Answer:
A)True
Explanation:
Nutrient Agar is a nutrient medium used for the growth of microbes supporting growth of a vast number of organisms. Nutrient agar is popular because it can grow a variety of types of bacteria and fungi, and contains many nutrients needed for the bacterial growth.Nutrient agar provides these resources for many types of microbes, from fungi like yeast and mold to common bacteria such as Streptococcus and Staphylococcus. The microbes that can be grown on complex media such as nutrient agar can be described as nonfastidious organisms.
Agar is falsely believed to be a nutrient for bacteria; it's actually a solidification agent used in growth media to provide a physical matrix for bacterial cultures, not a nutritional one.
Explanation:The statement that agar is an excellent nutrient for bacteria is false. Agar is a polysaccharide derived from red algae, used commonly in microbiology laboratories for culturing bacteria and other microorganisms; however, it is not a nutrient source for them. Instead, agar serves as a solidification agent in growth media, providing a stable matrix to embed the nutrients that bacteria require for growth but itself does not contribute nutritionally. The primary role of agar in these media is to form a gelatinous solid matrix upon cooling, which bacteria cannot digest, making it ideal for observing the growth and behavior of microorganisms on a solid surface. Agar is mixed with various nutrients and then poured into petri dishes, test tubes, or other containers to solidify into agar plates, agar slants, and agar deeps, serving different purposes in microbial cultivation.
The secondary structure of proteins results because of _____ bonding between molecules in the protein molecules' backbone.
Answer:
Hydrogen bonding
Explanation:
The newly synthesised proteins as a result of the process of translation are linear structures formed by linear arrangement of amino acids.
The linear structure of a protein is known as the primary structure which changes its conformation and take the shape of either the helix or the pleated sheet. This helical or pleated sheet structure is known as a secondary structure.
The secondary structure is formed due to the bond formed between the hydrogen of the carbonyl group and the amino group which form the backbone of the protein structure. The hydrogen bond causes the linear polypeptide to form spiral helical or bend pleated sheet.
Thus, Hydrogen bonding is the correct answer.
The secondary structure of proteins is due to hydrogen bonding between molecules in the protein's backbone. This helps form the overall shape of the protein, influencing its function.
Explanation:The secondary structure of proteins results due to the hydrogen bonding between molecules in the protein molecules' backbone. This hydrogen bonding occurs between the oxygen atom of one amino acid and the nitrogen atom of another. It leads to the formation of alpha-helix and beta-pleated sheet structures in the protein. These secondary structures contribute towards the overall three-dimensional shape of the protein molecule, which in turn, influences its function in our bodies.
Learn more about protein structure here:https://brainly.com/question/33651793
#SPJ6
Which statements explain how lakes form? Check all that apply. Lava flows block a river. Streams flow into shallow areas. Groundwater feeds into low-lying areas. Ice sheets leave depressions that fill with water. Movement of Earth's crust creates low areas that fill with water.
Options A,D,E
lakes formed by:
Lava flows block a river.Ice sheets leave depressions that fill with water. Movement of Earth's crust creates low areas that fill with water.Explanation:
Lakes that develop in the holes of volcanoes are infinite in regions that are obedient to volcanic action. Lava spills from volcanic action can also create lakes. Enormous chunks of ice are sliced off and concealed by silt and pebbles. Meanwhile, the ice melts, the grit and pebbles cave in, bequeathing a deep gap at back.
These stew pots may produce substantial quagmires or lakes. As the huge portion of ice flows, outpourings design below the icebergs. A depression develops when an inadequate segment of the earth’s crust divides, ending in an earthquake. Rainfall and groundwater may accumulate in this depression, producing a lake.
The town council wanted to beautify the streets by planting trees along the curbs in front of houses whose trees had died, Melinda refused to have new trees planted at her curb_________.
Answer:
The options
A. Comma splice
B. Fused sentence
The CORRECT ANSWER IS A.
A. Comma splice
Explanation:
In English grammar, a comma splice can also be called a comma fault.
It occurs when the comma is uesd to join two independent clauses or complete sentences with a comma and no conjunction.
This form of writing is often used in literary writing to portrait a certain mood of informality.
A comma splices can be corrected in three varying ways such as:
-using a coordinating conjunction (for, and, nor, but, or, yet, so) to come right after the comma.
-converting the comma to semicolon.
-converting the comma to a period
When an active tooth in the shark’s jaws is lost or worn down, many spare teeth lie in seemingly limitless reserve, each of which are ready to slide into the appropriate position.A. When an active tooth in the shark’s jaws is lost or worn down, many spare teeth lie in seemingly limitless reserve, each of which are ready to slide into the appropriate position.B. Whenever an active tooth is lost or worn down, many spare teeth lie in seemingly limitless reserve in the shark’s jaws, which are each ready to slide into the appropriate position.C. Many spare teeth lie in seemingly limitless reserve in the shark’s jaws, each one of which are ready to slide into the appropriate position when an active tooth is lost or worn down.D. The many spare teeth lying in seemingly limitless reserve in the shark’s jaws, each one of which is ready to slide into the appropriate position whenever an active tooth is lost or worn down.E. In the shark’s jaws, many spare teeth lie in seemingly limitless reserve, each one ready to slide into the appropriate position whenever an active tooth is lost or worn down.
Answer:
This is an English Language question and I need to choose the most appropriate option.
The answer is Option E
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because 'each of which' is supposed to be followed by a singular verb 'is' and not 'are'. 'When' is used incorrectly here.
Option B is incorrect because 'which' is not introducing an meaningful non-defining clause in the statement. It is referring to the shark's jaws. The first two clauses are not connected to 'which'.
Option C is incorrect. 'Each one of which are ready' should be 'each one of which is ready'. It is also referring to the shark's jaw.
Option D is Incorrect. The use of a present continuous verb 'lying' is incorrect. The first clause also has not meaning.
Option E is correct.
Neuroglia do not conduct impulses; they protect the nervous system through phagocytosis by engulfing and digesting any unwanted substances.
A. True
B. False
Answer:
Answer is A. True.
Explanation:
The neuroglia are not neurons but are also found in the nervous system. And their functions include the support they render to the neurons, and maintain the equilibrium of the nervous system.
There are various examples of neuroglia, and they are found in both central nervous system and peripheral nervous system.
Those that are found in the central nervous system include,
1. Oligodendrocytes.....which provide structural frame work.
2. Microglia...they remove waste by phagocytosis.
3. Astrocytes.... they maintain blood brain barrier.
4. Ependymal.... help in the production of cerebrospinal fluid.
Those in the peripheral nervous system include
1. Satellite cells.....they regulate nutrients.
2. Schwann cells...they myelinate axons
Which member of the interprofessional team in a palliative care setting serves as the client advocate, evaluating the physical, emotional, and spiritual needs of the client?
Answer:
Nurse.
Explanation:
The health care professionals include the doctors, nurses and the other members of the medical emergency services. There main is to take care the health of the diseased patient.
The nursing profession includes all the nurses that study about the management of the health care. The U.S. has done a lot to save the nursing profession and to increase their status in the society. The nurses evaluates the physical, mental and social health of the client.
Thus, the correct answer is nurse.
Systematists have used a wide variety of traits to reconstruct the phylogenies of particular groups of organisms. Which one of the following traits produces a good estimate of phylogeny . A. Gross Morphological Traits B. Molecular Traits C. Biochemical Traits D. Behavioural Traits
Answer:
Answer is all the options are correct. A, B, C and D.
Explanation:
Systematists are the biologists that developed system of classification and naming of organisms.
On this aspect, gross morphological traits described the collective structures of an organism. It referred to all the structures that are found internally and externally.
The biochemical traits and molecular traits described the genetic variability of an organism. In this case, they explained that trait is an important feature in an organism.
The behavioral traits described some actions which are particularly found to be specific to certain species of organism.
Among the given traits, molecular traits generally provide the most accurate phylogeny because they offer specific information about an organism's evolutionary history. Gross morphological, biochemical, and behavioural traits can also be important but may be less precise.
Explanation:Systematists utilize various traits to reconstruct the phylogenies of different groups of organisms. While all the traits are important in their own right, molecular traits tend to produce the most accurate estimate of phylogeny. This is because DNA sequences and other molecular characteristics can provide specific information about an organism's evolutionary history. Gross morphological traits may not always clearly reflect phylogenetic relationships due to convergent evolution while behavioural traits can vary greatly even within the same species. Biochemical traits are also important but molecular traits offer a level of precision that is very useful for systematics.
Learn more about Phylogeny here:https://brainly.com/question/32392044
#SPJ3
What are the characteristic of water-soluble hormones?
Final answer:
Water-soluble hormones, deriving mostly from amino acids or peptides, cannot diffuse through cell membranes due to their hydrophilic nature and therefore bind to external cell receptors, unlike lipid-soluble hormones which can traverse cell membranes and bind to internal receptors.
Explanation:
Characteristics of Water-Soluble Hormones
The main characteristic of water-soluble hormones is that they are not able to diffuse through the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane due to their hydrophilic nature. These hormones typically derive from amino acids (such as epinephrine and norepinephrine) or are peptides (like oxytocin and growth hormone). They must bind to receptors on the surface of target cells because they cannot traverse the cell membrane on their own. Once bound, these hormones trigger a signal cascade inside the cell, often involving second messengers such as cAMP (cyclic Adenosine Monophosphate).
In contrast, lipid-soluble hormones, which are derived from lipids like cholesterol, can diffuse directly through the cell membrane and interact with receptors inside the cell. These include steroid hormones such as estrogen and testosterone. These lipid-soluble hormones also tend to transport in the bloodstream bound to specific proteins that maintain their solubility.
In summary, water-soluble hormones are usually amino acid-derived or peptide hormones that are hydrophilic and require cell surface receptors to exert their effects, cannot directly pass through the cell membrane, and circulate the bloodstream in a free form rather than bound to transport proteins.
Final answer:
Water-soluble hormones are hydrophilic, amino acid-derived or peptides that bind to cell surface receptors, triggering actions through second messengers since they cannot directly enter cells. They circulate freely in the bloodstream.
Explanation:
Characteristics of Water-Soluble Hormones
The characteristics of water-soluble hormones pertain to their molecular structure, transport in the bloodstream, and mechanism of action within the target cells. Unlike lipid-soluble hormones such as steroid hormones, water-soluble hormones are generally amino acid-derived or peptides and are not able to diffuse directly across the lipid bilayer of cell membranes.
Since these hormones are hydrophilic, they cannot penetrate the cell membrane. Thus, they bind to specific membrane-bound receptor molecules on the surface of the target cells. This binding triggers a series of biochemical events within the cell, often involving so-called second messenger molecules, which then leads to the desired response.
Water-soluble hormones circulate in the bloodstream in a free form, without the need for transport proteins. This is in contrast to steroid and thyroid hormones that circulate in the blood bound to specific transport proteins like Thyroxine Binding Globulin (TBG).
In many animal cells, the uptake of glucose into the cell occurs by a cotransport mechanism, in which glucose is cotransported with Na^+ ions. Complete the diagram below using the following steps. Drag the pink labels to the pink targets, indicating the relative concentration at glucose inside and outside the cell. Drag the correct white target to the white target, indicating the direction that Na^+ ions and glucose move through the cotransporter Drag the blue labels to complete the sentences on the right, indicating how Na^+ ions and glucose move through the cotransporter relative to their electrochemical and concentration gradients.
Answer:
(a) Outside the Cell
(Is the opposite of what takes place inside the cell)
[Na+] high
[glucose] low
(b) For glucose-sodium cotransporter
{glucose} down
{Na+} down
1. {Na+}
flows downward to its electrochemical gradient.
2. {Glucose}
flows across its concentration gradient.
(c) Inside the cell
(Is the opposite of what takes place outside the cell)
[Na+] low
[glucose] high
Glucose uptake in animal cells via cotransport involves the sodium-glucose symporter, which uses the energy from Na+ ions moving down their electrochemical gradient to transport glucose against its concentration gradient into the cell, a process known as secondary active transport.
Explanation:The Mechanism of Glucose Uptake by Cotransport
The uptake of glucose into many animal cells is facilitated by a cotransport mechanism involving the sodium-glucose symporter. In this process, the sodium-potassium pump (Na+/K+ ATPase) actively maintains a low concentration of Na+ ions inside the cell, creating an electrochemical gradient. Glucose enters the cell via the symporter, which is situated on the apical surface of the cell membrane. The symporter allows Na+ ions to flow down their electrochemical gradient into the cell, providing the necessary energy for glucose to be transported into the cell against its concentration gradient. Once inside, glucose moves to the basal membrane by facilitated diffusion, eventually exiting into the interstitial space and then into the blood.
The Na+/glucose symporter specifically transports two Na+ ions along with one glucose molecule. This type of transport is known as secondary active transport, which relies on the primary active transport carried out by the Na+/K+ ATPase. The influx of Na+ ions into the cell drives the uphill movement of glucose against its concentration gradient, highlighting the symport's role as a secondary active transporter.
The relative concentration of glucose inside the cell would typically be higher than outside, due to the cell's use of glucose for energy. Nevertheless, the action of the sodium-potassium pump ensures the movement of glucose into the cell by this cotransport mechanism. The direction that Na+ ions and glucose move through the cotransporter is into the cell, which is facilitated by the establishment of the sodium gradient by the Na+/K+ ATPase.
Carley loves to swim because she feels so fantastic afterward. In fact, she has learned that whenever she wants a rush of natural adrenaline, she needs to swim forty laps in the pool. Carley keeps this habit up for years because she likes the outcome she gets each time. What does this demonstrate?
Answer:
Carley has become operantly conditioned.
Explanation:
Operant conditioning can be described as a method of learning which focuses on the rewards or punishments that will be given in course for an action. As Carley has learned that whenever she wants a rush of natural adrenaline, she needs to swim forty laps in the pool, she considers it to be a reward. Such type of practices behaviour demonstrates operant conditioning.
The nurse is instructing a patient with recurrent hyperkalemia about following a potassium-restricted diet. Which of the following patient statements indicates the need for additional instruction?
a) "I need to check if my cola beverage has potassium in it."
b) "I will not salt my food, instead I'll use salt substitute."
c) "I'll drink cranberry juice with my breakfast instead of coffee."
d) "Bananas have a lot of potassium in them, I'll stop buying them."
Answer:
"I will not salt my food, instead I'll use salt substitute."
Explanation:
Hyperkalemia may be defined as the medical condition in which the individual has high level of potassium in the body. This hyperkalemia can cause different diseases like cardiac arrest and can also cause death.
The hyperkalemia must be treated on time. The individual must be on low potassium diet. Avoid medicines that can increase the potassium levels and the administration of the sodium bicarbonates. The salt that has low potassium and high sodium concentration must be included in the diet.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
Natural selection suggests that creatures with mutations disadvantageous to survival will not live to reproduce, yet there are examples, such as albino animals, found occasionally. Do these exceptions discredit natural selection? Explain your answer.
Answer:
No, these exceptions do not discredit natural selection.
Explanation:
Natural selection tends to favour those organisms which are better adapted to live in an environment. But it does not completely remove the other organisms from the world that are less adapted to live in an environment. Usually, the number of these organisms that are not favoured by natural selection is very less as compared to the number of organisms which are favoured by natural selection. As we see, the number of albino animals is far lesser as compared to their wild-type animals.
Answer: These types of exceptions do NOT discredit natural selection.
Explanation:
Natural selection is based on the odds that certain traits will not adapt well in certain environments and ecosystems. It recognizes that organisms with mutations may be disadvantageous or not since the mutation is non-specific. In instances such as albinoism, the mutation is more likely to be disadvantageous though in some environments (like the desert) it could be a benefit. Natural selection is not an exact science or absolute rule, it is based on probabilities and variations, so exceptions will always exist.
Suppose that exposure to a chemical mutagen results in a change in the sequence that alters the 5' end of intron 1 (I₁). What might occur?
a. loss of the gene product
b. loss of E₁
c. premature stop to the mRNA
d. inclusion of I1 in the mRNA
e. exclusion of E2
Answer:
d. inclusion of I1 in the mRNA
Explanation:
Introns are any nucleotide sequence within the gene that is non-coding and it is usually removed by RNA splicing.
When an RNA transcript is made, it is considered as pre-mRNA. The pre-RNA contains both the introns and the exons. For it to mature into mRNA, the introns should be spliced and the exons are joined together to form the mRNA.
A mutation might result to the intron I1 not getting spliced hence it will be included in the mRNA.
Answer the following questions.1. List and describe the anatomical components that make up a muscle fiber. 2. List the components of a motor unit. 3. What are the steps in excitation–contraction coupling? 4. What is the role of calcium in muscle contraction? 5. Describe the sliding filament theory. How do muscle fibers shorten? 6. What are the basic characteristics that differ between type I and type II muscle fibers? 7. What is the role of genetics in determining the proportions of muscle fiber types and the potential for success in selected activities? 8. Describe the relation between muscle force development and the recruitment of type I and type II motor units. 9. Explain, and give examples of, how concentric, static, and eccentric contractions differ. 10. What two mechanisms are used by the body to increase force production in a single muscle? 11. What is the optimal length of a muscle for maximal force development? 12. What is the relation between maximal force development and the speed of shortening (concentric) and lengthening (eccentric) contractions? 13. In muscle contraction, what roles are played by the protein titin? 14. Why do previously trained muscles adapt more quickly to retraining after a period of disuse?
The Calcium bind with actin and troponin is removed that was blocking. Now myosin can attach and start contracting.
What made the Muscular system?
The muscular system of a body is made up of muscles and muscles are made up of millions of muscle fibers.
A muscle fiber is made up of small units called sarcomere, which contains actin and myosin fibers.
A muscle contracts when action potential spread in the sarcomere space the calcium is released due to action potential.
Calcium bind with actin and troponin is removed that was blocking. Now myosin can attach and start contracting.
Therefore, the Calcium bind with actin and troponin is removed that was blocking. Now myosin can attach and start contracting.
Learn more about the Muscular system:
https://brainly.com/question/25289187
alternative versions of the same gene, like purple and white flower color, are termed____.
Answer: Alleles
Explanation: Alleles are described as either dominant or recessive depending on their associated traits.
In a study of genetic variation of the Graceland gene, a researcher finds that there are two alleles in a population. In a large sample (500 individuals), the frequency of heterozygotes is 0.63. Is the population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. You come back after 500 generations have past and observe that the frequency of heterozygotes is still 0.63. You conclude that the population is experiencing selection. Which type of selection is the population most likely experiencing?
Answer:
grrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrr
Explanation:
shart
Population genetics is a science that uses mathematical formulas and markers to measure genetic variety to study the genetic makeup and distribution, as well as its impacts.
What is population genetics?Its objective is to assess allele, phenotypic, and genotypic frequencies in populations of living things. By doing so, it will be possible to comprehend the dynamics and origin of genetic variation and make predictions about the effects of one or more evolutionary processes on these compositions over the course of generations.
Population genetics in this context aims to uncover an evolutionary explanation for genetic variation in living things and to better comprehend the evolutionary processes that influence it.
Numerous applications of population genetic diversity research include disease and vector surveillance, species management and conservation, genetic enhancement of plants and animals, and genetic variation.
Therefore, Population genetics is a science that uses mathematical formulas and markers to measure genetic variety to study the genetic makeup and distribution, as well as its impacts.
To learn more about genetic variation, refer to the link:
https://brainly.com/question/848479
#SPJ1
Neuroimaging techniques such as PET suggest a link between Capgras syndrome and abnormalities in each of the following brain regions EXCEPT the?
Answer:
fusiform face area.
Explanation:
If you were designing this experiment for a fertilizer manufacturer, what changes would you make in the experimental design to be confident that your results would be accepted as fact by the scientific community? Explain your answer
Answer:
You have not stated the experiment that is being done here.
I want to believe it is The experimental design and fertilizer applications for organic manures
Explanation:
You need to test some plants in the experiment more than once. This test needs to be carried out on different plants so as to confirm its importance.
Some factors needs to be considered like the different types of fertilizers available and these need to be tested.
Change the abiotic and biotic factors to determine productivity.
Which of the following exposure factors will produce the greatest receptor exposure?
A: 100 mA, 50 ms
B: 200 mA, 40 ms
C: 400 mA, 70 ms
D: 600 mA, 30 ms
400 mA, 70 ms is the following exposure factors will produce the greatest receptor exposure.
C: 400 mA, 70 ms
Explanation:
As SID builds, the introduction rate diminishes and receptor presentation diminishes. SID and the mAs required to keep up the introduction to the IR have a straightforwardly corresponding relationship (as the SID builds, the mAs required to keep up presentation to the IR increments by a corresponding sum).
An expanded SID likewise decreases amplification (size twisting). The most extreme SID ought to be utilized when conceivable to limit amplification. Infrequently, however, the SID can be purposefully diminished for amplification. SID influences size yet not shape twisting.
Two true-breeding stocks of pea plants are crossed. One parent has red, axial flowers and the other has white, terminal flowers; all Fâ individuals have red, axial flowers. The genes for flower color and location assort independently.48) Among the Fâ offspring, what is the probability of plants with white axial flowers?A) 9/16B) 1/16C) 3/16D) 1/8E) 1/4
Answer:
The correct option is C) 3/16
Explanation:
A dihybrid cross can be described as a cross in which two traits are studies at a time. The alleles for each trait will assort independently. To depict the outcomes of a cross, a punnet square can be generated.
According to the scenario mentioned in the question 9/16 plants will have red, axial flowers. 3/16 plants will have red, terminal flowers. 3/16 plants will have white, axial flowers. 1/16 will have white, terminal flowers.
The probability of plants with white axial flowers among the F2 offspring is 1/16 (option B).
What is the probability of obtaining plants with white axial flowers among the F2 offspring?In this cross, the genes for flower color and location assort independently. Since both parents are true-breeding for their respective traits, they are homozygous for flower color and location.
One parent has red axial flowers (RRaa), while the other parent has white terminal flowers (rrAA). In the F1 generation, all individuals have red axial flowers (RrAa) because the dominant traits (red color and axial location) mask the recessive ones (white color and terminal location).
Among the possible combinations, only one genotype (rraa) will result in plants with white axial flowers. Since there are 16 possible combinations (4 x 4), the probability of obtaining plants with white axial flowers is 1/16.
Read more about Genetics
brainly.com/question/12111570
#SPJ6
Assuming complete dominance, a phenotypic ratio of ________ is expected from a monohybrid sib or self-cross. A) 1:1 B) 2:1 C) 3:1 D) 5:2 E) 3:2
Answer:
C (3:1)
Explanation:
Gregor Mendel was able to portray complete dominance of an allele over another when he crossed two purebreeding plants; one homozygous for red flowers and the other for white flowers. He discovered that all the F1 offsprings were red-flowered. Hence, he came up with his law of dominance.
He self-crossed the F1 offsprings which were all hybrids or heterozygous i.e. contained a combined allele in their genotype. He discovered that the offsprings produced a phenotypic ratio of 3:1 i.e 3 red-flowered plants to 1 white-flowered plant
The red-flowered plants have genotypes RR, Rr and Rr respectively while the white-flowered plant have a rr genotype.
In a monohybrid cross in genetics, assuming complete dominance, the phenotypic ratio would be 3:1. This reflects Gregor Mendel's principles of inheritance where one trait is dominant over the other.
Explanation:The subject of your question deals with genetics, more specifically mono-hybrid cross, which is a method used in biology to determine the probability of an offspring having a particular genotype. Assuming complete dominance, in a monohybrid cross, the phenotypic ratio is typically 3:1.
This is targeted in Gregor Mendel's principles of inheritance where one trait is completely dominant over the other. To illustrate, if we cross a heterozygous dominant (Aa) with another heterozygous dominant (Aa), the resulting offspring would have the following genotypic ratio: AA:Aa:aa, which is 1:2:1.
However, because A is dominant over a, both AA and Aa would show the dominant phenotype, giving us a phenotypic ratio of 3:1.
Learn more about Monohybrid Cross here:https://brainly.com/question/24076691
#SPJ11
The unit used to measure period is the ____
A. hertz
B. second
c. meter
D. millimeter
Answer:
Answer is B.
Explanation:
Period is duration of time.
Period can be of a second,minute,hour or of Some years.We will give unit according to the duration of time.In the given options second is most obvious because it is used to measure time.
Answer:
b
Explanation:
ape x
Genetic drift results in selection for individuals that are better adapted to their environments. True False
Answer: False.
Genetic drift is a stochastic process that occurs randomly through time. It refers to random fluctuations in allele frequencies due to chance events (small population size).
Explanation: Factors that can affect genetic diversity are Genetic drift, mutation, selection, migration, non-random mating and recombination.
Of these factors, forces that majorly control the fate of genetic variation in populations are genetic drift and natural selection.
Genetic drift refers to random fluctuations in allele frequencies due to chance events (small population size).
Natural selection involves environmental conditions acting on wild plant or animal populations or species. Most fit in a selection refers to genotype or phenotype with greater average reproductive output over it's lifespan than other genotypes or phenotypes.
This condition occurs when muscle mass, strength and function are lost through aging: a. dorsiflexion b. myoclonus c. sarcopenia d. quadriplegia
Answer:
c. sarcopenia
Explanation:
Muscle cells are involved in movements. Skeletal muscles are one of the types of muscles present in the body that are responsible for voluntary movements. As the person ages, the skeletal muscles of the body experience a progressive reduction of their mass. The systemic reduction in muscle mass also adversely affects their functions. The condition is called sarcopenia. Significantly reduced muscle mass results in several functional disabilities. Sarcopenia is the reason that the person with increasing age is more likely to be affected with muscular disorders.
In the Meselson-Stahl experiment, which mode of replication was eliminated based on data derived after one generation of replication?
a. conservative
b. semiconservative
c. dispersive
d. none of the modes
Answer: conservative model
Explanation: DNA isolated after one generation produced a single band which was a higher and intermediate in density between the heavy and light Nitrogen isotopic DNA used, showing that the first generation was a hybrid DNA. This observation fit with the dispersive and semi-conservative models only. And so at this generation, the conservative model was discarded.
Answer: CONSERVATIVE
Explanation:MESELSON-STAHL EXPERIMENT is an experiment carried out by Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl in the year 1958 which supported Watson and Crick's hypothesis that DNA replication was semiconservative.
After the completion of the first replication cycle,it was discovered that the replication is not a complete conservative process but a semi-conservative in nature. It shows that when DNA replicates one of the Helical strand is from the
one strand from the original or old helix and one newly synthesized helix.
Explain the relationship between the terms chromosome
Answer:mdkcjcjcjc
Explanation:jdjdmdjdmc
Answer:
What is a chromosome? In the nucleus of each cell, the DNA molecule is packaged into thread-like structures called chromosomes. Each chromosome is made up of DNA tightly coiled many times around proteins called histones that support its structure.
Which specialty area would be most interested in identifying the brain-activation patterns associated with a person's perception of different objects?
Answer: Coherence analysis
Explanation: Coherence analysis indicates the brain activation pattern and and shows similarity of frequency information between areas in the brain.
The renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system is a negative feedback system that plays a central role in blood pressure regulation. How does the end result of this feedback loop regulate blood pressure in the body?
Answer:
The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) is a signaling pathway responsible for regulating the body's blood pressure.
The renin‐angiotensin‐aldosterone system of the kidneys regulates blood volume.
-In response to rising blood pressure, the juxtaglomerular cells in the kidneys secrete renin into the blood. Renin converts the plasma protein angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, which in turn is converted to angiotensin II by enzymes from the lungs.
-Angiotensin II activates two mechanisms that raise blood pressure:
1. Angiotensin II constricts blood vessels throughout the body (raising blood pressure by increasing resistance to blood flow). Constricted blood vessels reduce the amount of blood delivered to the kidneys, which decreases the kidneys' potential to excrete water (raising blood pressure by increasing blood volume).
2. Angiotensin II stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone, a hormone that reduces urine output by increasing retention of H 2O and Na + by the kidneys (raising blood pressure by increasing blood volume).
There are multiple pressures involved in controlling glomerular filtration and the formation of filtrate. Which is the pressure that opposes the formation of filtrate by drawing water out of the filtrate and back into the plasma?
Answer:
blood colloid osmotic pressure (BCOP)
Explanation:
The pressure that results due to the difference in the concentration of water present between the plasma and the interstitial fluid is called as blood colloid osmotic pressure.The pressure leads to pulling of water present in the interstitial fluid and it gets drawn back into the plasma of the capillaries. The movement of fluids results due to osmosis due to which the water moves from higher concentration to lower concentration.Due to the movement of water back into the capillary plasma the formation of filtrate is prevented.If a special fungicide killed all of the glomeromycetes in an environment but did not affect other types of fungi, which of these would most likely occur?
a. Mushrooms would be absent from the environment.
b. Lichens would be absent from the environment.
c. Plant nutrient uptake from the soil would be reduced.
d. Overall decomposition rates would be dramatically reduced.
e. Aquatic habitats would completely lack fung
Answer:
Answer is C. Plants nutrients uptake from the soil would be reduced.
Explanation:
Glomeromycetes are fungi that are found in the roots of the plants. They can live without the presence of the plants roots.
The live in symbiotic relationship withe the roots of the plants , where they supplies essential nutrients or minerals from the soil to the plants , while the plants supply carbon and water to the fungi. this is regarded as mutual relationship , because both organisms benefits.
The application of special fungicide will kill the glomeromycetes, and this will indirectly affect the plant, because the nutrients from the fungi is automatically stopped.