Answer:
option D
Explanation:
beta blockers usually decreases the blood pressure by inhibiting the release of adrenaline also known as epinephrine hormone which have sympathetic effects on heart. Beta blockers works by slowing down the heart rate, so less oxygen is needed by heart to pump the blood and takes longer time in filling.
but beta blockers are not recommended in hypertension. and they are also not used in asthmatic patient as it can worsen the asthma.
Using the principle of independent assortment, complete the Punnett square to show the results of an F1 cross between two individuals heterozygous for both pod color (C = green and c = yellow) and pod shape (S = smooth and s + constricted). The gametes and some of the genotypes of the F2 offspring are given.
Answer:
9:3:3:1 ( 9 dominant pod color and shape, 3 heterozygous pod color and homozygous recessive pod shape, 3 homozygous recessive pod color and heterozygous pod shape and 1 recessive homozygous pod color and pod shape)
Explanation:
Mendel's law of independent assortment posits that the alleles of two (or more) different genes get assorted into gametes independently of one another. This implies that the allele a gamete receives for one gene does not influence the allele received for another gene.
In the question given;
We will take a critical look at the cross between two pure-breeding pod color and pod shape:
Pod color (green) = C
Pod color (yellow) = c
Pod Shape (smooth) = S
Pod shape (constricted) = s
The F1 progency of the cross between the heterozygous pod color and pod shape will be:
Cc × Ss
= CS, Cs, cS, cs
From the question, we are to complete the punnett square of the results of the F1 generation, i.e if the F1 progeny assorts independently, what will be the results (F2 generation)
i.e : CS, Cs, cS, cs × CS, Cs, cS, cs
The Punnet Square is in the attached file below.
The results of this dihybrid cross are as follows:
CCSS, CCSs, CCSS, CcSs, CCSs, CcSs, CcSS, CcSs, CcSs (all dominant pod color and shape) "9"
CCss, Ccss, Ccss (heterozygous pod color and homozygous recessive pod shape) "3"
ccSS, ccSs, ccSs (homozygous recessive pod color and heterozygous pod shape)
ccss (recessive homozygous pod color and pod shape)
We can therefore conclude that the results of the Punnet Square of the F1 generation is in the ratio of 9:3:3:1
Considered the "Command Center for the Endocrine System", the ______________ is a major link between the nervous and endocrine system as it is a major regulatory center in the nervous system, as well as a crucial endocrine gland that can synthesize at least nine different hormones.
a. hypothalamusb. thalamusc. epithalamusd. midbraine. pons
Answer: A hypothalamus
Explanation:
A popular lab that can be performed by students is to test the reaction rate of catalase enzyme when it acts on the substrate hydrogen peroxide. Catalase has the ability to break down hydrogen peroxide. Catalase can be found in beef liver from the grocery store! However, if the beef liver is boiled first, the catalase will not be able to break down hydrogen peroxide. What is the variable affecting enzyme function
The variable affecting the enzyme action is temperature.
Explanation:Catalase is the enzyme which acts upon the "substrate hydrogen peroxide", breaking down them into water and oxygen gas. Each and every enzyme is a protein, which has a tertiary structure which is essential for the enzyme action. The tertiary structure of the enzyme provides the site of enzymatic action where the substrate do gets attached for the enzymatic action to take place.
Temperature, or heat, changes the protein structures irreversibly after a certain range. So if the beef liver is boiled, then the enzyme structure gets permanently changed, which is why the catalase cannot breakdown the peroxides, after boiling.
In the given experiment, the variable affecting enzyme function is temperature. The high temperatures achieved through boiling lead to the denaturation of the catalase enzyme in the beef liver, thus inhibiting its ability to breakdown hydrogen peroxide.
Explanation:In this experiment, the variable affecting enzyme function is the temperature. By boiling the beef liver, which contains the enzyme catalase, the heat alters the enzyme's shape or denatures it, thereby inhibiting its ability to function and interact effectively with its substrate - hydrogen peroxide. Enzymes like catalase are proteins, and their functionality is deeply tied to their structure. When the structure is altered due to high temperatures as in this case, the enzyme loses its ability to catalyze the reaction - hence, no breakdown of hydrogen peroxide.
The factor affecting the enzyme's activity here - temperature - is what is referred to as an environmental condition that impacts enzymatic function, alongside others such as pH and substrate concentration.
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The duck-billed platypus delivers its venom through what?
Answer:Spurs on it's hindlimbs
Explanation:the duck-billed platypus is has Spurs on it's hindlimbs that's secretes venom.this venom is for mating purpose and it's present only in males
The male duck-billed platypus has sharp spurs on its hind legs that deliver venom, causing severe pain and swelling. This is mainly used during territorial disputes in the mating season.
The duck-billed platypus delivers its venom through a pair of sharp spurs on the hind legs near the ankle, which are connected to a venom-producing gland in the thigh. This venom consists of a mixture of neuroactive peptides, which are short proteins. The male platypus uses his venomous barbs predominantly during mating season when competing for territory. While not typically lethal, a platypus's venom can cause severe pain and swelling that persists for an extended period.
Griffith's experiments with S. pneumoniae were significant because they showed that traits could be transferred from one organism to another. What else did he find that was significant?
a.Heat kills bacteria.
b.A virus made the bacteria pathogenic.
c.DNA was the genetic material.
d.The transferred traits were heritable.
e.Protein could not be the genetic material.
Answer:
d.The transferred traits were heritable.
Explanation:
Griffith's experiments with S. pneumoniae were significant because they showed that traits could be transferred from one organism to another and these transferred traits are known to be as heritable traits. In another experiment carried out by Hershey and Chase experiment it was confirmed by the results that DNA is actually the hereditary material not the protein.
Which of the following cells would have a different genetic composition than the other three in an animal with a diplontic life cycle? a. neuron b. bone c. cell kidney d. cell gamete
Answer:
D (Cell gamete)
Explanation:
A gamete is a sex cell while the other three cells in the options are somatic or body cells. The bone, kidney and nerve cells are regular types of body cells that do not perform any reproductive function. Hence, they contain two set of chromosomes (diploid) since they replicate through mitosis, which is a kind of cell division that gives rise to daughter cells with identical genetical composition. The animal has a diplontic life cycle, meaning that it is a diploid organism, hence it undergoes mitosis in its somatic cells to produce diploid somatic cells, which has the same genetic composition as the parent cell.
On the other hand, gametes are sex cells that arise from the meiotic division of reproductive cells. Meiosis, in contrary to mitosis, is a type of cell division that produces daughter cells with a reduced number of genetic material (chromosomes). The reproductive cells of a diploid (2n) animal undergoes meiosis to produce haploid (n) gametes (sperm in male, egg in female). These gametes contain half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell, making them genetically different from the parent cell.
These haploid gametes (sperm and egg) fuse together to result into a diploid organism.
What is the name of the clusters of lymphatic nodules located in the lining of the small intestine?
Answer:
The clusters of lymphatic nodules present in the inner lining of ileum is known as PEYER'S PATCH.
Explanation:
The lowest most part of the small intestine is known as ileum. In this part of intestine lymph nodules are present. Lymph nodules are small patch of lymphoid tissue inside the inner lining of respiratory system and urinary system.
These are named on the name of anotomist Hans Conrad Peyer. It is oval/round in shape and present inner lining of intestine.
They play a prominent role in immunologic responses. Like other lymph organs contain B and T lymphocytes.
Increased force output of the synergists for hip extension to compensate for the weakened gluteus maximus is an example of which of the following?
a. Wolff's law
b. Synergistic dominance
c. Autogenic inhibition
d. Davis's law
Answer:
b. Synergistic dominance
Explanation:
The stabilizing muscles will always be synergistic, since only from the synergies (hence the term synergist) that arise from joint work is efficient and controlled movement possible. However, not all synergists will be stabilizers. Stabilizer will be one that, thanks to the geometric arrangement of its fibers, will have the ability to maintain alignment in the joint and stable the axis of rotation.
In the case of knee extension, we would have as stabilizers all the antagonists who, because the flexion axis is virtual and not physical, must maintain the stability of said axis. If the axle were physical, such as the wheel in a horse carriage, or on a skateboard through the bearings, the antagonistic muscles would not be necessary for this purpose, because the fixed axis would maintain the position. Since the joints of living beings do not have a fixed physical axis, it is the muscles themselves, specifically the antagonists, who must be responsible for maintaining the stability of the joint creating a virtual axis on which rotation occurs.
One characteristic that distinguishes a population in an extinction vortex from most other populations is that:________.
A) its habitat is fragmented.
B) it is a rare, top-level predator.
C) its effective population size is much lower than its total population size.
D) its genetic diversity is very low.
Answer:
D - Its genetic diversity is very low
Explanation:
An extinction vortex can be defined as the process which populations in decline pass through to drive them into a vortex of smaller populations, endangering their survival as they tread the path to extinction.
Populations that fall to extinction vortex already have small populations which is usually as a result of certain powerful genetic factors, which cause the populations to continue to decline in size.
During genetic drift which occurs in all populations, small populations tend to lose genetic diversity as a result of the random nature of gamete sampling.
This is because any change in alleles in a small populations can have dastardly effects on the populations size due to a small gene pool.
What are possible negative effects of building a hydropower dam? Select the two correct answers.
1. decreased sanitation in the city
2. displacement of people living near the proposed dam
3. lower river water levels in other areas
4. decreased economic activity
5. increased water prices
Answer:
Decreased sanitation in the city / Displacement of people living near the proposed dam
Explanation:
Answer:
2. displacement of people living near the proposed dam
3. lower river water levels in other areas
Explanation:
A hydroelectric dam aims to dam and store water, the raw material for the production of hydroelectric energy. It is also the function of the dam to obtain the necessary gap to rotate the turbines of the generating units.
The hydroelectric dam can bring numerous benefits to society, however not everything is perfect when it comes to the use of hydroelectric energy, as there are also several problems related to this resource, among which we can mention: the displacement of people who live near the proposed dam , lower levels of river water in other areas, deforestation, loss of ecosystem balance, among others.
Which of the following foods is likely to keep a person satiated for the longest period of time?
a. a bean and cheese burrito
b. a serving of full-fat ice cream
c. a bowl of rice cereal in whole milk
d. a tossed salad with oil and vinegar dressing
Answer:
The correct answer is option a. "a bean and cheese burrito".
Explanation:
A bean and cheese burrito is a food that keeps a person satiated for a long period of time. Beans are legumes that are high in protein and fiber, two components that help people to have a feeling of satiation. Also, cheese contributes to the feeling of satiation, because in average it has 7 grams of protein per ounce and 5 to 10 grams of fat per ounce.
The most significant difference between archaea and bacteria is the:
a. presence of a single filament flagellum in bacteria.
b. absence of peptidoglycans in the cell walls of archaea.
c. absence of the 70S ribosomes in bacteria.
d. presence of fatty acids in the plasma membranes of archaea
Answer:
b. absence of peptidoglycans in the cell walls of archaea.
Explanation:
Archaea is a domain of unicellular organism (procaryotes) that live in extreme environments, their cell walls are made of pseudo peptidoglycan (similar in function to peptidoglycans but different in structure), on the other hand, bacteria's cell walls are made of peptidoglycan and lipopolysaccharide.
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Which of the following is true about gustatory receptors?
1. The receptors generate an action potential in response to chemical stimuli.
2. In order for a chemical to be sensed, it must be hydrophobic.
3. Complete adaptation occurs in about one to five minutes.
4. All gustatory receptors have the same threshold for activation.
The statement which is true is 3: adaptation is complete after five minutes of exposure to the stimulus.
What this means is that from the point when the tongue receives the stimulus, its sensation towards that stimulus begins to depreciate and in about five minutes, it is as is the stimulant is no longer present. This phenomenon is called adaptation.
Gustatory receptors are usually found on the tongue. They are responsible for the ability to detect and differentiate between one taste or flavor and another through a process called chemosensation.
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Final answer:
Gustatory receptors generate an action potential in response to chemical stimuli, can adapt to taste stimuli within one to five minutes, and have varying thresholds of activation. They can also detect both hydrophilic and hydrophobic compounds, not just hydrophobic ones. So the correct options are 1 and 3.
Explanation:
The question pertains to the characteristics of gustatory receptors, which are responsible for the sense of taste. Let's address each of the statements to clarify which is true:
The receptors generate an action potential in response to chemical stimuli. This is true. Gustatory receptors are activated by chemical compounds, such as Na+ for salty and H+ for sour. Sweet, bitter, and umami tastes require the binding of molecules to G-protein coupled receptors, triggering a signal transduction pathway that ultimately leads to the depolarization of gustatory cells and an action potential.In order for a chemical to be sensed, it must be hydrophobic. This statement is not true. Taste receptors can detect a variety of compounds, not limited to those that are hydrophobic.Complete adaptation occurs in about one to five minutes. This is generally true. Taste receptors can adapt to taste stimuli, although the time can vary.All gustatory receptors have the same threshold for activation. This is not true. Different gustatory receptors have different thresholds for activation, as they are specialized for detecting different types of tastes.Match the following. 1 . cytokinesis The chemical unit or building block of protein 2 . protein Having two layers 3 . biochemical A chemical substance coming from an organism 4 . bilayer Rod-shaped structure contains the genes 5 . glucose Causes the separation of the cytoplasm 6 . polar Segments of DNA contained on chromosomes 7 . nucleic acid Blood sugar used by the cells in the production of energy 8 . phospholipid A group of biochemicals including DNA and RNA 9 . amino acid Makes up the plasma membrane together with protein 10 . genes Having slightly negative and positive charged ends 11 . chromosome A long chain molecule made up of amino acids
Answer:
1.cytokinesis ----Causes the separation of the cytoplasm
2 . protein ----A long chain molecule made up of amino acids
3 . biochemical ---A chemical substance coming from an organism
4 . bilayer ---Having two layers
5 . glucose ----Blood sugar used by the cells in the production of energy
6 . polar ----Having slightly negative and positive charged ends
7 . nucleic acid ----A group of biochemicals including DNA and RNA
8 . phospholipid ----Makes up the plasma membrane together with protein
9 . amino acid---The chemical unit or building block of protein
10 . genes-----Segments of DNA contained on chromosomes
11 . chromosome ----Rod-shaped structure contains the genes
Based on diversity, life is divided into Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya. These groupings are called _____.a. kingdoms
b. domains
c. species
d. class
Answer:
b. domains is the correct answer
Explanation:
A domain is a taxonomic classification higher than the kingdom level.
The three-domain system proposed by Carl Woese.
The three domains classification
Bacteria: they have no nuclear membrane.Examples: Cyanobacteria, Actinobacteria
Archaea: are prokaryotic and they do have a nuclear membrane.Examples: methanogens, thermoacidophile
Eukarya: they have a membrane-bounded nucleus.Examples: Saccharomycotina,Bryophytes
All your cells contain proto-oncogenes, which can change into cancer-causing genes. Why do cells possess such potential time bombs?
The given question is incomplete. The complete question is:
Question: All your cells contain proto-oncogenes, which can change into cancer-causing genes. Why do cells possess such potential time bombs?
A. Cells produce proto-oncogenes as a by-product of mitosis.
B. Proto-oncogenes are necessary for the normal control of cell growth and division.
C. Proto-oncogenes protect cells from infection by cancer-causing viruses.
D. Proto-oncogenes are unavoidable environmental carcinogens.
E. Proto-oncogenes are genetic junk that has not yet been eliminated by natural selection.
Answer:
B. Proto-oncogenes are necessary for the normal control of cell growth and division.
Explanation:
The process of cell division is under tight regulation by a family of extracellular growth factors, specific proteins that trigger cell division and the tumor suppressor genes that normally inhibit cell division. Defects in these genes can lead to cancer.
For example, the protein encoded by tumor suppressor gene p53 stimulates the synthesis of p21 which in turn inhibits the cyclin-cdk2 to block entry of G1 cells into the S phase until the DNA is repaired. Mutations in tumor suppressor genes retinoblastoma and p53 allow cells to proceed to the S phase irrespective of DNA repair.
Likewise, a mutation in ras proto-oncogene encodes a protein with no GTPase activity. The mutant Ras protein is always in its activated form, regardless of the signals from normal receptors. This makes the cells to divide in an uncontrolled manner.
Proto-oncogenes are genes essential for normal cell function, however, when mutated, they may cause uncontrolled cell division leading to cancer. Other factors, such as underactive tumor suppressor genes and epigenetic changes, can also contribute to cancer development. Active research is underway to utilize the reversibility of these changes for cancer treatment.
Explanation:Every cell in our body contains proto-oncogenes, which are essential for normal cell function and growth. However, these can mutate into oncogenes, setting off the equivalent of biological 'bombs' by causing uncontrolled cell proliferation, leading to cancers such as Burkett's Lymphoma. Proto-oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes work in tandem, like the accelerator and brakes of a car, to control cell cycle. Unwanted cell division and proliferation can occur due to three main scenarios: proto-oncogenes becoming overactive, tumor suppressor genes becoming underactive, or through epigenetic alterations.
Epigenetic changes such as methylation and deacetylation can silence genes, and these changes are common in cancer. Because these changes are temporary and reversible, designing drugs and therapies that can reverse these changes is an area of active research in cancer treatment.
Other proteins that influence the cell cycle, in addition to cyclins and cell-surface receptors for growth factors, have potential oncogenetic properties. An example is the Cdk gene, which when altered, can speed up cell cycle progression.
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3. A farmer notices that one group of his plants is producing twice as much corn as the plants in a second field. He wants to know how he can double his production in all his fields. This is an example of which step of the Scientific Method? (1 point)
Answer: observation
Explanation: scientific method is the process which scientists use to provide an accurate and reliable explanation to a phenomenon.
It usually involves the observation and description of a occurrence,the formulation of hypothesis to explain the occurrence and then experiments to test the accuracy of the hypothesis.the experiments may prove the hypothesis right or prove it wrong,in which case the hypothesis may be modified or discarded.
In this case the farmer has noticed the yields in his crops and he might bring an explanation(hypothesis) that seems reasonable to him and will have to test the hypothesis to verify it.
Which kind of a allele results in the trait indicated by the green color being expressed in the individuals shown here
Answer:
Dominant
Explanation:
In the top row of the pedigree, there is an affected heterozygous male, and an unaffected homozygous female. Of their children, 2 are affected (a male and a female) and 2 are unaffected (a male and a female). The unaffected individuals are both homozygous for the w allele, and the affected individuals are both heterozygous, possessing a copy of the W allele from their father. Because it affects males and females, and only one copy of an allele is required to show the green trait, the green allele is dominant.
Answer:
The answer is:
Proteins around which the long, linear strands of DNA are wrapped; they serve to keep the DNA untangled and to enable an orderly, tight, and efficient packing of the DNA within the cellis called_____________.
Answer:
The correct answer is- Histone
Explanation:
DNA is approximately 2.2 m long thread which has to be adjusted in a microscopic nucleus so DNA must be in a supercoiled form to be present in the nucleus and this supercoiling of DNA is done on histone protein.
Histone protein is a positively charged protein that is made up of eight proteins so it is called histone octamer. Each histone has 2 copies of each protein that is H2A, H2B, H3, and H4.
DNA is negatively charged and histone protein is positively charged therefore DNA wraps around histone protein which causes the packaging of DNA. So the correct answer is histone protein.
Why can many different species coexist and thrive in areas close to the equator?
Answer:
Equatorial climatic conditions discourage any one species from dominating the ecosystem and encourage biodiversity
Explanation:
A fluid-filled sac that decreases friction where a tendon rubs against a bone near a synovial joint is called a/an
Answer:
The correct answer will be -Bursae
Explanation:
A bursa is a thin, fluid-filled connective tissue sac present around the synovial joints where it helps reduces the fiction caused by the rubbing of the bones, ligaments and tendons. The bursae are classified on the basis of their presence in the human body.
The Bursae reduce the friction by between two structures of the skeletal system by physically separating the adjacent structures due to the presence of the fluid.
Thus, Bursae is the correct answer.
A client comes into the urgent care center to have sutures removed on an arm. The nurse finds significant crusting along the suture line. The client claims to have not had time to get the sutures removed a week prior, as directed. The nurse soaks the crust and attempts to remove the sutures. As the nurse attempts the suture removal, the client frequently pulls the arm away and tells the nurse, "You do not know what you are doing." In response, the nurse should answer:
A. "I am sorry this is hurting but you are hurting my feelings."
B. "You are the cause of the problem here. I do not have to tolerate this behavior, and you are free to leave."
C. "How would you know if I know what I am doing or not?"
D. "Sir, I understand this is uncomfortable, but I assure you I am experienced with this task and would like to continue."
The nurse should respond with patience and professionalism, reassuring the client of their competency, while acknowledging the client's discomfort.
Explanation:In a health care setting, it is essential for healthcare professionals to maintain patience and professionalism, even when dealing with difficult patients. Based on the options provided, the best response the nurse can make in this scenario is:
D. "Sir, I understand this is uncomfortable, but I assure you I am experienced with this task and would like to continue."
This response displays empathy toward the client's discomfort but also reassures the client about the nurse's competency and experience. The other options are not professional and do not adequately address the client's concerns or behaviors.
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A laminectomy is a surgical procedure to remove part of the ________ to relieve pressure on the dorsal nerve roots.a) vertebra
b) brainc) spinal cordd) myelin
Answer:
a) vertebra
Explanation:
A laminectomy is a surgical procedure performed to remove the lamina, a vertebral bone, in order to ease pressure on the spinal cord that causes back pain, numbness on the legs and even problems to control bladder or bowel movements.
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Which organisms are capable of converting gaseous nitrogen in the air into a form that other living organisms can use? (1 point)
a. nitrogen-fixing bacteria
b. denitrifying bacteria
c. decomposers
d. producers
Answer:
The correct option is A.
Explanation:
Nitrogen fixing bacteria: They are defined as the micro-organism which are capable of transforming atmospheric nitrogen into fixed nitrogen, this nitrogen is used by living organisms. They are basically two types:
1) One is free living bacteria such as blue-green algae (cyanobacteria), Azotobacter, and Clostridium.
2) Second is symbiotic bacteria such as Rhizobium which are symbiotic relationship with leguminous plants.
Dona is interested in cutting back on her calorie intake. Which nutrient offers the highest number of calories per gram?
1. Fat 2. Carbs 3. Protein 4. Vitamins
Answer:
The correct answer will be option- Fats
Explanation:
The cellular respiration can produce energy from the three substrates: Carbohydrates, proteins and Fat, the most favoured of which is Carbohydrates.
The Carbohydrates on oxidation produces 4 calories per gram, proteins also produce 4 calories per gram whereas Fats produces 9 calories per gram.
The Fats produces the highest amount of energy as fats require more oxidation to release water and carbon dioxide as compared to Carbohydrates.
Since fats provide the highest amount of energy, therefore, option- fat is the correct answer.
Restricting food and beverage intake by ______ kilocalories per day below calorie needs typically leads to a weight loss of about1 pound per week.
a) 200
b) 400
c) 500
Answer:The correct answer is 500
Explanation:
To lose 1 pound per week of fats, it's estimated that you should burn about 3,500 calories because 3,500 calories equals about 1 pound.So, if you reduce 500 to 1000 calories a day from your daily diet , you will lose about 1 to 2 pounds a week.
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The hormone __________ stimulates the secretion of pancreatic digestive enzymes and stimulates gallbladder contraction.
a. Gastrin
b. Secretin
c. Cholecystokinin
d. Somatostatin
Answer: option B) Secretin
Explanation:
Secretin is an enzyme formed by the upper intestinal layer and gets transported by blood to the PANCREAS which it stimulates: causing the flow of pancreatic juice, also the flow of bile and intestinal juice but to a lesser extent.
Alongside Gastrin, Secretin is one of the hormones of the Gastrointestinal tract; but their functions differ
Therefore, Secretin is the answer
In general, what is the primary ecological role of prokaryotes?
A. breaking down organic matter
B. serving as primary producers in terrestrial environments
C. adding methane to the atmosphere
D. parasitizing eukaryotes, thus causing diseases
E. metabolizing materials in extreme environments
Answer:
The correct answer is A. breaking down organic matter
Explanation:
Bacteria and archaea are the domains that come under prokaryotes. These organisms lack nucleus. They play an important role in the nutrient cycle. Most of these organisms are heterotrophs and consume organic matter to gain energy.
They play an important role in breaking down the organic matter and releasing the nutrient from them in the environment so they helps in circulating the nutrients in the ecosystem.
For example, different methanogens and acid-forming bacteria decompose organic waste of industry and agriculture and produce manure and biogas during anaerobic decomposition. So the correct answer is A.
The primary ecological role of prokaryotes is to break down organic matter, which is crucial in the carbon and nitrogen cycles for maintaining balance within ecosystems.
Primary Ecological Role of Prokaryotes
The primary ecological role of prokaryotes is breaking down organic matter. Prokaryotes are essential in nutrient cycling, particularly in the carbon and nitrogen cycles. They decompose dead organisms, returning vital nutrients to the environment, and fix nitrogen to make it accessible to plants. Additionally, some prokaryotes are involved in bioremediation, where they clean up pollutants from the environment. Prokaryotes also contribute to the production of oxygen and some even inhabit human bodies, providing health benefits and aiding digestion. In ecosystems, they play various roles that are critical to maintaining the balance and supporting life.
this is the process of making a process of making a prediction based on the results of prior observations of similar events.
Answer:
Inference
Explanation:
Please see the attachment
Answer:inference
Explanation:it worked please try it
Which of the following is the term for an abnormally low white blood cell count?
Answer:
The correct answer is- Leukopenia
Explanation:
White blood cells are present in our blood which protect our body from foreign antigens like bacteria, viruses, etc. When these white blood cells decrease abnormally in number then this condition is called leukopenia.
White blood cells contain different cell which protect our body from different type of infections. So there are different types of leukopenia according to the particular white blood cell whose number became low.
For example when neutrophils number in the body decrease it is called neutropenia. So the correct answer is leukopenia.
Leukopenia is the term for an abnormally low white blood cell count which increases individual's risk for disease due to immune system weakness.
Explanation:The term for an abnormally low white blood cell count is Leukopenia. This condition occurs when too few leukocytes (white blood cells) are in the blood. A low white blood cell count leaves the individual at a higher risk for disease since these cells play a significant role in the immune system. Their production begins in the bone marrow, and abnormalities with this can cause deficient counts. Matters are further complicated when abnormally low lymphocyte counts occur, as a result of chronic illness or immunosuppression.
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