Answer:Charles Spearman believed that
general intelligence, or the G FACTOR
was/were responsible for overall performance on mental ability tests.
Explanation:Charles Spearman was an English psychologist known to propose the theory of intelligence. He proposed that an underlying factor of general intelligence exists that forms the foundation out of which all intellectual abilities rise( the G factor).
According to the Centers for Disease Control and Preventions (2013)estimates, _____ children has an autism spectrum disorder in 2008.
Answer:
1 in 88 children has an autism spectrum disorder in 2008
Explanation:
Autism Spectrum Disorder- this is a disorder that is related to a person's nervous system and brain development. It affects how the person socializes or communicates with other people. A person with this condition has the following symptoms: abnormal body posture, abnormal tone of voice, delay in speaking, avoidance of eye contact, flat speech, repetitive behaviors and the like. This is common in a child's early life.
In the United States, it has been estimated that 1 in every 88 children has an autism spectrum disorder. Most of these kids were born in the year 2000. This is even expected to increase in the coming years. The number estimated is considered huge because it greatly affects every family. It puts stress on every family member, not only financially but also physically, mentally and emotionally.
In 2008, approximately one in 88 children was diagnosed with Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) according to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). It was four times more prevalent in males. The distinct increase in ASD diagnoses over the years can likely be attributed to expanded diagnostic criteria and increased awareness and understanding of the condition.
Explanation:According to the Centers for Disease Control and Preventions (2013) estimates, one in 88 children had an autism spectrum disorder in 2008. This prevalence rate is based on data monitored by the Autism and Developmental Disabilities Monitoring Network run by the CDC. The data demonstrates that autism spectrum disorders (ASD) were four times more prevalent in males than females. However, it's worth noting that this rate has changed significantly over time, with current estimates suggesting that one in 59 children nowadays has ASD.
The complexity of ASD, which is a neurodevelopmental disorder, and its varying severity among individuals add to the challenges of estimating its prevalence accurately. The increase in the reported prevalence of ASD over the last few decades is possibly due to the expansion of diagnostic criteria, greater efforts to identify cases in communities, improved awareness and acceptance of the diagnosis.
Likewise, mental health professionals have become more knowledgeable about ASD, equipping them to diagnose even the subtle cases more accurately. Despite increased research, the exact causes of autism still remain unknown. However, it's generally agreed upon that genetics play a significant role, and certain environmental factors are associated with an increased risk of ASD.
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A person shedding bacteria in the early and middle stages of an infection is more likely to spread it to others than is a person in the late stages.A. TrueB. False
Answer: TRUE
Explanation:
The Phases of diseases are incubation, prodromal, illness, decline, and convalescence .
Since new daughter cells of bacterial are produced during the early and mid stage of ( incubation, prodromal, illness,). then infection spread should be higher at this stage
________ messages are more persuasive for encouraging health behaviors with certain outcomes.
Answer:
Positive message
Explanation:
Positive message - one polite sentence is far better than thousand harsh sentences. Positive message from one to other can become the open way for better health condition.
Positive message motivate other for healthy environment irrespective of any financial status. it help to prevent disease hence prevent individual expenses.
Answer:
Positive messages
Explanation:
Some positive messages are:
You're off to great places, today is your day.
You always pass failure on the way.
No one is perfect - that's why pencils have erasers.
Winning doesn't always mean being first.
You're braver than you believe, and stronger than you seem, and smarter than you think.
Jackie's ankles are very swollen at night after work. When she went to the doctor about the problem, the doctor requested a urine specimen. Why?
a. Edema could be a sign of kidney failure. A urine sample might contain protein or urea.b. Jackie is probably drinking too much water and the doctor can see this because the urine will be very dilute.c. Jackie probably stands all day long and this prevents the urinary system from working correctly.d. Edema is a sign of kidney stones and the doctor is looking for small stones in the urine.e. Edema could be a sign of an inactive bladder. The doctor wants to see if Jackie is capable of urinating.
Answer:
a. Edema could be a sign of kidney failure. A urine sample might contain protein or urea.
Explanation:
Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) is characterized by the progressive loss of the ability of the kidneys to filter blood, so that the patient may experience symptoms such as swelling in the feet and ankles, weakness and the appearance of foam in the urine, for example.
Therefore, it is important for these people to have regular urine and blood tests with creatinine levels to check if the kidneys are working properly and if there is a risk of developing.
The doctor likely asked for a urine specimen from Jackie due to the suspicion of a kidney problem. Swelling or edema in the ankles can be a sign of kidney disease, and a urine test would detect the presence of protein or urea, indicating poor kidney function.
Explanation:The most likely reason for the doctor's request for a urine specimen is due to the suspicion of kidney problems which could be indicated by swelling or edema in the ankles. Kidneys play an essential role in removing waste products and extra fluid from the body. If the kidneys are not functioning correctly, these can accumulate in the body, leading to symptoms like swelling in the legs and ankles.
To detect a possible kidney failure, doctors could look for the presence of protein or urea in the urine. Normally, your kidneys filter out these byproducts, but if they are not working efficiently, proteins and urea might leak into the urine, which could indicate kidney disease.
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What two complementary roles did the functionalist Talcott Parsons identify within the family?
Answer:
Instrumental and expressive
Explanation:
Expressive roles and task roles, also known as instrumental roles, describe two ways of participating in social relationships. People in task roles, on the other hand, pay more attention to achieving whatever goals are important to the social group, like earning money to provide resources for survival.
The instrumental role is a functionalist understanding of the male's function in the family. This role's main purpose is to discipline and provide economic support for the family. Males who fulfil this role are considered to be power brokers in the relationship as they make all the decisions for the family.
Final answer:
Talcott Parsons, a functionalist, identified two complementary roles within the family: an instrumental role typically filled by the husband and an expressive role often assumed by the wife. These roles are seen as essential for the stability and functionality of society.
Explanation:
Talcott Parsons identified two complementary roles within the family, which are instrumental in stabilizing society. According to Parsons, the family is vital in providing for its members' physical, emotional, and social well-being. In this functionalist view, spouses fulfill specific and complementary functions: the husband typically takes on the instrumental role, which includes the tasks of providing financial support and making decisions, whereas the wife often assumes the expressive role, which primarily involves childcare, emotional support, and nurturing.
Additionally, functionalists argue that families take on crucial societal functions like the regulation of sexual behavior. This function is intended to promote the stability of the family unit as well as lawful and socially supported procreation, ensuring that children are raised in an environment conducive to optimal socialization and access to resources.
During an overhead squat assessment a client's knees move inward. Which of the following exercises is the most appropriate to strenghten and activate the client's underactive musculature?
a. Tube walking: side-to-side
b. Ice skaters
c. Proprioceptive plyometrics
d. Leg swings: side-to-side
Answer:
A) Tube walking: side-to-side
Explanation:
Tube walking is defined as a core-strengthening exercise that works as a corrective strategy to make sure that an overhead squat is performed correctly. If any exercise is done incorrectly, it can lead to serious injury and can even be fatal.
Incorrect stance of a squat can lead to leg and knee problems in old age, and it important that it is done correctly.
Answer: the correct option is A (Tube walking: side-to-side)
Explanation: the exercises that is the most appropriate to strenghten and activate
the client's underactive musculature is Tube walking: side-to-side. This increases stability of the underactive knee joint.
The idea that one’s consciousness continually changes, fluctuates, and wanders characterizes William James’s concept that consciousness is
a.An incomplete picture puzzle.
b.A partially submerged iceberg.
c.A stream.
d.A flower garden
Answer:
C: A stream
Explanation:
There is a reason that it is sometimes referred to as a "stream of consciousness". William James is often considered the father of American psychology and he coined the phrase "stream of consciousness". He stated that any thought that occurs within our conscious or subconscious, is formed along that stream.
Answer: the correct option is C (A stream).
Explanation:The idea that one’s consciousness continually changes, fluctuates, and wanders characterizes William James’s concept that consciousness is a stream.
William James, the father of American psychology, first coined the phrase "stream of consciousness". He concluded that we only experience one mental event at a time as a fast-moving mind stream.
Which of the following best describes when a person is ready to move to stage II cardiorespiratory training from stage I?
Which of the following best describes when a person is ready to move to stage II cardiorespiratory training from stage I?
Select one:
a. Client can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 20 minutes.
b. Client can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 30 minutes.
c. Client can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 15 minutes.
d. Client can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 10 minutes.
Answer:When the client can maintain the zone 1 heart rate for 30 mins, he is said to be ready to move stage 2 cardiorespiratory training.
Option b
Explanation:Cardiorespiratory trainings are very essential for health workers as it can save lives of many people in different emergencies. There are different stages in training of this subject. The maximum permissible limit of heart rate of a person is the age of the person subtracted from 220. So a person of 20 years of age will have maximum permissible heart rate of 200 bpm. Now zone 1 heart rate is the maximum permissible heart rate multiplied by 0.6.
The zone 2 is same multiplied by 0.7 to 0.8. And zone 3 is same multiplied by 0.8 and above. As the person is able to keep the patient's heart rate within zone 1 for about 30 mins, he can be given stage 2 cardiorespiratory training.
A(n) _____consists of movements that more closely mimic those of the actual activity, often referred to as dynamic stretches.
Answer:
Specific warm-up
Explanation:
Specific warm-up: It is group of exercises that we perform to prepare a particular sport or activity.
When teaching a client with HIV about the management of the disease, what are important points to discuss?
Answer:
Important points: Understand what is HIV/AIDS, how do deal with some issues like: treatment, emotional questions, prevention etc.
Explanation:
AIDS is the Human Immunodeficiency Syndrome, transmitted by the HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus), characterized by the weakening of the body's defense system and the appearance of opportunistic diseases.
Finding out HIV-positive certainly gives a great initial shock, which reveals insecurities and fears. Although, with the medical advances, the reality of living with HIV / AIDS has changed dramatically in recent years: efficient and well-tolerated medications, early diagnosis, diminishing stigma, and effective health policies.
1) The medicines (treatment)
The treatment already allows the infected person to work, play sports, date, have children, etc. The reality of patients has changed, but it still requires effort and commitment for a lifetime. Still a lot of medicines to take and also there is the side effect of the medication. But if you live a healthy life (eat correctly, exercise often etc) could be better for the patient.
Be aware that antiretrovirals are capable of containing the infection but are not yet able to eliminate all viruses from the body. In the body, HIV can get out of the bloodstream and hide in organs, such as the brain, where drug assets have difficulty reaching . So its important to always take care of life with medical professionals.
2) The transmission
The HIV virus is transmitted through unprotected sexual relations (without a condom) with a HIV-positive person, that is, who already has the HIV virus, by sharing contaminated sharps such as needles, pliers, etc. ., from an untreated seropositive mother to her child during pregnancy, childbirth or breastfeeding. Its important to understand how the transmission goes, because its a way to prevent other people.
An HIV positive person can quietly relate to someone without the virus. Just take extra precautions to minimize the risk of infection. Like your partner, the seronegative should also have regular checkups. And it is recommended to use condoms and certain medications before and after sex, which decrease your chance of getting HIV.
3) Dealing with emotional issues
Monitoring mental health for HIV-positive people is extremely important, not only because of the difficulty in receiving the diagnosis, but also in thinking about the support network and whether it will be necessary to share the diagnosis with any family member, and also in the construction of future affective relationships. People who have HIV can relate to people who do not have the virus, and this is more common than we think.
Bernard buys a large can of beans and franks. He serves the beans and franks to his wife Mary Jo, to a dinner guest, Pam, and to herself. Mary Jo and Pam are injured by eating pieces of metal that are in the beans and franks. Bernard also ate some beans and franks but there were no pieces of metal in his meal. Who has remedy against the seller for breach of warranty?
Answer:
Mary Jo and Pam
Explanation:
A breach of warranty is a business term for a broken promise, which is made by the seller of a product or service. This is a violation of a contract between seller and consumer. In this case there was a agreement (through health regulations) that the large can of beans and franks meet a minimum standard of health and safety, by having pieces of metal in the can, this means that the promise is broken.
The only people who are affected would be the people who were injured due to the metal in the can, in this case those people are Mary Jo and Pam.
What determines the ""strength"" of your immune system?
Answer:
Its strength determines our ability to resist such onslaughts and it protects us from the growth of abnormal cells.
Explanation:
Abnormal cells are sometimes called pre-cancerous cells. They are generally caused by types of human papillomavirus (HPV). HPV is a very common virus.
Markus has been attending Alcoholics Anonymous meetings for 4 months and has managed to avoid drinking for that entire time. Last night, however, he had three beers after a particularly difficult day at work. The relapse prevention model of treatment would view last night's drinking in which way?
Answer:
The relapse prevention model of treatment would view last night's drinking as something that could have been anticipated and prevented.
Explanation:
Relapse- a deterioration after a temporary improvement.
Relapse Prevention Therapy- this is a type of cognitive behavioral approach that prevents the occurrence of relapse by allowing a person to recognize anticipating situations that could trigger an old addicting behavior. Knowing the anticipating factors will allow the person to cope in order not to go back to his old behavior.
In the situation above, it is clear that Markus successfully changed his behavior because he managed to avoid drinking alcohol after four months. This is considered a temporary improvement. However, the difficulty he encountered in his workplace triggered his desire to go back drinking. The workplace situation is an anticipating factor for him. This means, he could go back to his old alcoholic self whenever he faces a difficult situation at work.
Markus's relapse is seen as a trigger-induced stress response in the relapse prevention model, highlighting the importance of coping skills, cognitive restructuring, and self-efficacy. Enhancing these strategies can help prevent future relapses. Such events are opportunities to strengthen one's ability to manage stress and maintain sobriety.
Relapse prevention is an important aspect of addiction treatment, including for individuals like Markus who are attending Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) meetings. According to the relapse prevention model, Markus's drinking episode last night can be understood in the following way:
Identification of Triggers: Markus was under significant stress due to a difficult day at work, which served as a high-risk situation for relapse.Importance of Coping Strategies: This model emphasizes the development of coping skills and effective strategies to manage triggers and stress without resorting to alcohol.Cognitive Restructuring: Reflecting on maladaptive thoughts and learning how to handle cravings more effectively can help individuals like Markus make informed choices in future high-risk situations.Self-Efficacy: Encouraging the individual to believe in their ability to control their behavior and manage difficult emotions is crucial in maintaining long-term sobriety.Role-Playing: Practicing handling high-risk scenarios in a controlled environment can enhance one's confidence and preparedness, thereby reducing the chances of future relapses.Therefore, Markus's relapse is seen not as a failure, but as an opportunity to reinforce and improve relapse prevention strategies.
While pregnant, Marley was exposed to the flu virus. Based on current research, which psychological disorder is Marley’s child most likely to develop?
Answer:
Marley's child is most likely to develop schizophrenia.
Explanation:
Based on current research, Marley's child has a higher probability of developing schizophrenia at some point in life. Schizophrenia is a psychological disorder that is commonly developed during adolescence or young adulthood. The person affected does not connect with reality properly and has trouble perceiving things and feelings.
Flu virus or influenza is an infectious disease that is caused by influenza viruses. Pregnant women if exposed to the influenza virus can cause schizophrenia in the child.
Marley's child is most likely to develop schizophrenia.
In the current research on the influenza virus, it has been hypothesized that the child will have the chance of developing schizophrenia if the mother is exposed to the virus during pregnancy.
Schizophrenia is a mental and psychological disorder in which people interpret reality abnormally. Schizophrenia results in delusions, disordered thinking, and hallucinations.
Thus, Marley's child is most likely to develop schizophrenia.
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Reducing the pain of a marine animal sting can be accomplished by rinsing the affected area with which of the following?
Answer: the correct answer is vinegar.
Explanation:Reducing the pain of a marine animal sting can be accomplished by rinsing the affected area with vinegar. Vinegar is an aqueous solution of acetic acid and trace chemicals which is known to deactivate the nematocysts of as some marine animals there by reducing pain.
Answer:
Vinegar
Explanation:
Vinegar is an aqueous solution of acetic acid and trace chemicals that may include flavorings. Vinegar typically contains 5–20%acetic acid by volume.
After a disastrous blizzard, there was a significant increase in the allele frequency of blue eye color in husky dogs. the frequency of alleles for brown-eyed dogs was 7.5% and the allele frequency for hazel-eyed dogs was 22.5% of all alleles for the population. what is the allele frequency percentage for the blue-eyed husky dogs in this population?
Answer:
frequency of blue eyed husky dogs = 70%
Explanation:
given data
brown eyed dogs = 7.5%
hazel eyed dogs = 22.5%
to find out
allele frequency percentage for the blue eyed husky dogs in this population
solution
we know that total frequency of all the phenotypes should be = 1 or 100%
so when frequency of brown eyed and hazel eyed dogs total = 22.5% + 7.5% = 30 %
so then frequency of blue eyed husky dogs will be
frequency of blue eyed husky dogs = 100% - 30%
frequency of blue eyed husky dogs = 70%
In this case, the allele frequency for the blue-eyed husky allele in the dog's population is equal to 70%.
In genetics, an allele is a variant for a given gene locus, which exhibits two or more different forms.In diploid organisms (e.g., dogs), an individual inherits two alleles for each gene, one from the mother and the other from the father.The sum of the allele frequencies for all the alleles at a given gene locus must be equal to one (1) or 100%, thereby the sum of the allele frequencies for a gene that has three different alleles must also be 1 (in this case 7.5% + 22.5% + 70% = 100%).In conclusion, the allele frequency for the blue-eyed husky allele in the dog's population is equal to 70%.
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Joe and Pete are at the batting range and find out that Joe can hit the ball much farther than Pete. Based on this information, what might we conclude?a. Joe would also beat Pete in a distance race because Joe has more muscular endurance.b. Joe would also beat Pete in an arm wrestling competition because Joe has more muscular strength.c. Pete would beat Joe in a distance throwing competition because he has better muscular endurance.d. Pete would beat Joe in a weight-lifting competition because he has better muscular strength.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
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Answer:
B. Joe would also beat pete in an arm wrestling competition because Joe has more muscular strength.
In batting range, the strength of our upper body and our core plays a bigger role than our muscular endurance.
So, we know that Joe has a better upper body strength than pete, which mean it's very likely that Joe would also beat Pete in an arm wrestling, another type of sport that rely on muscular strength.
Explanation:
May I have brainliest please? :)
Stimulation of the beta receptors on heart muscle cells results in
Answer:
Increased heart rate and force of contraction
Explanation:
Beta receptors that are located on the heart muscle cells play a very important role in heart rate and the strength of each contraction in the heart.
When we are found to be in a stressful situation (one that stimulates our fight or flight response) our body produces adrenaline (also known as epinephrine) which then stimulates the β1 receptors in the heart muscle.
There are also β2 receptors that are stimulated through norepinephrine, and β2 receptors are located in the bronchioles of the lungs.
Fruits and vegetables cover one-half of the plate. These foods are dense sources of nutrients and health-promoting ____________ , despite their low calorie contents.
Answer:
Phytochemicals
Explanation:
Phytochemicals are chemical compounds produced by plants, generally to help them thrive or thwart competitors, predators, or pathogens. The name comes from Greek φυτόν (phyton), meaning 'plant'. Some phytochemicals have been used as poisons and others as traditional medicine.
Les just bought a megaphone of root beer. As he drinks from the giant cup, he eventually becomes full. One of his friend's comments, "If you don't stop drinking that stuff, you will get sick." Les replies, "Hey, I bought it, and I am not going to waste one drop of it." Les's behavior could best be described by which of the following mental biases:
Answer:
The correct answer is - the sunk cost fallacy.
Explanation:
The sunk cost fallacy is phenomenon that is occurs when individual continue their behavior or action because of the prior investment of time, money or effort.
Lee's behavior is best example of the this fallacy or biases which is related to the aversion of the loss of money that can be seen as mental bias due to her ongoing commitment of finishing the drink she bought.
Thus, the correct answer is - the sunk cost fallacy.
The nursing instructor explains to students that positive inotropic action affects the heart in which way?
Answer:
Positive inotropic effect means that it increases the contraction force of the heart, reducing the intracellular calcium level of the myocardium.
Explanation:
Inotropism is a health science term to refer to the contraction capacity of the cardiac (myocardial) muscles. Inotropic action influences contractile force, velocity of myocardial pressure development and ejection velocity.
Negative inotropic effect means contraction force decreases or decreases cardiac outputPositive inotropic effect means that it increases the contraction force of the heart, reducing the intracellular calcium level of the myocardium.Positive chronotropic action increases
heart rate - tachycardia; cardiac contraction force, both atrio and ventricles); conduction velocity in the atrioventricular node.Jane Hastings recently joined her first job as a communication executive and is working on creating press releases for an upcoming campaign. The campaign is getting launched publicly in the next week and Hastings will need to interact with the media and give sound bites on the issue. This is the first time she will be interacting with the press and she is experiencing emotions of anxiousness, nervousness, and stress. Which of the following mood dimensions is she experiencing?
Answer:
High negative affect
Explanation:
High negative affect involves the concept of positive and negative affectivity. Affect here, refers to the emotions that individuals display through the stimuli we experience.
When experiencing positive affects, individuals would experience more positive emotions such as joy, enthusiasm, and cheerfulness, while during negative affects, individuals would commonly encounter emotions such as fear, sadness, and anger.
We can say that Jane is experiencing high negative affect because of this - in low negative affects, there would instead be an absence or low level of these type of emotions, which as seen in the example, is clearly not what Jane is experiencing.
You are treating a 5-year-old for extensive burns. You know that burns pose a greater risk to infants and children. The reason for this is:____________
Answer: their body surface area is greater in relation to their total body size.
Explanation:
The surface area of the body in children and infants is comparatively more than their total surface area this results in cause of severe burns which can also be fatal. The skin of infants are smooth and sensitive towards burns. It produces scald and cause a serious injury. The skin graft and burn treatments are also painfull.
Vitamin B12 is essential for the proper functioning of which type of cells? epithelial (skin) nerve gastric (stomach) hepatic (liver)
Answer:
The correct answer is nerve cells.
Explanation:
Cobalamine which is also known as vitamin B-12 which is very important for the human body. It helps in the synthesis of RBCs and plays an important role in protecting the nerve cells.
Vitamin B- 12 helps in myelin sheath synthesis and maintenance. This myelin sheath makes the outer covering of neurons and plays an important role in the protection of neurons and relaying of signals at high speed.
Deficiency of vitamin B-12 causes damage to myelin sheath which results in different neurological problems. Therefore the correct answer is nerve cells.
Vitamin B12 is crucial for nerve cells and red blood cells, and it is absorbed with the help of intrinsic factor produced by gastric parietal cells in the stomach.
Explanation:Vitamin B12 is essential for the normal functioning of nerve cells and the production of mature red blood cells. The gastric parietal cells in the stomach are crucial because they produce intrinsic factor, a glycoprotein necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine.
Without intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed, leading to deficiencies that affect neurological functioning and red blood cell formation.
What are the characteristics of a healthy cell and a cancer cell? need asap please
Answer:
Cancer cells grow out of control and become invasive. Normal cells grow but not in an abnormal manner like the cancer cells.Cancer cells are less specialized. Normal cells are more specialized.Cancer cells do not interact with other cells and they do not respond to signals. Normal cells interact with other cells of the body and they respond to signals.Cancer cells do not undergo apoptosis. Normal cells either repair themselves or undergo apoptosis.Pancreatic amylase is secreted by the pancreas into the __________, where the majority of carbohydrate digestion occurs.
Pancreatic amylase is secreted by the pancreas into the small intestine, where it breaks down complex carbohydrates, such as starch, into simpler sugars.
Explanation:Pancreatic amylase is a digestive enzyme that is secreted by the pancreas into the small intestine, where the majority of carbohydrate digestion occurs. This process enables the breakdown of complex carbohydrates into simpler sugars which can be absorbed and used by the body for energy. For example, the molecule of starch, a common carbohydrate, can be broken down into individual glucose units by pancreatic amylase.
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Pancreatic amylase is an enzyme secreted by the pancreas into the small intestine, particularly the duodenum. This is where the majority of carbohydrate digestion occurs, through the decomposition of carbohydrates into monosaccharides for absorption.
Explanation:Pancreatic amylase is an enzyme that is produced by the pancreas and plays an essential role in the digestion of carbohydrates. It is secreted into the small intestine, specifically the first part of it named the duodenum, where majority of carbohydrate digestion takes place.
Carbohydrate digestion starts in the mouth, but the most substantial part occurs in the small intestine. Here, with the help of pancreatic amylase and other enzymes, carbohydrates are broken down into simple sugars, or monosaccharides, that can be easily absorbed into the bloodstream. In addition, the pancreas secretes bicarbonate to neutralize the acidic chyme from the stomach, creating an optimal environment for the function of pancreatic amylase.
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Which of the following is true about all types of cancers?
Select all that apply.
A) Cancer involves old, damaged cells that do not die.
B) Cancer results in the development of both benign and malignant tumors.
C) Cancer is marked by symptoms that are rarely noticeable.
D) Cancer involves rapid and uncontrolled cell growth.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Cancer results in the development of both benign and malignant tumors is true about all type of cancers.
What is cancer?Cancer is a condition when a few of the body's cells grow out of control and spread to other bodily regions.
In the millions of cells that make up the human body, cancer can develop practically anywhere. Human cells often divide (via a process known as cell growth and multiplication) to create new cells as the body requires them.
This systematic process fails, causing damaged or aberrant cells to proliferate when they shouldn't. Tumors, which are tissue masses, can develop from these cells. Tumors may or may not be malignant (benign).
Cancerous tumors can infect nearby tissues and spread to far-off locations in the body.
Therefore, Cancer results in the development of both benign and malignant tumors is true about all type of cancers.
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Which of the following types of bandages should NOT be used by the EMT providing wound care?A. Triangular bandageB. TourniquetC. Self-adherent roller gauzeD. Adhesive tape
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-B
Explanation:
Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) is the trained responder to treat the injured persons.
A bandage is a material which is used to keep the dressing in its place to control the bleeding but not to interfere with the blood circulation.
Bandages are of many types like Adhesive tapes, Self-adherent, Triangular bandage and other bandages.
Tourniquets are the device used by the professional which could limit the flow of blood but does not stop the circulation. EMT does not use the Tourniquets to treat the wounds.
Thus, Option-B is the correct answer.
The time it takes for food to travel through the gastrointestinal tract varies between _____hours.
Answer:
Between 6 to 8 hours
Explanation:
The gastriointestinal tract refers to the entire digestive system, starting at the mouth, and ending at the anus. After food enters through the mouth, it travels through the esophagus, into the stomach. After that, it moves into the duodenum, then the jejunum, and finally the ilium (collectively referred to as the small intestine). Finally it moves into the cecum, then to the colon, and finally the rectum (collectively referred to as the large intestine), where it exits out the body through the anus.
The length of this process varies due to stress, metabolism, and even sleep.
which influence is an internal influence
A) Cultural Background
B) Likelihood of getting certain diseases
C) Health Knowledge
D) Media Messages
Answer:
C
Explanation:
An example of internal influence is health knowledge. Thus, the correct option for this question is C.
What is Internal influence?Internal influence may be defined as all sorts of things that go on inside of the mind, as well as, the heart of an individual or that can be thought of as part of the consumer. Internal influences are controlled by the behavior and nature of an individual only.
Health knowledge is an example of internal influences. An individual becomes determined with respect to this attribute. It may vary from individual to individual with all of their respect. It depends on the knowledge of an individual, sincerity towards health, the background of the family, etc.
Cultural Background, the likelihood of getting certain diseases, and Media Messages are examples of external influences. They are based on social and cultural aspects of the life of an individual.
Therefore, health knowledge is an example of internal influence. Thus, the correct option for this question is C.
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