Accreditation is voluntary for healthcare facilities. Discuss why a healthcare facility would choose to be accredited. What are the benefits?

Answers

Answer 1
A healthcare facility would choose to be accredited so they could receive payment from federally funded programs like medicare and medicaid. The benefits: strengthens and organizes patient safety efforts, can reduce liability insurance costs, provides a competitive edge, enhances staff recruitment and development. 
Answer 2

Final answer:

Healthcare facilities seek accreditation to demonstrate quality and safety, gain a competitive edge, boost patient and stakeholder confidence, and meet reimbursement or contract eligibility requirements. The accreditation process also promotes continuous improvement and adherence to industry standards.

Explanation:

Healthcare facilities choose to become accredited to demonstrate a commitment to meeting certain performance standards that ensures quality and safety for patients. Accreditation can provide a competitive advantage, instill confidence in patients and stakeholders, and may be necessary for reimbursement from insurance providers or eligibility for certain contracts.

Moreover, the accreditation process itself can serve as a catalyst for continuous improvement in healthcare organizations by identifying areas for enhancement and ensuring that facilities keep up to date with industry best practices.


Related Questions

10. I plan to go to baseball tryouts tomorrow. This is an example of a:

a.short-term goal
b.long-term goal

Answers

The correct answer is A. short term goal
The answer would be A)
Hope this help :)

Michael asks you about why some drugs are over-the-counter and some are prescription. you explain that in order for a drug to be approved for over-the-counter use the drug must:

Answers

Final answer:

Michael's query about the distinction between over-the-counter (OTC) and prescription drugs is addressed by explaining the rigorous evaluation process by the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (CDER). Drugs must be deemed safe with benefits outweighing risks and have minimal potential for abuse to be classified as OTC. They also undergo regulatory requirements and inspections to maintain their status.

Explanation:

Michael asks why some drugs are over-the-counter (OTC) and some are prescription. Drugs that are available as over-the-counter products must meet specific criteria. They must be considered safe, their benefits must outweigh the risks, and they should have a minimal potential for abuse. The Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (CDER) plays a significant role in determining which drugs can be designated as OTC. This determination is based on whether the drugs can be used safely and effectively without a doctor's supervision.



Many OTC drugs begin as prescription medications. A drug must be approved through a New Drug Application (NDA) before it can be considered for OTC status. A switch from prescription to OTC requires showing that doctor oversight is unnecessary, users can self-diagnose their condition, and the product has low toxicity. Additionally, the OTC Monograph process allows for the regulation of some OTC medicines based on established safety and effectiveness criteria without prior FDA clearance.



It's important to note that even after being designated as OTC, these drugs are still subject to the same regulatory requirements and inspections to ensure their safety and efficacy, as outlined in 21 CFR 210 and 211.

- A nursing assistant is following a care plan and regularly taking the temperature of a patient who has had a fever for the last twenty-four hours. Which skills is the nursing assistant using to implement the plan?
A- psychomotor skills (this is using muscles)
B- maintenance skills (maintaining something already established)
C- surveillance skills (gathering information to make a decision)
D- supervision skills (overseeing the work of others) **(you chose this incorrectly)

Answers

If you're answering incorrectly then the answer would be D- supervision skills. Usually the nurse works and supervise the assistant but the assistant doesn't supervise anyone

Answer:

surveillance skills

Explanation:

What are some of the challenges with intercultural communication? How might these challenges affect the level of care that someone receives?

Answers

Language and communication barrier influence the quality of care that an individual can receive. For instance, in USA, non English speakers are less likely to go for preventive check ups in the hospitals than English speaking people. In the case, where an interpreter will be needed to communicate with the health practitioners, this service is not usually available. Communication barrier can lead to poor comprehension, patients' dissatisfaction, poor adherence and ultimately poor quality of care.

Answer:

Language and communication barrier influence the quality of care that an individual can receive. For instance, in USA, non English speakers are less likely to go for preventive check ups in the hospitals than English speaking people. In the case, where an interpreter will be needed to communicate with the health practitioners, this service is not usually available. Communication barrier can lead to poor comprehension, patients' dissatisfaction, poor adherence and ultimately poor quality of care.

A nurse providing care in a hospital witnesses a client's spouse shaking the client vigorously because the client has had an episode of incontinence. because of the suspicion of physical abuse, legally, the nurse should discuss the concerns with:

Answers

The nurse should discuss the situation and his or her concerns with the adult protective services because they are the ones who handle this type of situation and are specialist in dealing this situation. They will know what to do and give advices that are needed and to be used in concerned with the situation that the client is currently experiencing.

Initiate three strategies on how to conserve water in household

Answers

1. Many water loss when you showering. It is recommended to limit your shower time to reduce water use.
2. Change your lawn plant into the one with low-water needs. Sprinkler needs much water. Also, check for broken or leaked sprinkler.
3. Use device which more efficient in using water. This include washing machine or sprinkler.

A 70-year-old man complains of a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. he has dried blood on his lips and is very anxious. his left leg is red, swollen, and painful. the emt should:

Answers

Left swollen leg indicating a thrombosis in leg. The patient might be having a pulmonary embolism. EMT should clear airway, breathing and circulation first. The patient should be given oxygen to reduce breathing difficulty. If patient is stable, try to rule out other diagnoses such as heart disease.

You are transporting a 42-year-old male who experienced blunt abdominal trauma. he is receiving oxygen at 12 l/min via a nonrebreathing mask and full spinal precautions have been applied. during your reassessment, you note his level of consciousness has decreased and his respirations have become shallow. you should:

Answers

As his respiration became shallow, it means that he is going to have difficulty in breathing, so it is best to have a device or assistance to be placed on him, in order to assist his breathing and ventilation. It is best to insert an airway adjuct to him, in order for his breath to widen and to insert a bag mask device, to assist his ventilations.

The embryonic stage of pregnancy lasts from



A. 8 weeks after conception to birth.


B. 2 days after fertilization to 8 weeks.


C. 2 weeks after conception to 8 weeks.


D. 2 days after implantation to 8 weeks

Answers

Final answer:

The embryonic stage of pregnancy lasts from 2 weeks after conception to 8 weeks.

Explanation:

The correct answer is C. 2 weeks after conception to 8 weeks. The embryonic stage of pregnancy begins at around 2 weeks after conception, when the fertilized egg implants itself into the uterine wall. It lasts until about 8 weeks, after which the fetus stage begins.

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Which is the best treatment for a severe bleeding injury

Answers

put pressure on the injury.
Place a sterile bandage or clean cloth on the wound. Then press the bandage firmly with your palm to control bleeding. Maintain pressure by binding the wound tightly.

Your body can eliminate about _______ of bac per hour.

Answers

0.15 percent

BAC is the blood alcohol level in the body, and your body is able to eliminate about 0.15% of the blood alcohol present per hour. When a person consumes alcohol, 10% of the alcohol is lost from breath, sweat and urine. The remaining 90% is metabolized in the body. 
Final answer:

The body can eliminate about one standard drink per hour. The rate at which alcohol is eliminated from the bloodstream can vary depending on factors such as body weight, metabolism, and liver health. It's important to avoid drinking and driving to ensure your safety and the safety of others.

Explanation:

The body can eliminate about one standard drink per hour. When alcohol enters the body, it is mainly metabolized by the liver. The liver can process alcohol at a fairly consistent rate, which is approximately one drink per hour.

The rate at which alcohol is eliminated from the bloodstream can vary depending on factors such as body weight, metabolism, and liver health.

It's important to note that while the body can eliminate alcohol at a certain rate, it is always best to avoid drinking and driving to ensure your safety and the safety of others.

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A client is seen in the emergency department for an injury acquired from falling off of a bicycle and fracturing the arm. the client also has a long laceration that has been sutured in the same area. the client asks the nurse why a splint is applied and not a cast. what is the best explanation by the nurse?

Answers

A splint is used to keep something in place. A cast is not needed because it's not broken

Professional treatment for an eating disorder includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
physical therapy
B.
nutritional counseling
C.
psychotherapy
D.
residential treatment

Answers

Answer:

A

Explanation:

it wont help (little or not at all) the eating disorder

Professional treatment for an eating disorder includes all of the following EXCEPT physical therapy (Option A).

What are eating disorders?

Eating disorders are a type of mental disorder in which the person eats in an unhealthy way, thereby damaging his/her health.

Eating disorders generally require professional help in order to obtain suitable treatments.

Some of the most common eating disorders include, among others, bulimia and nervous anorexia.

In conclusion, professional treatment for an eating disorder includes all of the following EXCEPT physical therapy (Option A).

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A nurse is caring for a client with an undiagnosed bone disease. when instructing on the normal process to maintain bone tissue, which process transforms osteoblasts into mature bone cells? ossification and calcification epiphyses and diaphysis formation resorption remodeling

Answers

thats a really hard question for me to answer

If you have a temporary sickness or chronic illness, make sure you have the ________ and mental ability to react quickly to dangerous situations that may present themselves on the roadway.

Answers

The answer in the space provided is physical. It is because physical and mental ability is needed in respond to dangerous situations because having physical ability allows you to move fast and mental ability helps you to be alert and produce a respond to the situation that you need to respond to such as preventing or escaping from accidents or dangerous situations.

the ability of a joint and a muscle group to move through a full range of motion is referred to as muscular endurance true or false

Answers

False. Muscular Endurance is the ability of a muscle or group of muscles to exert force against resistance, repeatedly. Swimming and running are a form of muscular endurance.

The correct answer is False! :D

Which best describes the relationship between gender identity and sexual orientation? Gender identity always indicates sexual orientation. Gender identity may not always indicate sexual orientation. People find their gender identity before exploring sexual orientation. People explore their sexual orientation before finding their gender identity

Answers

the second option. Gender identity may not always indicate sexual orientation 
A person can be biologically a male and have a female gender identity. 
A biological male or female can be different on their preferred gender identity.
It is not uncommon for someone with a male gender identity to have a male gender expression. There is nothing wrong when male acts with his own gender.
Biological sex and gender identity do not always align.
Choices on gender identity can be different from the biological sex. It depends on the person.
Biological sex is not related to culture, but gender identity and gender expression are. 
Biological aspects are unrelated to culture. But it can influence gender preference of a person to a certain degree. Environment and its culture are social pressures that can push someone to change.

If Jon takes a summer break from exercise, he should _____ when he restarts his cardiovascular exercise routine. re-start the same goals he had before the break get feedback re-evaluate his current fitness level get a workout partner

Answers

correct answer is Option A

Answer:

If Jon takes a summer break, he should re-evaluate his current fitness level when he restarts his cardiovascular exercise routine.

Explanation:

its correct on Odyssey PE 2021.

Robert has recently received several distressing phone calls from friends who were experiencing family problems after he has asked them to stop calling about these issues. Which of the following might Robert feel when he thinks about the phone?

Relaxation
Boredom
Headache
Happiness

Answers

He might have headache after all those distress calls. Or maybe he could feel relaxed because he's finally not getting the calls anymore. But I think the answer is most likely be the headache because he's thinking about the phone.
C.) headache

Hope this helps you. (:

While mopping the kitchen floor, a client at 37 weeks' gestation experiences a sudden sharp pain in her abdomen with a period of fetal hyperactivity. when the client arrives at the prenatal clinic, the nurse examines her and detects fundal tenderness and a small amount of dark-red bleeding. what does the nurse conclude is the probable cause of these clinical manifestations?

Answers

The answer to the question above is this: Partial abruptio placentae. Based on the given assessment above of a client at 37 weeks' gestation, we can conclude that she is experiencing a partial abruptio placentae. Abruptio Placentae or Placental abruption happens when the placenta separates from the uterine wall. This is actually considered as a serious condition as the placenta is the one that provides oxygen and nutrients to the fetus inside the mother's womb. Placental abruption can result in heavy bleeding and sudden sharp pain. This can be classified as partial or complete.

The nursing student is caring for a client scheduled for cataract surgery. the student reviews the preoperative prescriptions with the nursing instructor and notes that cyclopentolate (cyclogyl) eye drops are prescribed to be administered preoperatively. the nursing instructor asks the student about the action of the eye drops. the student appropriately responds when communicating which action of the medication?

Answers

Cyclopentolate is a medication that used in eye examinations and surgeries. The action of the medication to the eyes is dilation. After the medication has been administered. The pupils of the eyes will dilate as an indication that the medication has taken effect. This is what should be communicated by the nursing student to the instructor.

How long to freeze gatorade to make a slushy?

Answers

Final answer:

To make a Gatorade slushy, it typically takes 2-4 hours, depending on several factors. After 15 minutes to an hour, it's partially frozen and colored ice cubes will melt clearly. The process can be sped up by shaking Gatorade in a bag surrounded by ice and salt.

Explanation:

To freeze Gatorade and turn it into a slushy, the duration will depend on the initial temperature of the Gatorade, the temperature of the freezer, and the volume of the drink. However, a general estimate is that it may take about 2-4 hours to reach a slushy consistency. After 15 minutes in the freezer, there may be only minor freezing around the edges, and after an hour, the drink will start to become more frozen but may not yet be uniformly slushy. When food coloring is used to create colored ice cubes, the water droplets that form on the outside of the container as the ice melts are usually clear, rather than the color of the melting ice cubes, because the colored water is retained within the cube while the condensation on the outside is from moisture in the air.

In a practical method of making frozen desserts, such as ice cream, a mixture including ingredients like cocoa powder or vanilla extract can be poured into a freezer-safe container and stirred every 45 minutes to prevent it from becoming a block of ice. The aim is a soft creamy texture rather than a solid popsicle. If you desire to speed up the process, similar to ice cream, you can shake a plastic bag containing the Gatorade surrounded by ice and potentially salt in another bag, which accelerates cooling and produces a slushy texture quicker though it may not be as evenly frozen as by just leaving it in the freezer.

The freezing point of Gatorade is slightly lower than water due to its content of sugars and electrolytes, similar to the freezing time target mentioned in the context of an air-blast freezer. Lastly, Gatorade was invented for the University of Florida Gators to help replace fluids and electrolytes lost during physical exertion.

how can a person boost their immune system? Complete full body exercises or Target specific muscle groups

Answers

I would think it would be full body exercises because you are covering the entire body but I'm not too sure. I can't really see how it would help your immune system because the immune system is what protects your body from disease, virus

Ms. ferrario was once diagnosed with cervical dysplasia, so her doctor recommends that she get a ____________ every year to test for abnormal cervical cells

Answers

Ms. Ferrario was once diagnosed with cervical dysplasia, so her doctor recommends that she get a Pap smear every year to test for abnormal cervical cells.


NEED DONE TONIGHT!!!!! A role model is someone people admire and want to be like. Compare positive and negative role models for drug abuse. Write a paragraph that includes at least TWO characteristics for each type of role model.

Answers

NEED DONE TONIGHT!!!!! A role model is someone people admire and want to be like. Compare positive and negative role models for drug abuse. Write a paragraph that includes at least TWO characteristics for each type of role model.
A positive role model for drug abuse would be a person who I assume, is against drugs. A negative role model (someone who you look up to for a bad reason such as doing drugs) would be someone who supports doing drugs. Perhaps the person who is a positive role model is spreading messages to people about the negative side affects and how harmful it is to your body while the negative role model is spouting out how good it makes them feel. Characteristics of the positive role model would be resourceful and informing; characteristics of the negative role model would be careless and unquestioning, even unforgiving.

When caring for a patient with an open facial injury, the emt's immediate priority should be to:?

Answers

When caring for a patient with an open facial injury, the emt's immediate priority should be to wear gloves and facial protection.
This is to ensure that no germs enter the patient's open facial injury and thus infect it even more. The whole room, as well as the doctor's face have to be sterile in order to prevent the patient's wound from becoming infected.

Wearing gloves and using facial protection should be the EMT's top priority when attending to a patient who has an open facial wound. During a performance.

What is most crucial while transferring a patient with such a face injury?

Being as detailed as possible the with hospital about the patient's injuries is crucial when transporting a person with a face injury since they might need to contact a doctor to see the patient. A 6-year-old girl's throat was cut after she collided with a clothesline while riding her bicycle.

What is the evaluation of face injuries?

A systematic approach to the examination should be used; a general examination of the face will disclose any asymmetry, contusions, edema, or hemorrhage. Asymmetry is frequently concealed by facial edema.

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Which statement is an example of assertive communication?


A. "I'm fine with whatever the group wants to do."
B. "That's a stupid idea. No one would ever want to do that."
C. "Your idea sounds fun, but I'd rather do something else."
D. "Listen to me because I know exactly what we should do."

Answers

C. "Your idea sounds fun, but I'd rather do something else." (APEX)

The right option is; C. "Your idea sounds fun, but I'd rather do something else."

Assertive communication is a type of communication skill in which an individual is able to express ideas, feelings and thoughts (both negative and positive) in an honest, direct and suitable way. Individuals with this type of skill stand up for their personal rights and express their views about something without being aggressive or upsetting others. From the question, “Your idea sounds fun, but I'd rather do something else” is an example of assertive communication. From the statement, the person’s view (response) about the other person’s idea is expressed in a calm  and honest way.

Children who lack self-control are most likely to have parents who have the _____ parenting style.

Answers

Children who lack self-control are most likely to have parents who have the permissive parenting style.
Parents who are permissive towards their children allow them to do practically anything they want, which is why those children are often very spoiled and lack self-control. This is usually not a good way to raise your children as they will most probably grow up to be immature people unable to take care of themselves.

Answer:

permissive is the answer 1000000000000% the answer

Explanation:

Elizabeth has inflammation and degeneration of the joints and her hands and feet do you turn on a immune reaction what disease does Elizabeth have

Answers

The inflammation and degeneration of Elizabeth's joints in her hands and feet
  due to an autoimmune reaction are symptom for rheumatoid arthritis. So, Elizabeth may have the disease rheumatoid arthritis. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease that  results in chronic inflammation of the joints and other areas of the body.  This disease affects mostly women. 

Which of these is the best way to avoid gun violence?

A. Take a time-out to get your anger under control.
B. Never back down from a confrontation.
C. Escalate every situation.
D. Act aggressively.

Answers

It's obviously answer A since without anger, aggressiveness and confrontation there would not be a situation to deal with these sort of violences.

Answer:

A. Take a time-out to get your anger under control.

Explanation:

This is an obvious answer. The best way to avoid gun violence is to take a time-out to get your anger under control. It will be pretty unwise to have a never back down mentality in this conflicts or acting aggressively, that cannot be a way to avoid gun violence, those are reacting behaviours which end in emotion explosion, making you not think logically.

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