 2021
Investment in Bonds 775,000
Discount on Bonds investment 100,000
Cash 675,000
*********************
Discount on Bonds investment is calculated by taking the difference between 775,000 and 675,000 so it would equal 100,000
December 31st 2021
Cash $15,500
Discount on Bond investment $1,375
Interest revenue $16,875
*********************
Cash is calculated by multiplying 775,000 with 4%/2 so that it equals 15,500
interest revenue is calculated by multiplying 675,000 with 5%/2 so that is will be 16,875
then for the discount, you take the difference between the interest of what you bought the bond at 16,875 and subtract the cash coupon payment you are receiving 15,500 = 1,375
Good luck!
On July 1, 2021, Lance Brothers made a journal entry to record the purchase of $755,000 face value bonds for $675,000. On December 31, 2021, the company recorded interest income using the market rate of 5%, which resulted in an interest receivable of $15,100 and an adjustment for the discount on bond investment to align with the effective yield.
Explanation:Lance Brothers Enterprises acquired $755,000 of 4% bonds as a long-term investment when the market interest rate was 5%. They purchased the bonds for $675,000 on July 1, 2021, and will receive semiannual interest payments.
Journal Entry on Acquisition Date: July 1, 2021Debit Investments in Bonds $675,000Credit Cash $675,000Journal Entry on Interest Receipt Date: December 31, 2021To record interest, we need to calculate the amount of interest income using the effective interest rate method:
Interest Income = Carrying amount of the bonds x Market interest rate per periodInterest Income = $675,000 x (5% / 2)Interest Income = $675,000 x 0.025Interest Income = $16,875However, because the bonds have a stated interest rate of 4%, they will pay semiannual interest of:
Semiannual Interest Payment = Face value of bonds x Stated interest rate per periodSemiannual Interest Payment = $755,000 x (4% / 2)Semiannual Interest Payment = $15,100Thus the journal entry on December 31, 2021, will be:
Debit Interest Receivable $15,100Debit Discount on Bonds Investment ($16,875 - $15,100)Credit Interest Revenue $16,875Learn more about Bond Investment Accounting here:https://brainly.com/question/30005800
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Monty Company expects to have a cash balance of $58,410 on January 1,
2017. Relevant monthly budget data for the first 2 months of 2017 are as follows:
Collections from customers: January $110,330, February $194,700.
Payments for direct materials: January $64,900, February $97,350.
Direct labor: January $38,940, February $58,410.
Wages are paid in the month they are incurred.
Manufacturing overhead: January $27,258, February $32,450. These costs include
depreciation of $1,947 per month. All other overhead costs are paid as incurred.
Selling and administrative expenses: January $19,470, February $25,960. These
costs are exclusive of depreciation. They are paid as incurred.
Sales of marketable securities in January are expected to realize $15,576 in
cash. Monty Company has a line of credit at a local bank that enables it to
borrow up to $32,450. The company wants to maintain a minimum monthly
cash balance of $25,960. Prepare a cash budget for January and February.
Monty Company Cash Budget
January February
Beginning Cash Balance 58410 35695
Add Receipts
Collections from Customers 110330 194700
Sale of Marketable Securities 15576 0
Total Receipts
Answer:
The ending cash balance of Jan is $ 68145 which is more than $58,410 . We get this balance after the borrowings. The cash balance is $ 18172 for February .
Explanation:
Monty Company
Cash Budget
January February
Beginning Cash Balance 58410 35695
Add Receipts
Collections from Customers 110330 194700
Sale of Marketable Securities 15576 0
Total Receipts 125906 194700
Total available Cash 184316 230395
Less Disbursements
Direct Materials $64,900, $97,350
Direct labor: $38,940, $58,410
Manufacturing overhead: $27,258, $32,450
Depreciation ($1,947) ( $1,947)
Selling and
Administrative expenses: $19,470, $25,960.
Total Disbursements 148,621 212,223
Excess 35,695 18172
Financing
Add Borrowings $32,450 0
Less Repayments 0 0
Ending Cash Balance 68145 18172
Receipts are added to the cash balance to get the total available cash .
Total cash disbursements are subtracted from the total available cash to find the excess amount from which the repayments are subtracted and borrowings are added to get the ending cash balance.
Domino Company uses the aging of accounts receivable method to estimate uncollectible accounts expense. Domino began Year 2 with balances in Accounts Receivable and Allowance for Doubtful Accounts of $44,010 and $3,440, respectively. During the year, the company wrote off $2,620 in uncollectible accounts. In preparation for the company's Year 2 estimate, Domino prepared the following aging schedule: Number of days Receivables % Likely to be past due amount uncollectible Current $ 70,000 1% 0-30 26,700 5% 31-60 6,760 10% 61-90 3,420 25% Over 90 3,100 50% Total $ 109,980 What will Domino record as Uncollectible Accounts Expense for Year 2
Answer:
Domino will record $4,296 as Uncollectible Accounts Expense for Year 2.
Explanation:
The write-off of the accounts receivable is as follows:
Debit Allowance for doubtful accounts $2,620
Credit Accounts receivable $2,620
(Write-off of accounts receivable)
The effect of the write-off on the allowance account is $3,440 - $2,620 = $820 (credit). It was assumed that the opening balance of $3,440 is credit balance.
Estimate of the uncollectible amount
No of days Receivables % Past due Amount uncollectible
Current $ 70,000 1% $700
0-30 26,700 5% 1,335
31-60 6,760 10% 676
61-90 3,420 25% 855
Over 90 3,100 50% 1,550
Total $109,980 $5,116
The bad debt expense will be $5,116 - $820 = $4,296.
At the beginning of 2018, England Dresses has an inventory of $75,000. However, management wants to reduce the amount of inventory on hand to $35,000 at December 31. If net sales for 2018 are forecast at $220,000 and the gross profit rate is expected to be 22%, compute the cost of the merchandise which management should expect to purchase during 2018. (Hint: First compute the expected cost of goods sold.)
Answer:
$136600
Explanation:
Given:
inventory of $75,000amount of inventory on hand to $35,000net sales for 2018 at $220,000gross profit rate: 22%We need to find the gross profit via the given information of net sales and gross profit rate
<=> gross profit = net sales*gross profit rate
= $220,000* 22%
= $48,400
Moreover, Cost of goods sold is = sales - gross profit
<=> Cost of goods sold = $220,000 - $48,400 = $171,600
But Cost of goods sold = opening inventory + purchases - closing inventory
<=> purchases = Cost of goods sold - opening inventory + closing inventory
= $171,600 - $75,000 + ($75,000 - $35,000)
= $136600
Answer:
The cost of the merchandise which management should expect to purchase during 2018: $131,600
Explanation:
Net sales for 2018 are forecast at $220,000 and the gross profit rate is expected to be 22%.
The expected Gross profit = 22% x $220,000 = $48,400
The expected Cost of goods sold = Net sales - The expected Gross profit = $220,000 - $48,400 = $171,600
The cost of the merchandise expected to purchase during 2018 = Inventory on hand at December 31 + The expected Cost of goods sold in 2018 - Inventory at the beginning of 2018 = $35,000 + $171,600 - $75,000 = $131,600
Rudyard Corporation had 240,000 shares of common stock and 24,000 shares of 6%, $100 par convertible preferred stock outstanding during the year. Net income for the year was $680,000 and dividends were paid to both common and preferred shareholders. Rudyard's effective tax rate is 25%. Each share of preferred stock is convertible into five shares of common stock. What is Rudyard's diluted EPS (rounded)?
Answer:
$1.90 per share
Explanation:
The computation of the diluted earning per share is shown below:
Diluted earning per share = Net income ÷ Weighted number of outstanding shares
where,
Net income is $680,000
And, the Weighted number of outstanding shares is
= 240,000 + 24,000 × 5
= 240,000 + 120,000
= 360,000 shares
So, the diluted EPS is
= $680,000 ÷ 360,000 shares
= $1.90 per share
We simply applied the above formula
You just graduated and landed your first job in your new career. You remember that your favorite finance professor told you to begin the painless job of saving for retirement as soon as possible. You decide to put away $5,000 at the end of each year in a Roth IRA. Your expected annual rate of return on the IRA is 6%. The amount you will have accumulated at retirement after 40 years of investing is closest to:
Answer :
Money accumulated at retirement after 40 year = $773,809.83
Explanation :
As per the data given in the question,
Present value of future deposits = $5,000 ÷ (1+6%) + $5,000 ÷ (1+6%)^2+... +$5,000 ÷ (1+6%)^40
= $75,231.48
Future value of deposit is
= Present value × (1 + interest rate)^number of years
= $75,231.48 × (1+6%)^40
= $773,809.83
Hence, Money accumulated at retirement after 40 year = $773,809.83
Answer:
The answer is $7,73,810
Explanation
Solution
To solve this question, we use a table or tabular form shown below:
Rate (I) Rate per period 0.06
NPER Total no of payments 40
PMT Payment per second $5,000
PV Present Value $0.00
TYPE Ending (0), Beginning (1) 0
Future value $ 7,73,810
(-FV (rate, nper, pmt, pv, type))
A forward contract is described by:_______.
a. agreeing today to buy a product today at its current price.
b. agreeing today to buy a product at a later date at a price to be set
in the future.
c. agreeing today to buy a product if and only if its price rises above the
exercise price today at its current price.
d. agreeing today to buy a product at a later date at a price set today.
Answer:
Agreeing today to buy a product at a later date at a price set today.
Explanation:
Forward contract can be described as a type of contract that exists between two parties. Both parties agree on a specific and defined price to buy and sell their assets at a later date. The specific price agreed upon by the both the buyer and seller is known as forward price.
It is necessary for the buyer and seller to ensure the forward contract is completed before the fixed date to prevent problems that might arise. The advantages of this type of contract include: consistency in the price agreed upon by both parties, downside risks are prevented due to the ability to determine future rate.
Company A purchased machinery with a list price of $96,000. They were given a 10% discount by the manufacturer. They paid $600 for shipping and sales tax of $4,500. Company A estimates that the machinery will have a useful life of 10 years and a residual value of $30,000. If Compnay A uses straight-line depreciation, annual depreciation will be
Answer:
The annual depreciation will be $6,150
Explanation:
First, let us calculate the total cost of purchasing the machinery as follows
list price = $96,000
percentage discount = 10% = 10/100 = 0.1
∴ Discount amount = 10% × 96,000 = 0.1 × 96,000 = $9,600
∴ New price after discount = 96,000 - 9,600 = $86,400
shipping cost = $600
sales tax = $4,500
Total cost of machinery = New price after discount + shipping cost + sales tax
= 86,400 + 600 + 4,500 = $91,500
useful life = 10 years
residual/salvage value = $30,000
Note that Straight-line depreciation allocates depreciation costs evenly over the useful life of the equipment, and the formula is shown below:
Straight-line depreciation = (cost of machinery - residual value) ÷ (useful life in years)
= (91,500 - 30,000) ÷ 10
= 61,500 ÷ 10 = $6,150
Which of the following best describes an opportunity cost: Select one: a. it is a relevant cost in decision making, but is not part of the traditional accounting records. b. it is not a relevant cost in decision making, but is part of the traditional accounting records. c. it is a relevant cost in decision making, and is part of the traditional accounting records. d. it is not a relevant cost in decision making, and is not part of the traditional accounting records.
Answer:
a. it is a relevant cost in decision making, but is not part of the traditional accounting records.
Explanation:
An opportunity cost is a relevant cost in decision making, but is not part of the traditional accounting records.
The opportunity cost also known as the alternative forgone in accounting and can be defined as the potential benefit that is forgone when an alternative is selected over another.
For instance, the money and time you spend to go see a movie at the cinema, you can't spend the time reading a book at home and the money can't be spent on something else either.
The opportunity cost can be calculated by using the formula;
Opportunity cost (OC) = FO − CO
where:
FO = Return on alternative forgone.
CO = Return on the option chosen.
Lyons Company deducts insurance expense of $126,000 for tax purposes in 2020, but the expense is not yet recognized for accounting purposes. In 2021, 2022, and 2023, no insurance expense will be deducted for tax purposes, but $42,000 of insurance expense will be reported for accounting purposes in each of these years. Lyons Company has a tax rate of 40% and income taxes payable of $108,000 at the end of 2020. There were no deferred taxes at the beginning of 2020. 3. What deferred amount should be recorded for Lyon's in relation to the above temporary difference at 12/31/20? If zero, write 0
Answer:
$50,400
Explanation:
Lyons company needs to recognize $126,000 x 40% (tax rate) = $50,400 as deferred tax liability at 12/31/2020.
Deferred tax temporary differences exist because sometimes US GAAP rules are not consistent with the rules that the IRS uses to determine the current taxes of a firm. E.g. US GAAP does not recognize expensing the purchase of assets, but the IRS does. So you need to depreciate the assets in your accounting records, but the ax benefits have already been taken by the firm in the first year.
To determine the deferred amount for Lyon's Company related to the temporary difference at the end of 2020, calculate the future tax deduction on the insurance expense, resulting in a deferred tax liability of $33,600.
The deferred amount recorded for Lyon's in relation to the temporary difference at 12/31/20 can be calculated as follows:
Calculate the temporary difference in insurance expense: ($126,000 - $42,000) = $84,000Calculate the future tax deduction on insurance expense: $84,000 * 40% = $33,600Deferred tax liability to be recorded: $33,600The common stock of Blasco Books has a standard deviation of 16.4 percent as compared to the market standard deviation of 12.7 percent. The covariance of this stock with the market is .0217. What is the beta of Blasco Books' stock?
Answer:
1.35
Explanation:
For determining the beta first we have to compute the correlation which is shown below:
= Market standard deviation ÷ common stock standard deviation × covariance
= 16.4% ÷ 12.7% × 0.217
= 1.04187
Now the beta of the stock is
= correlation × Market standard deviation ÷ common stock standard deviation
= 1.04187 × 16.4% ÷ 12.7%
= 1.35
We simply applied the above formulas
In 2019, BayKing Company sold used equipment for $ 21 comma 000. The equipment had an original cost of $80,000 and accumulated depreciation as of the date of sale was $60,000. BayKing also purchased heldminustominusmaturity securities for $ 10 comma 000. Net income for the year was $74,000. There were no other transactions conducted during the period. What are the net investing cash flows for BayKing?
Answer:
$11,000
Explanation:
The cash flow statement categories the company's transactions in a financial period into 3 groups; these are operating, investing and financing.
The net profit/loss, depreciation, changes in current assets (other than cash) and liabilities are considered as operating activities including income taxes.
The sale of assets, interest received, purchase of investments are examples of investing activities while the issuance of stocks, debt principal deduction (loan settlement), issuance of debt securities etc are examples of financing activities.
An increase in assets other than cash is an outflow while an increase in liabilities is an inflow. Depreciation and other non-cash expenses deducted in the income statements are added back while the non-cash income such gain on asset are deducted from net income.
net investing cash flows
= $21,000 - $10,000
= $11,000
All industrialized countries have become "service economies." Which factor helps explain this shift? Group of answer choices Information age and labor saving innovation in manufacturing. Trade unionism and failure of the manufacturing sector to grow. Non availability of industrial labor with required skills. Absence of competition in the service sector.
Answer:
Information Age and labor saving innovation in manufacturing.
Explanation:
The Service economy can be defined as the economy which centers at giving the service than producing goods. A country that provides a service economy is able to earn more from the service sector than other sectors such as manufacturers.
The investment in the service economy is cheaper than other sectors and is comprised of freelancers and entrepreneurs such as doctors, lawyers, professors, etc.
The factor that has led to this shift in countries to a service economy is because of the increase in demand for services in education and Information Technology. And also because of the labor-saving innovations.
Thus the correct answer is the first option.
On June 1, Sawyer Co. borrowed $5,000 by extending their past-due account payable with a 45-day, 12% interest-bearing note. On July 16, the due date, Sawyer pays the amount due in full. Sawyer would record this payment with a (debit/credit) _______ to Interest Expense in the amount of _______.
A. credit; $600
B. debit; $75
C. debit; $600
D. credit; $75
Answer:
The correct answer is Option B.
Explanation:
Note receivable is a promissory note with a written promise made by the borrower to the lender (payee) to pay a certain, definite sum at a specified date.
The interest expense on the notes is calculated as: Principal x Interest Rate x Time
In this case, the total interest expense is $5,000 x 12%/12 x 1.5 months = $75.
Therefor, total debit to interest expense is $75.
Answer:
The correct answer is D)
Explanation:
The amount borrowed is an expense to Sawyer Co. Therefore it has to be recorded as a credit transaction in their Interest Expense Account by the interest on the $5,000 that was borrowed.
The interest on the $5,000 is calculated by apply the rate (12%) on $5,000.
= 5000(12/100)
= 50*12
= $600
The actual amount is gotten by dividing the interest by 12 months and multiplying by a month and a half (45 days) assuming that a month is 30 days.
= (600/12)1.5
= $50 * 1.5
= $75
The principle of double-entry in accounting states that you must always credit any increase in liability and debit a decrease in an amount due to another.
Cheers!
Parkette, Inc., acquired a 60 percent interest in Skybox Company several years ago. During 2017, Skybox sold inventory costing $210,600 to Parkette for $270,000. A total of 20 percent of this inventory was not sold to outsiders until 2018. During 2018, Skybox sold inventory costing $163,510 to Parkette for $197,000. A total of 30 percent of this inventory was not sold to outsiders until 2019. In 2018, Parkette reported cost of goods sold of $537,500 while Skybox reported $437,500. What is the consolidated cost of goods sold in 2018
Answer:
$776,167
Explanation:
The computation of the consolidated cost of goods sold is shown below:-
Intra entity Gross Profit in 2017 = $270,000 - $210,600
= $59,400
Unrealized Gross Profit = Intra entity Gross Profit in 2017 × Inventory percentage
= $59,400 × 20%
= $11,880
Intra entity Gross Profit in 2018 = $197,000 - $163,510
= $33,490
Unrealized Gross Profit at 31/12/2018 = Intra entity Gross Profit in 2018 × Inventory percentage
= $33,490 × 30%
= $10,047
Consolidated cost of goods sold for 2018 = Parent COGS + Subsidiary COGS - Intra entity transfer for 2018 - Recognized 2017 deferred Gross profit + Defer unrealized gross profit for 2018
= $537,500 + $437,500 - $197,000 - $11,880 + $10,047
= $776,167
Therefore for computing the consolidated cost of goods sold we simply applied the above formula.
The Box Manufacturing Division of the Allied Paper Company reported the following results from the past year. Shareholders require a return of 4%. Management calculated a weightedminusaverage cost of capital (WACC) of 3%. Allied's corporate tax rate is 40%.Sales$ 400 comma 000Operating income60 comma 000Total assets1 comma 100 comma 000Current liabilities900 comma 000What is the division's sales margin?
Answer:
The division's sales margin is 15%
Explanation:
In order to calculate the division's sales margin we would have to use the following formula:
sales margin=operating income/sales
operating income= $60,000
sales=$400,000
Therefore sales margin=$60,000/$400,000
sales margin=0.15
sales margin=15%
The division's sales margin is 15%
Mary owns 100 percent of a gift shop with an equity value of $150,000. If she keeps the shop open 5 days a week, EBIT is $75,000. If the shop remains open 6 days a week, EBIT increases to $92,000 annually. Mary needs an additional $50,000 which she can raise today by either selling stock or issuing debt at an interest rate of 7 percent. The principal amount would be repaid at the end of the fifth year. Ignore taxes. What will be the cash flow for this year to Mary if she issues debt, remains open 6 days a week, and distributes all the residual cash flow to the shareholders?
Answer:
$88,500
Explanation:
The computation of the residual cash flow for the year is shown below:
= EBIT - interest
where,
EBIT is $92,000
And, the interest on debt is
= $50,000 × 7%
= $3,500
So the residual cash flow is
= $92,000 - $3,500
= $88,500
We simply deduct the interest on debt from the EBIT so that the residual cash flow could come
When deducting the interest on the debt from the EBIT the residual cash flow could come is = $88,500
Computation of Cashflow
Now, The computation of the residual cash flow for the year is shown below:
Then = EBIT - interest
where,
EBIT is $92,000
And also, the interest on debt is
Then = $50,000 × 7%
Now, = $3,500
So the residual cash flow is
Then = $92,000 - $3,500
Therefore, = $88,500
Then We deduct the interest on the debt from the EBIT so that the residual cash flow could come
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The shareholders' equity of Green Corporation includes $200,000 of $1 par common stock and $400,000 par value of 6% cumulative preferred stock. The board of directors of Green declared cash dividends of $50,000 in 2013 after paying $20,000 cash dividends in each of 2012 and 2011. What is the amount of dividends common shareholders will receive in 2013?
Answer:
$22,000
Explanation:
The computation of amount of dividends common shareholders is shown below:-
Amount of annual preferred stock dividend = $ 400,000 par value × 6%
= $24,000
Total Cash Paid to Preferred Paid to Dividends in
Dividend paid Common Arrears at Year end
2011 $40,000 $24,000 $16,000
2012 $20,000 $20,000 $ - $4,000
2013 $50,000 $28,000 $22,000 $ -
Total $110,000 $72,000 $38,000
Therefore, out of $ 50,000 dividend declared and $28,000 is for Preferred stockholders $24,000 annual + 4,000 Arrears
There is a 3 percent error rate at a specific point in a production process. If an inspector is placed at this point, all the errors can be detected and eliminated. However, the inspector is paid $8 per hour and can inspect units in the process at the rate of 30 per hour. If no inspector is used and defects are allowed to pass this point, there is a cost of $10 per unit to correct the defect later on. Should an inspector be hired?
To determine if an inspector should be hired, compare the costs of fixing defects with and without the inspector. If the cost of hiring is less than the cost of fixing defects, then an inspector should be hired.
Explanation:To determine whether an inspector should be hired or not, we need to compare the cost of fixing defects with and without an inspector. With a 3 percent error rate, without an inspector, the cost of fixing a defect later on is $10 per unit. However, if an inspector is placed and all errors are detected and eliminated, the cost can be avoided. The inspector is paid $8 per hour and can inspect 30 units per hour. So, the cost of hiring the inspector is $8 per 30 units, which is $0.27 per unit. If $0.27 is less than $10, it is more cost-effective to hire an inspector.
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Hiring an inspector is more cost-effective because the inspection cost per unit ($0.27) is lower than the expected cost to fix defects later ($0.30 per unit) given the 3 percent error rate.
The student is asking whether it is cost-effective to hire an inspector for quality control in a production process with a known error rate of 3 percent. The cost to hire an inspector is $8 per hour, and the inspector can inspect 30 units per hour. If a defect passes through without inspection, it will later incur a correction cost of $10 per unit.
To decide whether to hire the inspector, we must compare the cost of inspection versus the cost of defects. Inspecting 30 units in an hour at $8 per hour costs approximately $0.27 per unit ($8 divided by 30 units). Since 3% of units are defective, the expected cost to fix these defects without an inspector is $0.30 per unit (3% of units times $10 per unit correction cost). Therefore, it is cheaper to hire the inspector to detect and eliminate errors immediately, rather than fixing defects later on.
Data related to the inventories of Costco Medical Supply are presented below: Surgical Equipment Surgical Supplies Rehab Equipment Rehab Supplies Selling price $ 265 $ 132 $ 352 $ 159 Cost 163 100 252 159 Costs to sell 26 11 32 7 In applying the lower of cost or net realizable value rule, the inventory of surgical equipment would be valued at: Multiple Choice $163. $181.
Answer:
$163
Explanation:
The accounting standard for Inventory under IFRS IAS 2 requires that inventory be recognized at cost which includes all the cost incurred to bring the item of inventory to a state or place where the item of inventory becomes available for sale.
These costs includes cost of purchase, freight, Insurance cost during transit etc.
Subsequently, inventory is to be carried at the lower of cost or net realizable value. The net realizable value is the difference between the cost and cost to sell.
Given;
Surgical Equipment Surgical Supplies Rehab Equipment Rehab Supplies Selling price $ 265 $ 132 $ 352 $ 159
Cost $ 163 $ 100 $ 252 $ 159
Costs to sell $ 26 $ 11 $ 32 $ 7
Net realizable $ 239 $ 121 $ 322 $ 152
Applying the lower of cost or net realizable value rule, the inventory of surgical equipment would be valued at
= $163
Two firms compete by advertising. Given the payoff matrix to this advertising game, identify each firm's best response to its rival's possible actions. If Firm 2 does not advertise, then Firm 1 should ▼ advertise not advertise and if Firm 2 advertises, then Firm 1 should ▼ not advertise advertise . If Firm 1 does not advertise, then Firm 2 should ▼ not advertise advertise and if Firm 1 advertises, then Firm 2 should ▼ not advertise advertise . Does either firm have a dominant strategy? Firm 1's dominant strategy is to ▼ not advertise advertise and Firm 2's dominant strategy is to ▼ not advertise advertise . What is the Nash equilibrium? A. The Nash equilibrium is for both firms to advertise. B. The Nash equilibrium is for Firm 1 to advertise and Firm 2 to not advertise. C. This game has no Nash equilibria. D. The Nash equilibrium is for both firms to not advertise. E. The Nash equilibrium is for Firm 1 to not advertise and Firm 2 to advertise.
Answer:
If Firm 2 does not advertise, Firm 1 should advertise
If Firm 2 advertises, then Firm 1 should also advertise
Firm 1 dominant strategy is to advertise
Firm 2 dominant strategy is to advertise
1. A. Nash equilibrium is for both Firms to advertise.
Explanation:
Nash equilibrium is a state where interactions by different firms in a matrix is involved. No firm can gain by a unilateral change of strategy if other firm does not changes its strategy. It is a situation where there is optimal when there is no deviation from the initial strategy. Here firm 1 can by advertise and Firm 2 can also optimize by advertising.